Podcast
Questions and Answers
A patient presents with a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute. Considering the definitions of respiratory patterns, which condition is the patient most likely experiencing?
A patient presents with a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute. Considering the definitions of respiratory patterns, which condition is the patient most likely experiencing?
- Apnea
- Bradypnea (correct)
- Kussmaul respirations
- Tachypnea
A patient with a known history of diabetes is admitted to the hospital. Assessment reveals a deep, labored breathing pattern and a slightly elevated respiratory rate. Which respiratory pattern is most likely occurring in this patient?
A patient with a known history of diabetes is admitted to the hospital. Assessment reveals a deep, labored breathing pattern and a slightly elevated respiratory rate. Which respiratory pattern is most likely occurring in this patient?
- Kussmaul respirations (correct)
- Cheyne-Stokes respirations
- Bradypnea
- Tachypnea
Which of the following conditions is most likely to result in Cheyne-Stokes respirations?
Which of the following conditions is most likely to result in Cheyne-Stokes respirations?
- Metabolic alkalosis
- Acute asthma exacerbation
- Heart failure (correct)
- Pulmonary embolism
A nurse is assessing a patient who reports a subjective feeling of difficulty breathing. Which term should the nurse use to document this patient's experience?
A nurse is assessing a patient who reports a subjective feeling of difficulty breathing. Which term should the nurse use to document this patient's experience?
A patient with left-sided heart failure is MOST likely to exhibit which of the following signs and symptoms?
A patient with left-sided heart failure is MOST likely to exhibit which of the following signs and symptoms?
A patient's blood pressure is consistently elevated, and an echocardiogram reveals increased ventricular resistance. The healthcare provider concludes the patient's cardiac afterload has increased. Which of the following findings is MOST likely associated with increased afterload?
A patient's blood pressure is consistently elevated, and an echocardiogram reveals increased ventricular resistance. The healthcare provider concludes the patient's cardiac afterload has increased. Which of the following findings is MOST likely associated with increased afterload?
During an emergency resuscitation, what is the MOST appropriate use of a Bag Valve Mask (BVM)?
During an emergency resuscitation, what is the MOST appropriate use of a Bag Valve Mask (BVM)?
Which of the following patients would benefit MOST from the use of a High Flow Nasal Cannula (HFNC)?
Which of the following patients would benefit MOST from the use of a High Flow Nasal Cannula (HFNC)?
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is likely to exhibit which combination of signs and symptoms?
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is likely to exhibit which combination of signs and symptoms?
A patient has diminished breath sounds, hypoxia, and tachypnea postoperatively. Which respiratory condition should the nurse suspect?
A patient has diminished breath sounds, hypoxia, and tachypnea postoperatively. Which respiratory condition should the nurse suspect?
What findings are MOST indicative of hypoxia?
What findings are MOST indicative of hypoxia?
A patient develops a lung infection 72 hours after being admitted to the hospital. Which type of pneumonia is the patient MOST likely experiencing?
A patient develops a lung infection 72 hours after being admitted to the hospital. Which type of pneumonia is the patient MOST likely experiencing?
A patient is assessed and crackles are auscultated in the lower lobes bilaterally. These adventitious sounds are MOST indicative of which condition?
A patient is assessed and crackles are auscultated in the lower lobes bilaterally. These adventitious sounds are MOST indicative of which condition?
A patient is admitted with an upper airway obstruction. Which lung sound would the nurse MOST likely hear upon auscultation?
A patient is admitted with an upper airway obstruction. Which lung sound would the nurse MOST likely hear upon auscultation?
A patient reports pain that started suddenly after surgery. Which type of pain would the nurse document?
A patient reports pain that started suddenly after surgery. Which type of pain would the nurse document?
A patient with a history of diabetic neuropathy reports a burning sensation in their feet. Which type of pain is the patient experiencing?
A patient with a history of diabetic neuropathy reports a burning sensation in their feet. Which type of pain is the patient experiencing?
Which dressing is MOST appropriate for a partial-thickness wound with minimal exudate?
Which dressing is MOST appropriate for a partial-thickness wound with minimal exudate?
What is the PRIMARY purpose of debridement in wound care?
What is the PRIMARY purpose of debridement in wound care?
A patient with a pressure injury has intact skin with non-blanchable redness over the sacrum. How should this pressure injury be staged?
A patient with a pressure injury has intact skin with non-blanchable redness over the sacrum. How should this pressure injury be staged?
During a dressing change, a nurse observes organs protruding from a surgical wound. What is the MOST appropriate immediate action?
During a dressing change, a nurse observes organs protruding from a surgical wound. What is the MOST appropriate immediate action?
Flashcards
Bradypnea
Bradypnea
Abnormally slow breathing rate, less than 12 breaths per minute in adults.
Tachypnea
Tachypnea
Rapid breathing, more than 20 breaths per minute in adults.
Kussmaul Respirations
Kussmaul Respirations
Deep, labored breathing pattern, often fast, seen in metabolic acidosis.
Apnea
Apnea
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Cheyne-Stokes
Cheyne-Stokes
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Dyspnea
Dyspnea
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Hypoxia
Hypoxia
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Pneumonia (Hospital-Acquired)
Pneumonia (Hospital-Acquired)
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Crackles (Lung Sound)
Crackles (Lung Sound)
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Wheezing (Lung Sound)
Wheezing (Lung Sound)
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Rhonchi (Lung Sound)
Rhonchi (Lung Sound)
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Stridor (Lung Sound)
Stridor (Lung Sound)
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Dehiscence
Dehiscence
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Evisceration
Evisceration
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Nutrition & Pressure Injuries
Nutrition & Pressure Injuries
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Serous Drainage
Serous Drainage
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Sanguineous Drainage
Sanguineous Drainage
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Serosanguineous Drainage
Serosanguineous Drainage
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Purulent Drainage
Purulent Drainage
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Autonomy
Autonomy
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Study Notes
Respirations
- Bradypnea is an abnormally slow breathing rate of less than 12 breaths per minute in adults
- Causes include drug overdose (opioids), brain injury, and metabolic disorders
- Tachypnea is rapid breathing, more than 20 breaths per minute in adults
- Causes include fever, anxiety, sepsis, pneumonia, and pain
- Kussmaul respirations are a deep, labored, often fast breathing pattern
- Can be seen in metabolic acidosis, like diabetic ketoacidosis
- Apnea is the cessation of breathing for 10 or more seconds
- Causes include sleep apnea, brain injury, and cardiac arrest
- Cheyne-Stokes respirations are cycles of increasing and decreasing rate and depth of breathing, followed by periods of apnea
- Can be seen at the end-of-life, and with heart failure, stroke, or brain injury
- Dyspnea is the subjective feeling of difficulty breathing
- Assessment of breathing includes the use of accessory muscles, nasal flaring, and tripod position
Heart Failure
- Right-Sided Heart Failure is caused by left-sided heart failure and pulmonary disease
- Signs and symptoms include peripheral edema, JVD, ascites, and hepatomegaly
- Left-Sided Heart Failure is caused by CAD, MI, and hypertension
- Signs and symptoms include pulmonary edema, crackles, dyspnea, orthopnea, and fatigue
Cardiac Afterload
- Defined as the pressure the heart must overcome to eject blood
- If increased, the heart works harder, potentially worsening heart failure
- Signs and symptoms of increased cardiac afterload include hypertension, fatigue, and decreased cardiac output
- Measured via blood pressure and echocardiogram (for ventricular resistance)
Oxygen Delivery Devices and Airways
- Bag Valve Mask (BVM) is used for emergency resuscitation in unconscious patients without a patent airway
- High Flow Nasal Cannula (HFNC) is used for moderate to severe respiratory distress, hypoxia, and COPD
- CPAP is used for obstructive sleep apnea, CHF, and COPD with hypercapnia
- Oral Airways are used in unconscious patients to prevent tongue obstruction
- Intubation is used for severe respiratory failure and airway protection in unconscious patients
- Tracheostomy (Trach) is a long-term airway management solution, bypassing upper airway obstructions
Respiratory Conditions
- COPD is a chronic, progressive lung disease including emphysema and chronic bronchitis
- Signs and symptoms include barrel chest, chronic cough, sputum production, wheezing, and dyspnea
- Atelectasis is the collapse of alveoli
- Signs and symptoms include diminished breath sounds, hypoxia, and tachypnea
- Hypoxia is low oxygen in tissues
- Signs and symptoms include restlessness, confusion, cyanosis, and tachycardia
- Hospital-Acquired Pneumonia is a lung infection acquired 48 hours or more after admission
- Signs and symptoms include fever, productive cough, purulent sputum, crackles, and dyspnea
Lung Sounds & Patient Presentation
- Crackles indicate fluid in the alveoli from heart failure or pneumonia
- Wheezing indicates narrowed airways from asthma or COPD
- Rhonchi indicate mucus in large airways from bronchitis
- Stridor indicates upper airway obstruction and is an emergency
Pain Classification
- Acute pain is short-term with sudden onset, such as after surgery
- Chronic pain is ongoing for more than 3 months, such as with arthritis
- Neuropathic pain is from nerve damage, such as with diabetic neuropathy
- Cancer pain is related to tumor growth or treatment
Pain Assessment & Reassessment
- Use PQRST, Numeric Rating Scale, or FLACC for non-verbal patients
- Reassessment should occur after interventions such as medications or repositioning
- Previous experiences affect current perception of pain, highlighting the importance of psychological and emotional context
PCA Pump (Patient-Controlled Analgesia)
- Used for post-operative or chronic pain by allowing patient-controlled dosing
- Nursing role includes monitoring for sedation and respiratory depression and educating the patient not to allow others to press the button
Wound Care
- Hydrocolloid dressings are for moist, partial-thickness wounds
- Foam dressings are absorptive for moderate to heavy drainage
- Alginate dressings are for heavy exudate and infected wounds
- Transparent film dressings are for superficial wounds and stage 1 ulcers
- Gauze provides basic protection or packing
- Stage 1 pressure ulcers show non-blanchable redness
- Stage 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss (blister or shallow crater)
- Stage 3 pressure ulcers involve full-thickness loss with visible fat
- Stage 4 pressure ulcers involve full-thickness loss with exposed bone/tendon
- Unstageable pressure ulcers have eschar or slough covering the depth
- DTI (Deep Tissue Injury) presents as a purple or maroon localized area
- High-risk factors for pressure injuries include immobility, poor nutrition, incontinence, and sensory deficits
- Protein, Vitamin C, zinc, and hydration are essential for healing in the context of pressure injuries
- Serous drainage is clear
- Sanguineous drainage is red/bloody
- Serosanguineous drainage is pink/light red
- Purulent drainage is yellow/green and indicates infection
- Wound drainage monitoring includes using wound vacs, assessing dressing weight, marking drainage on the dressing, and measuring output
- Diabetic wounds have a high risk of infection and delayed healing, requiring monitored blood glucose and daily foot care
- Antibiotics should be taken for the full course, even if symptoms improve, and patients should watch for signs of allergic reactions or superinfections
- Dehiscence is wound separation, which should be covered with sterile moist gauze, and the provider should be notified
- Evisceration is when organs protrude, requiring an emergency response of covering with sterile saline-soaked gauze, and calling for help
Skin Layers
- Epidermis is the outermost layer
- Dermis contains capillaries and nerves
- Subcutaneous tissue is fat and connective tissue
- RNs are responsible for assessment, debridement, and dressing changes for complex wounds
- LPNs/UAPs can reinforce dressings and document observations
- Mechanical debridement involves wet-to-dry dressings and irrigation
- Autolytic debridement utilizes the body's own enzymes and occlusive dressings
- Surgical debridement is done by a provider
- Enzymatic debridement utilizes topical enzymes
- Goals for pressure injuries include preventing progression, reducing pain, promoting healing, and educating the patient/caregiver
Ethical & Legal Principles
- Autonomy means respecting patient choices
- Beneficence means doing good
- Nonmaleficence means doing no harm
- Justice means fair treatment
- Fidelity means keeping promises
- Nurses are mandated reporters, requiring them to report suspected abuse to appropriate authorities
- Medication errors should be reported immediately, the patient should be assessed, the provider should be notified, and event should be documented factually
- Fall prevention includes hourly rounding, call lights, and bed alarms
- Restraints are a last resort, where the least restrictive option should be used first, requiring an order and ongoing monitoring
- Nursing students are held to professional standards and should always perform within their scope, notifying their instructor if unsure or unsafe
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