Rh Blood Group System and HDFN

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Questions and Answers

What observation initially linked Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn (HDFN) to the Rh blood group system?

  • A hemolytic transfusion reaction in a mother after receiving blood from her husband. (correct)
  • Discovery of Lw antibodies in guinea pigs and rabbits.
  • Identification of the Rh antigen in Rhesus monkeys.
  • The routine use of RhIG (Rh Immune Globulin) in prenatal care.

According to current genetic theory, where are the genes responsible for the production of Rh antigens located?

  • Chromosome 1, with the RHD and RHCE genes in close proximity. (correct)
  • On the mitochondrial DNA, inherited maternally.
  • Distributed across multiple chromosomes due to independent assortment.
  • Chromosome 6, closely linked to the RHAG gene.

How does the absence of the RHAG gene affect the expression of RHD and RHCE antigens?

  • It alters the structure of RHD and RHCE antigens, leading to the production of novel antigens.
  • It enhances the expression of RHD but suppresses RHCE.
  • It has no effect on the expression of RHD and RHCE antigens.
  • It completely prevents the expression of both RHD and RHCE antigens. (correct)

What is the significance of the finding that Rh antigens are found on a glycoprotein traversing the red cell plasma membrane 12 times?

<p>It suggests a role for Rh antigens in maintaining the structural integrity of the red cell membrane. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why do individuals who are Rh null often exhibit stomatocytosis?

<p>Due to the absence of Rh glycoprotein, affecting the red cell membrane stability. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does Fisher-Race genetic theory differ from the current genetic theory regarding Rh antigen production?

<p>Fisher-Race suggests that each Rh antigen (D, C, E, etc.) is controlled by a separate gene, while the current theory suggests the RHD and RHCE genes control the Rh antigens. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does Rhmod differ from Rhnull in terms of Rh antigen expression?

<p>Rhmod exhibits weakened expression of Rh antigens, while Rhnull completely lacks all Rh antigens. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the Rosenfield numeric terminology for Rh antigens, what does the absence of a number indicate?

<p>The corresponding antigen is absent. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are Rh antigens considered highly immunogenic?

<p>Because exposure to even small amounts of Rh-positive red cells can stimulate antibody production in Rh-negative individuals. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the dispersion of Rh antigens in the plasma membrane influence the type of hemolysis typically associated with Rh antibodies?

<p>It promotes extravascular hemolysis because cells opsonized by antibodies are easily eliminated by the reticuloendothelial system. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of IgG1 and IgG3 subclasses of Rh antibodies in hemolytic reactions?

<p>They do not bind complement, leading to extravascular hemolysis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is the first pregnancy of an Rh-negative mother with an Rh-positive fetus usually safe from HDFN?

<p>The mother has not yet been exposed to the Rh antigen to produce a significant antibody response. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the basis for using anti-D to detect the presence of the D antigen?

<p>The D antigen is the most immunogenic of the Rh antigens. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the clinical implication of a patient being identified as Weak D positive?

<p>The patient should be considered Rh-positive and can receive Rh-positive blood. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition necessitates the use of the Indirect Antiglobulin Test (IAT) in Rh testing?

<p>Identifying the presence of Weak D antigen expression. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'C trans' refer to in the context of Weak D expression?

<p>The D antigen being located on the opposite chromosome from the C antigen, resulting to positional effect and weakened D expression. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key characteristic that differentiates a Partial D phenotype from a regular D-positive phenotype?

<p>Partial D individuals have altered or missing epitopes of the D antigen, and still react with some commerical Anti-D, whereas regular D-positive individuals express the complete D antigen. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might a person with a Partial D phenotype produce an anti-D antibody?

<p>Because they can recognize the missing epitopes on their own red cells as foreign. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct course of action if a patient with Partial D requires a blood transfusion?

<p>Transfuse with D-positive red cells, as they still have some D antigen epitopes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Upon performing a Weak D test, agglutination is observed after adding the Coombs check cells. What does this indicate?

<p>The patient is Rh-negative. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If you get a positive DAT result when performing a Weak D test, what conclusion can you draw?

<p>The test is inconclusive (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Cis-product antigens are present only when which condition is met?

<p>C and e are inherited as haplotype. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Rhnull cells, when needed for transufion, can indicate WHAT type of issue?

<p>HA (hemolytic anemia) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is anti-total Rh made?

<p>made by Rhnull individuals (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the LW blood group system similar to serologically?

<p>Rh (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST accurate difference between Type 1 and Type 2 oligosaccharide chains regarding Lewis antigen expression?

<p>Type 1 chains have a β1-3 linkage and are mainly in secretions and plasma, while Type 2 chains have a β1-4 linkage and are RBC-bound. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the FUT3 enzyme's specificity for glycosidic linkages explain the differential expression of Lewis antigens?

<p>FUT3 only adds fucose to the 4th carbon of GlcNAc in Type 1 chains because the 4th carbon in Type 2 is already occupied by galactose. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of Lewis blood group genetics, what is the functional consequence of 'se' and 'le' being amorph genes?

<p>They do not encode any transferase enzyme, resulting in no antigen expression related to those genes. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the genetic interaction between the Le and Se genes influence the final expression of Lewis antigens on red blood cells?

<p>The Le gene must precede the Se gene's action, converting a precursor to Lea, which is then modified by the Se gene product to form Leb. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient's red blood cells type as Le(a-b-) despite having the Le gene, what is the MOST likely explanation for this discrepancy?

<p>The fucosyltransferase enzyme is non-functional or partially functional, so Le antigens are present in the secretion but are only absent in the plasma or RBC. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do changes in a patient's physiological state, such as pregnancy or certain diseases, lead to transformation of Lewis antigen phenotypes on red blood cells?

<p>They alter the blood's composition, which reduces antigen expression, leading to changes in observable phenotype. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it that infants younger than 10 days old typically type as Le(a-b-), regardless of their actual Lewis genotype?

<p>Lewis antigens have not yet adsorbed onto the RBC membrane. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If you encounter a patient with a Le(a+b+) phenotype, how would you differentiate whether this is the true phenotype or a transitional phase due to age?

<p>Consider the age of the patient, as infants transition to Le(a+b+) after 10 days, but adults will eventually shift to Le(a-b+). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are Lewis antibodies, specifically IgM antibodies, considered clinically insignificant in causing Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn (HDFN)?

<p>Lewis antibodies are IgM and cannot cross the placenta. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the presence of soluble Lewis antigens in plasma contribute to the typically benign nature of Lewis antibodies in transfusion settings?

<p>Soluble Lewis antigens neutralize Lewis antibodies, preventing them from reacting with red blood cells. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the presence of the A4GALT enzyme influence the production of Pk antigen?

<p>It facilitates the conversion of lactosylceramide to Pk antigen, which is a necessary step in the synthesis of the P antigen. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient's red blood cells strongly express the i antigen but only weakly express the I antigen, what is the MOST likely explanation?

<p>The patient is likely a newborn or has a condition such as dyserythropoiesis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might pre-warming a test sample be a crucial step when investigating clinically significant antibodies, particularly in the context of the I/i blood group system?

<p>To denature cold-reacting autoantibodies like anti-I, which are typically clinically insignificant and can mask other clinically relevant antibodies. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do the structural differences between M/N and S/s antigens, in terms of their location on glycophorins, affect their susceptibility to enzyme degradation?

<p>M/N antigens on Glycophorin A are more exposed and easily degraded by enzymes, whereas S/s antigens on Glycophorin B being deeper, are less susceptible. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the clinical implication of identifying a patient as U-negative, particularly in the context of blood transfusions?

<p>It indicates that the patient is at higher risk for developing alloantibodies if transfused with U-positive blood, potentially causing a severe hemolytic transfusion reaction. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the co-dominant inheritance of MNSs antigens influence the strength of reactions observed during blood typing?

<p>Homozygous individuals (e.g., M+N- or M-N+) exhibit stronger reactions due to the increased presence of the specific antigen, whereas heterozygous individuals (M+N+) show weaker reactions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes the disease mechanism in Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria (PCH) from typical cold agglutinin diseases (CAD)?

<p>PCH is caused by an IgG autoantibody (Anti-P) that binds to red cells in the cold and causes complement-mediated lysis upon warming, whereas typical CAD involves IgM antibodies causing agglutination. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the expected outcome when performing a blood transfusion on a patient with the p phenotype, and how does this relate to the antigens they lack?

<p>Severe transfusion reactions are likely due to the formation of anti-P, anti-P1, and anti-Pk antibodies in p individuals, which react with antigens present in almost all donor units. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the presence of hydatid cyst fluid influence blood group serology testing, particularly in the context of P1 antigen detection, and why is this important?

<p>Hydatid cyst fluid contains high levels of P1 antigen, which can neutralize anti-P1 antibodies, potentially masking the presence of other clinically significant antibodies. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the B3GALNT1 enzyme in the synthesis of P blood group system antigens, and how does it influence the expression of P and PX2 antigens?

<p>B3GALNT1 mediates the synthesis of P antigen from Pk antigen and PX2 antigen from Type 2 paragloboside. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the presence of a malignant tumor, such as adenocarcinoma, influence the production or expression of P antigens, and what implications does this have for antibody formation?

<p>Tumor cells express foreign P antigens that are not normally present in the individual, stimulating the production of anti-P antibodies. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In cases of leukemia, what impact does the release of immature white blood cells (WBCs) into circulation have on the overall increase in cell production, and how does this affect blood typing results?

<p>Immature WBCs contribute to the overall increase in cell production, potentially affecting antigen expression and complicating blood typing interpretations. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is the detection of anti-S and anti-s antibodies affected by performing the AHG test without the traditional 37°C incubation step, and what is the rationale behind this modification?

<p>Skipping the 37°C incubation step may improve the detection of anti-S and anti-s antibodies with optimal reactivity between 10-22°C by preventing decreased activity at higher temperatures. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the presence or absence of the U antigen relate to the inheritance of S and s antigens, and what is the %frequency of the resulting phenotypes?

<p>The U antigen is always present when S and s are inherited (S+s+U+). However, about 85% of S-s- individuals tested are U-negative (RARE). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What mechanisms contribute to the increased expression of the i antigen in various disease states, and how does this phenomenon affect the survival and function of red blood cells?

<p>The shortened maturation time of RBCs leads to a stronger expression of i antigen. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the presence of disulfide bonds on Kell glycoproteins contribute to their function?

<p>They stabilize the structure of Kell antigens and connect them with the XK protein. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are sulfhydryl reagents used in blood banking in the context of Kell antigens?

<p>To disrupt the disulfide bonds, modifying or destroying certain Kell antigens. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST critical implication of individuals with the Kellnull phenotype receiving a blood transfusion from a donor with normal Kell antigens?

<p>Alloimmunization leading to the production of anti-Ku. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the underlying mechanism by which anti-K antibodies can lead to suppression of erythropoiesis in a fetus?

<p>Destruction of erythroid precursor cells in the fetal bone marrow. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does McLeod syndrome affect the structure and function of red blood cells, and what is the underlying cause?

<p>Acanthocytosis and decreased survival due to absent Kx antigen. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the genetic relationship between the KEL and XK genes, and how does this relationship manifest phenotypically?

<p>The XK protein is essential for the proper expression of Kell antigens; absence leads to altered Kell antigen expression. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD) also presents with McLeod phenotype. What is the MOST likely explanation for this co-occurrence at the molecular level?

<p>The XK gene, mutated in McLeod syndrome, is directly involved in the NADPH oxidase complex affected in CGD. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the inheritance pattern of the Fy gene influence the expression of Duffy antigens among different ethnic populations, particularly regarding resistance to Plasmodium vivax?

<p>The Fy allele is prevalent in African populations, resulting in Fy(a-b-) phenotype and resistance to P. vivax. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanistic basis for the destruction of Duffy antigens on red blood cells by enzymes like ficin and papain, and why is this clinically significant?

<p>These enzymes cleave peptide bonds within Duffy antigens, removing them from the red cell surface. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the Duffy antigen/receptor for chemokines (DARC) in modulating inflammatory responses, and how does the Fy null phenotype affect this function?

<p>DARC binds and internalizes chemokines, reducing inflammation, and the Fy null phenotype impairs this function, leading to increased inflammation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the phenomenon of dosage affect the strength of reactions observed with anti-Jka and anti-Jkb antibodies, and what is the underlying immunological principle?

<p>Cells with homozygous expression of the Kidd antigens react more strongly with corresponding antibodies due to a higher antigen density. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Given the clinical significance of Kidd antibodies, what specific characteristic makes them particularly challenging to detect in routine antibody screening?

<p>Their titers decline rapidly after initial sensitization, often becoming undetectable unless recent transfusion history is known. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST significant implication of delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions (DHTR) caused by Kidd antibodies with regards to patient safety and transfusion practices?

<p>The delayed onset of DHTRs makes it challenging to identify the causative antibody and implement appropriate preventative measures for future transfusions. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do the genetic mechanisms underlying In(Lu) differ from those causing the recessive type of Lu(a-b-) phenotype, and how do these differences affect antibody production?

<p>In(Lu) involves a dominant inhibitor gene, suppressing Lutheran antigen expression, while the recessive type results from inheriting two silent alleles. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which specific characteristic of anti-Lub antibodies makes them less clinically significant compared to other red blood cell antibodies, particularly in causing hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)?

<p>Most individuals are Lub-positive, reducing the likelihood of alloimmunization and antibody formation in pregnant women. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of chymotrypsin in modifying Lutheran antigens, and how does this enzymatic sensitivity compare to that of other blood group systems?

<p>Chymotrypsin degrades Lutheran antigens, differentiating them from Kell system antigens, which are resistant via disulfide bonds. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the presence or absence of Lutheran antigens correlate with specific red blood cell morphologies, and what implications does this correlation have for diagnosing underlying hematological conditions?

<p>The absence of Lutheran antigens is associated with poikilocytosis and acanthocytosis, causing red cell shape irregularities. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST likely explanation for undetectable expression of Luª and Lub antigens despite the presence of the corresponding genes, and what additional serological testing should be performed to confirm this?

<p>The individual has inherited the In(Lu) gene, which suppresses Lutheran antigen expression, and adsorption-elution studies should be performed. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the interaction between Band 3 and Glycophorin A influence Wright (Wr) antigen expression?

<p>It is essential; without Glycophorin A, neither Wr^a nor Wr^b antigens can be expressed. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What challenges might a laboratory face when investigating antibodies to low-prevalence antigens in the Diego blood group system?

<p>The antibodies are exceedingly rare, making identification and confirmation difficult. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST likely genetic explanation for a patient displaying the rare Yt(a-b-) null phenotype?

<p>The individual has mutations in both alleles of the gene responsible for the GPI anchor on acetylcholinesterase. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of Xg blood group genetics, how would you explain the difference in the inheritance pattern between males and females?

<p>Females can be hetero/homozygous for the XG/MIC2 genes, while males are hemizygous. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What implication does the X-linked nature of the Xg blood group system have on predicting the phenotype of offspring?

<p>If a male is Xg(+) and his partner is Xg(-), all daughters will be (+) and all sons will be (-). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does DTT's sensitivity to Dombrock antigens influence antibody investigation strategies where antigen inactivation is required?

<p>DTT treatment eliminates Dombrock antigens, which aids in identifying antibodies to other blood group systems. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What might be indicated by a blood sample from a malaria patient that tests DAT positive AFTER treatment with chloroquine?

<p>The chloroquine treatment has freed bound IgG in red cells, which were masked by the antigens. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a laboratory technician suspects the presence of anti-LW in a patient sample, how might they use DTT to differentiate it from anti-D?

<p>Treating the cells with DTT will destroy LW antigens, eliminating anti-LW reactivity while anti-D will remain unaffected. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering the clinical significance of Landsteiner-Wiener (LW) antibodies, how does their association with the Rh blood group system influence transfusion practices?

<p>Anti-LW antibodies may mimic anti-D, posing challenges in crossmatching and requiring DTT to differentiate between those antibodies. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are Chido/Rodgers (CH/RG) antibodies, directed against high-prevalence antigens found on complement component C4, often considered clinically insignificant?

<p>IgG antibodies are readily neutralized by the soluble antigens present in plasma. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What underlying genetic mechanism accounts for the null phenotype in the Gerbich blood group system, characterized by a complete absence of GPC and GPD?

<p>A deletion of several exons within the GYPC gene. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How might the absence of Gerbich antigens affect the integrity and function of red blood cells, particularly in relation to hereditary elliptocytosis?

<p>It disrupts the normal red cell morphology due to the loss of protein 4.1, causing hereditary elliptocytosis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Given the variability in enzyme sensitivity among Gerbich antigens, how could a blood bank scientist use this information to characterize a novel Gerbich antibody?

<p>By treating red cells with ficin and papain, then observing changes in antibody reactivity to determine antigen specificity. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What accounts for the negative expression of Cromer antigens in Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH) cells?

<p>The lack of Decay Accelerating Factor (DAF) due to a defect in GPI anchor synthesis. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does weak expression of Knops antigens on cord blood cells potentially complicate antibody detection in newborns?

<p>Weak expression may result in false-negative antibody screens, delaying appropriate intervention if maternal antibodies are present. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic is LEAST likely associated with Knops blood group system antibodies?

<p>Implicated in causing severe HDFN (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the In(Lu) gene influence the expression of CD44 on red blood cells in the context of the Indian blood group system?

<p>It can depress CD44 expression, leading to an In(a-b-) phenotype. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might a patient who is MER2 negative still not produce anti-MER2 antibodies?

<p>The MER2 antigen is present in other tissues, precluding alloimmunization. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the expression pattern of JMH1 antigen change with age and what implication does this have for antibody detection?

<p>The expression declines with age, potentially leading to false-negative results in antibody screening among older patients. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the genetic structure and function of AQP3 relate to the expression of GIL antigens?

<p>AQP3, a glycerol transporter aquaporin-3 and member of major intrinsic protein family of water and glycerol channels, carries the GIL antigen. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST accurate description of the clinical significance of Anti-Duclos, Anti-Ola, and Anti-DSLK?

<p>The clinical significance of all three remains largely unknown due to their rare encounter. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the functional implication of FORS1 glycolipid expression on tissues beyond red blood cells?

<p>It increases susceptibility to certain bacterial infections, such as those caused by E. coli. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the genetic deficiency of the ABCG2 transporter affect the expression of JR antigens, and what are its potential therapeutic consequences?

<p>Deficiency results in the Jr(a-) phenotype and could cause problems in chemotherapy due to multidrug resistance. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the widespread tissue distribution of Lan antigen affect transfusion strategies for patients with anti-Lan?

<p>It necessitates the use of autologous transfusions due to the challenge of finding compatible allogeneic blood. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential clinical consequence of transfusing Weak Vel reacting red cells, particularly considering the variability in Vel antigen expression?

<p>Unexpected severe hemolytic transfusion reactions arising from complement activation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does CD59 deficiency in Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH) directly lead to increased red cell lysis?

<p>By preventing the inhibition of the membrane attack complex, allowing complement-mediated lysis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the genetic basis of the Augustine blood group system influence individual variations in ENT2 protein structure and function?

<p>Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) within the SCL29A1 gene might affect nucleoside transport efficiency. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST probable explanation if a blood sample presents as Sid (Sda) positive, but the patient has no known history or symptoms of active disease or infection?

<p>The Tamm-Horsfall protein is always expressed even without signs of disease. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the functional implication of Anti-AnWj being clinically significant?

<p>It suggests the receptor plays a role in bacterial pathogenesis, potentially serving as an invasion point for pathogens. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How would you accurately describe the ISBT 700 series of blood groups?

<p>Blood groups of very low prevalence that further genetic or serologic/biochemical studies are needed. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

HDFN

Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn linked to Rh BGS.

Inheritance of Rh

The currently accepted theory states RHD and RHCE genes are linked on Chromosome 1.

RHAG

Glycoprotein essential for Rh antigen expression; its absence affects RHD and RHCE antigen levels.

Rh null

Individuals who are Rh null often have red cell morphology abnormality.

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Amino Acid Variation Significance

Amino acid sequence variations at positions 103 and 226 create different antigens.

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Fisher-Race Theory

Three different genes on three different loci in close proximity on the same chromosome.

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'd' Antigen

Denotes only the absence of D antigen; other Rh antigens may still be present.

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Weiner Genetic Theory

One gene is responsible for the creation of three antigenic combinations

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Rosenfield Numeric Technology

Uses a numeric system where 'Rh:' is required and follows a specific DCEce order.

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Rh Antibody Response

Antibody production occurs after exposure to Rh positive cells, starting with IgM and developing into IgG.

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Rh Antigen Immunogenicity

D > c > E > C > e

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Weak D Mechanisms

Weak D expression can occur via genetic, C trans, or partial D mechanisms.

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Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT)

test to detect in vitro sensitization

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Indirect Coombs Test (IAT)

To detect in vivo sensitization where Anti-D has not sensitized it.

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Anti-CW

Is often naturally occurring and can cause Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions and Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn.

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Anti-total Rh

Anti-total Rh is made by Rhnull individuals and reacts with all red cells except Rhnull cells.

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LW Blood Group System

Chromosone 19

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Nursing Implications for Transfusion Reactions

Stop transfusion, notify physician, change IV tubing, treat symptoms

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Lewis Blood Group System

Consists of Lea and Leb antigens, which are not manufactured by the RBCs themselves but adsorbed onto the RBC membrane from plasma.

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FUT3 (Lewis gene product)

An enzyme (Alpha-1-4-L-fucosyltransferase) that transfers L-fucose to precursor substances,Facilitates the creation of Lewis antigens.

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Type 1 vs. Type 2 Chains

Type 1 chains are found in secretions, plasma, and some tissues, linked via β1-3 linkage; Type 2 chains predominate on RBCs, linked via β1-4 linkage.

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Leb Antigen

Requires both Le and Se genes, found in saliva, formed from Lea antigen.

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Le Antigen in Secretions vs. Plasma/RBC

Le antigens are present in secretions but absent on plasma or RBCs. If the opposite is true then it can be a false positive.

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Factors Affecting Le Antigen Expression

Lewis antigens adsorb onto RBCs, their expression can be decreased by pregnancy, cancer, cirrhosis, viral/parasitic infections.

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Characteristics of Lewis Antibodies

Lewis antibodies are typically IgM, naturally occurring, and do not cross the placenta so do not cause HDFN

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Characteristics: Anti-LebH

Because they are IgM, Naturally occurring, Reacts more in Group O individuals due to higher levels of H antigen.

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P system antigens

Glycosphingolipids

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P1PK gene

A4GALT product forms P1 and Pk antigens

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GLOBOSIDE gene

B3GALNT1 enzyme facilitates P antigen production

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Lactosylceramide

The precursor to the P BGS antigens

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Anti-PP1Pk is naturally occurring

p individuals produce

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Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria (PCH)

Auto-anti P with cold activation leads to RBC lysis

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Benign AutoAnti - I

Common benign cold agglutinin

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Pathologic AutoAnti-I

Infection-related antibody that causes Cold Agglutinin Disease

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I and i antigens

Present in adults vs newborns, branched vs linear

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M and N antigen location

M and N antigens are Easily degraded by enzymes

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S, s and U location

Ss and U antigens are Less easily degraded but still degradable by enzymes

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U antigen

Stands for Universal; requires S or s

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Kell Blood Group System

Has high and low-incidence antigens, similar to the Rh system; named after Mrs. Kelleher.

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Anti-Ku (KEL5)

Antigen present on all RBCs, except Kellnull, and produced by Kellnull individuals.

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Kpª antigen

Low frequency antigen (2%), also known as Penney, with antibody Anti-Kpa.

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Jsª Antigen

20% in blacks, 0.1% in whites, other name is Sutter, with produced antibody Anti-Jsa.

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McLeod syndrome

The state of having absence of Kx & Km antigen (almost exclusively in white males; X-linked inheritance; Mother is the Carrier)

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DOMINANT TYPE Lu(a-b-)

Normal antigens are thought to be suppressed by a dominant regulator gene called In(Lu) for 'Inhibitor of Lutheran.

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RECESSIVE TYPE Lu(a-b-)

A silent allele for Luthern causes lack of Lutheran antigens; makes anti-Lu3

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RECESSIVE X-LINKED INHIBITOR TYPE Lu(a-b-)

Lutheran antigens thought to be supressed by another factor; did not fit either the dominant or recessive inheritance pattern. All indivuals were male and carried trace amounts of Lu

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Duffy antigens

The membranes of the chemokine receptor know as ATYPICAL CHEMOKINE RECEPTOR 1 (ACKR1)

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CHRONIC GRANULOMATOUS DISEASE

Inability of the phagocyte to produce NADPH oxidase which is needed to produce hydrogen peroxide (responsible in killing the phagocytosed organism)

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Uncommon Blood Groups

Red blood cell antigens coming from different blood group systems.

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Diego System

A blood group system identified in 1955 from a Venezuelan baby suffering from HDFN, ISBT symbol: Di.

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DI Antigens

high and low prevalence antigens carried on by Band 3 (aka Red cell Anion exchanger 1/AE1).

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DI Antibodies

causes HTR & HDFN, commonly identified to cause severe HTR and commonly found to be an autoantibody.

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YT System

Individual first to have found and antibody against YT antigen has the surname Cartwright, ISBT symbol: YT.

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YT Antigens

High (Yta) and low (Ytb) prevalence antigens.

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Xg System

blood group system, 89% in women & 66% in males possess Xgª (not immunogenic) and CD99.

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DO Antigens

High prevalence antigens

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Colton System

Blood group system discovered in 1967 - Antibody from patient Calton; misread as Colton, SYMBOL CO.

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AQP1 gene

The gene product of travels RBC membrane multiple times and is Integral protein in kidneys.

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Chloroquine

Malaria treatment, remove HLE antigens to prevent masking antigens in RBC membrane surface

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LW System

Landsteiner-Wiener System, gene product: Intracellular adhesion molecule 4 that associated with Rh blood group.

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CH/RG Antibodies

Antibodies that are neutralized by plasma d/t antigens present in the plasma.

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GE Antibodies

Antibodies, Mostly IgG, rarely IgM , Anti-Ge2, Reportedly leading to 3 severe cases of HDFN

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CROM Antigens

Carried in a DAF(Decay Accelerating Factor).

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Knops Antibodies

Clinically insignificant antibodies, not implicated in HDFN or HTR; detected with AHG.

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Anti-Kn

Most common antibody in the Knops blood group, often found in multiply transfused individuals.

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Anti-Ok

Rare antibody (IgG) that is highly reactive on AHG test, induces reduced survival of red cells.

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In(a-b-)

Extremely rare phenotype only found in patients with congenital dyserythropoietic anemia; depressed on In(Lu) RBCs.

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MER2 Antigen

Antigen abundant in platelets and erythroid precursors, reduced as red cells mature; resistant to Ficin and papain.

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Anti-MER2 (IgG)

Reactive at antihumanglobulin phase; found in individuals true negative for the MER2 gene.

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JMH1 Antigen

The originally known antigen; found on RBCs, placenta, thymus, testes; stronger reactions with age; sensitive to Ficin, papain, DTT

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Anti-JMH (IgG)

Reactive in AHG phase, found in high titers but considered clinically insignificant; does not cause HTR or HDN.

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Anti-GIL

An antibody (IgG) that is reactive at 37 degrees Celsius, enhanced by AHG, causes HTR but not HDFN.

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FORS1 Antigen Location

FORS1 glycolipid is not normally expressed in the RBC but rather expressed in other tissues whether they are healthy/malignant.

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Jra

Fully developed at birth; resistant to Ficin, papain, DTT, glycine acid EDTA

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Study Notes

KN Antibodies

  • Clinically insignificant, not implicated in HDFN or HTR.
  • IgG antibodies can be detected with AHG (Anti-Human Globulin test).
    • Anti-Kn^a is the most common antibody in the Knops blood group.
    • Commonly found in multiply transfused individuals and multi-specific antisera.
    • Anti-Ge4 is very rare and frequently found in the black population.

Indian System (023)/In

  • The individuals first found to have the antigen are coming from India.
  • The CD44 gene is located on Chromosome 11.
    • CD44 acts as an adhesion molecule

IN Antigens

  • There is In^a which presents with low prevalence.
  • There is In^b which presents with high prevalence.
  • Carried by CD44.
  • Weakly expressed on cord RBCs.
  • Sensitive to Ficin, papain, and DTT.
  • Resistant to acid glycine EDTA.

NULL/WEAK Phenotype

  • In(a-b-) is extremely rare, has only been found in a patient with congenital dyserythropoietic anemia.
  • Depressed on In(Lu) RBCs, which correlates to the Lutheran inhibitor gene.
    • Connected to the reduced amount of CD44, occurs in the case of individuals who have dominant null lu phenotype mainly because of the inheritance of inhibitor gene, In(Lu).

IN Antibodies

  • Anti-In^a and Anti-Inb (IgG).
    • Enhanced by AHG
    • Causes HTR but no HDN
      • Anti-In^a has a possibility of decreased RBC survival
      • Anti-Inb reported to cause immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction
    • Highly reactive at AHG testing

OK System (024)/OK

  • The OK blood group system was named after Mrs. Kobutso, a native Japanese who was the first patient to produce the antibody against the antigen.KO from kobutsu was reversed d/t confusion w/ kell, hence OK
  • BSG gene is located on Chromosome 19.
    • Basigin Protein (CD147) is a member of the immunoglobulin super family that mainly functions as receptors and adhesion molecules.
    • It is the invasion molecule of the malaria parasite, Plasmodium falciparum.

OK Antigens

  • Ok^a antigen.
    • The glycine molecule of Ok^a was changed to valine
  • OKGV
    • Valine molecule from OKGV was replaced by methionine
  • Carried by CD147 (Basigin Protein).
  • These antigens are well developed in newborns.
  • Resistant to Ficin, papain, DTT and Glycine acid EDTA.

OK Antibodies

  • Anti-Ok^a is rare.
    • IgG
    • Highly reactive on AHG test
    • Induce reduced survival of red cells
    • Not implicated with HDFN mainly because of the rarity of the phenotype
      • However, it is reported to cause reduced survival of red cells containing Ok^a antigen.

RAPH System (025)

  • The name of the blood group system was derived from the first person found to produce the anti-MER2, Raph.
    • MER2 name origin
      • M- was identified as a monoclonal antibody;
      • ER- the initial of the laboratory where it was first studied, the Eleanor Roosevelt Laboratory
  • CD151 gene on Chromosome 11.
    • Tetraspanin (CD151)
      • A protein that is essential for the assembly of the basement membranes in the kidney and skin.

RAPH Antigens

  • MER2 antigen
    • Abundant in platelets and erythroid precursors, and other tissues
      • The antigen will reduce if the red blood cell starts to mature
      • Even if you are negative to MER2, you will not produce the antibody, mainly because the antigen is present in other tissues, particularly in the platelets.
    • Resistant to Ficin and papain
    • Sensitive to trypsin, alpha-chymotrypsin, pronase, AET

RAPH Antibodies

  • Anti-MER2 (IgG).
    • Reactive at AHG phase.
    • Only produced by individuals who are true negative for the MER2 gene.
    • Found in individuals with end-stage renal disease
      • Due to the presence of anti-MER2 attacking the tetraspanin present in kidneys
  • May cause HTR, but not HDN.
    • Only one individual was found to experience HTR who was transfused with three units of packed RBCs

JMH System (026)

  • From John Milton Hagen, who first produced the antibody against the JMH antigen.
  • SEMA7A gene on Chromosome 15.
    • CD108 is produced and where the antigens of JMH blood group system reside

JMH Antigens

  • JMH1 antigen
    • The originally known antigen.
    • Found on RBCs, placenta, thymus, testes.
    • Weak on cord RBCs.
      • The JMH antigen will be expressed further, but will start to decline at the age of 50 and above.
    • Sensitive to Ficin, papain, and DTT.
    • Resistant to glycine acid EDTA.
  • Other antigens: JMH2, JMH3, JMH4, JMH5, JMH6.
    • Could also be found in the thymus, placenta, testes.

JMH Antibodies

  • Anti-JMH (IgG).
    • Reactive in AHG phase.
    • Found in high titers but are weakly reactive, therefore it is considered clinically insignificant.
    • Do not cause HTR or HDN.

Gill System (029)

  • AQP3 gene on Chromosome 9.
    • AQP3 or glycerol transporter aquaporin-3 which is a member of the major intrinsic protein family of water and glycerol channels

GIL Antigens

  • GIL Antigen
    • Carried by AQP3.
    • Resistant to glycine-acid EDTA and DTT.
    • Enhanced by Ficin and papain

GIL Antibodies

  • Anti-GIL
    • IgG
      • Reactive at 37 degree Celsius
      • Enhanced by AHG
    • Cause HTR but not HDFN
      • Only one case reported HTR

RH-Associated Glycoprotein System (030)

  • RHAG gene on Chromosome 6.
    • RHAG glycoprotein
      • Does not contain the antigens in itself but needs to be in complex with the Rh proteins to express the Rh antigens: D, C ,E
        • If not present, it will lead to a null phenotype.

RHAG Antigens

  • High prevalence
    • Duclos, DSLK, RHAG 4
  • Low prevalence
    • Ola

RHAG Antibodies

  • Anti Duclos, Anti Ola, Anti DSLK.
    • Significance is still unknown.
    • Rarely encountered.
  • Anti RHAG 4
    • Only one case that caused HDFN
    • Its significance is still unknown for transfusion.

FORS System (031)

  • Named after the person who discovered it, Mr. John Frederick Forssman
  • GBGT1 gene on Chromosome 9.
    • The product is a glycosyltransferase by adding a sugar molecule (N-acetylgalactosamine) to the P antigen.

FORS Antigens

  • FORS1
    • Said to be another subgroup of A
      • Assigned as: Apae - Mainly because of its immunodominant sugar which is the N-acetylgalactosamine which is similar to the immunodominant sugar of A antigen.
    • Addition of GalNac to P antigen
    • Receptor for E. coli
      • A lot of FORS1 antigen can be more susceptible to E. coli infection.
    • FORS1 glycolipid is not normally expressed in the RBC but rather can be found in other tissues whether they are healthy/malignant such as the:
      • Reported to expressed the FORS1 antigen:
        • Gastric tissues
        • colonic mucosa
        • Lungs
        • kidney
    • Enhanced with Ficin and papain.
    • Resistant to DTT and glycine-acid EDTA.

FORS Antibodies

  • Anti-FORS1 (IgM)
    • Reactive at 4°C (cold reacting antibodies)
    • Unknown clinical significance.

JR System (032)

  • Named after the patient who was able to produce an antibody against this antigen named Rose Jacobs (RJ → JR)
  • ABCG2 gene on Chromosome 4
    • Member of the adenosine triphosphate binding cassette transporters (ATP binding cassette transporter)
      • Distributed all throughout the body
      • Gives problems in chemotherapy
      • Involved in the multidrug resistance of the tumor cells

JR Antigens

  • Jra
    • Fully developed at birth
    • Resistant to Ficin, papain, DTT, glycine acid EDTA

JR Antibodies

  • Anti-Jra (IgG)
    • Causes HDFN and HTR
    • Reactive in body temperature.

LAN System (033)

  • ABCB6 gene on Chromosome 2.
    • Member of the adenosine triphosphate binding cassette transporters (ATP binding cassette transporter)
      • Functions in heme synthesis
      • ATP dependent uptake of heme and porphyrins into the mitochondria.

LAN Antigens

  • Lan (99%)
    • High incidence antigen (99% of the population)
    • Present not only in the red cell but widely expressed in the:
      • Heart, skeletal muscle, fetal liver, eye, mitochondrial membrane, and Golgi apparatus.
    • Resistant to Ficin, papain, DTT, and glycine acid EDTA.

LAN Antibodies

  • Anti-Lan (IgG)
    • Causes HTR (Hemolytic transfusion Reaction)and mild HDFN
    • Binds complement
    • Clinically significant

VEL System (034)

  • SMIM1 gene on Chromosome 1
    • Produces SMIM1 protein

VEL Antigens

  • Vel
    • Located in a single-pass integral membrane protein (SMIM1 protein)
    • Enhanced with to Ficin and papain
    • Resistant to DTT and glycine acid EDTA

VEL Antibodies

  • Anti Vel (IgG and IgM)
    • IgG form (most common)
    • Causes HTR and severe HDFN
      • Severe forms of hemolytic transfusion reaction
      • Severe hemolytic disease of fetus and newborn
    • Clinically significant
    • Has the ability to activate complement which can cause both in vivo and in vitro hemolysis
    • The reaction of the antibody with the Vel antigens is going to vary on the red cell of one individual to another
      • There could be instances that weak Vel reacting red cells could pick a side or can be detected as Vel negative
    • Weak Vel → Vel Negative (Dangerous)
      • Can bind to compliments
      • Which can result in severe cases of HTR as well as HDFN
      • Could lead to difficulties in navigating its presence (clinically significant)

CD59 System (035)

  • CD59 gene on Chromosome 11
    • Glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI) linked complement regulatory protein
      • Also known as Membrane inhibitor of lysis (MIRL)
    • MIRL - key role in detecting complement regulated hemolysis by interfering with the membrane attack complex by inhibiting the binding of C8 and C9

CD59 Antigens

  • CD59.1
    • Located in CD59 protein
    • Enhanced by enzymes
    • Sensitive to DTT
    • Associated with PNH (Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria)
      • PNH Patients
        • Deficient in all GPI linked proteins including CD59
      • No CD59 → red cells are prone to lysis
        • Since membrane complex cannot be inhibited
        • No protein can inhibit the binding of the C8 and C9

CD59 Antibodies

  • Anti-CD59.1 (IgG)
    • Patients with CD59 deficiency will show PNH-like symptoms such as:
      • Hemolysis, strokes, and Neuropathy

Augustine System (036)

  • SCL29A1 gene on Chromosome 6
    • Codes for a protein equilibrative nucleoside transporter 2 (ENT2) where AUG antigens are located

AUG Antigens

  • Three types:
    • AUG1
    • AUG2 (Ata)
      • High prevalence
    • AUG3
  • AUG1 and AUG2 (Ata)
    • Fully developed at birth
    • Resistant to Ficin, papain, DTT, glycine-acid EDTA

AUG Antibodies

  • Anti Ata (IgG)
    • Causes severe HTR and mild HDFN (one case)
  • Anti AUG3
    • Causes severe HDFN
  • All are considered clinically significant

ISBT Blood Group Collections

  • Blood groups whose antigens tend to have a biochemical or serologic and genetic information and relationship
  • However, they do not meet the standards or the criteria for it to be called a system and thus remained to be an ISBT blood group collection
    • Requires further studies for it to be considered as a blood group system
  • This collection has a series of 200
  • Some are unnamed however they are already having their symbols
  • Has antigens that are considered to of low and high prevalence
    • Cost (COST)

Antigens Present

  • Csa
    • High prevalence (95%)
  • Csb
  • Er (ER)

Three Antigens

  • Era
  • Erb
  • Er³

Era and Er³

  • High prevalence

  • Majority tend to have this antibody

  • GLOB

    • Associated with another blood group which is P1PK
    • Antigen Present
  • LKE

  • High prevalence with 98% of the population

  • UNAMED BLOOD GROUP COLLECTION

    • Antigens Present
  • Le^c

  • Le^d

    • Both antigens have a very low prevalence
  • MN CHO

    • Antigens Present
  • Hu, M1, Tm, Can, Sext, Sj

  • associated with the M or N antigens in he MnSs blood group systems which are expressed in the glycophorin A

  • Frequency is unknown because it is going to vary between ethnicities or there are only few studies conducted for this blood group particularly in determining its frequency distribution among the population

  • ISBT 700 SERIES

    • Blood groups whose antigens are in very low prevalence in which they could be found in less than 1% of the most random populations

    • Genes responsible for the production of such antigens are still unknown

    • Has 9 antigens

  • Batty Christiansen

  • Billes Box

  • Torkildsen Peters

  • Reid Jensen

  • Livesay

    • Need further studies in order to be promoted to become a blood group system regardless of they have the number and symbols.
  • ISBT 901 SERIES

    • Composed of blood groups whose antigens are found in more than 90% of the majority population in which it will be difficult to find a blood bag that is negative for such antigen
    • Although they are high frequency antigens, the genes that cause the formation of such antigens are still unknown
  • Thus, still not considered as a blood group system

  • Requires more genetic studies in order to identify the genes that causes its expression

  • Anton (Anwj)

    • Clinically significant
    • Receptor for the invasion of Haemophilus influenza
  • Sid (Sda)

    • Clinically significant
    • Found to be a component of Tamm-Horsfall Protein which is in the casts as well in the mucus threads of the urine
  • HLA ANTIGENS

    • HLA class 1 Antigens are found in all nucleated cells except for red blood cells in their immature form
  • RBCs tend to contain nuclei but as it is going to disappear, the amount of HLA antigens are also going to decrease to the point that they are no longer detectable

  • But mature RBCs that contain HLA antigens are going to given another name so they already known as Bga, Bgb, Bgc

  • Bg = Benette_Goodspeed

  • ANTIGENS

  • Bga -> corresponds to HLA 07

  • Bgb -> corresponds to HLA 17

  • Bgc -> corresponds to HLA 28

  • +Bga, Bgb, Bgc

  • resistant to enzymes, DTT and AET

  • sensitive to chloroquine and glycine acid EDTA

  • The two reagents are utilized to remove the HLA antigens found on the surface of the RBCs to prevent it from interfering in the testing

  • ANTIBODIES

  • Not clinically significant

  • Role in Transfusion Associated acute Lung Injury (TRALI)

  • An adverse reaction of a blood transfusion

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