Platform Ladder Equipment Requirements
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Questions and Answers

What is the minimum length of the pike pole required in the fly section of the platform ladder?

  • 12 ft.
  • 8 ft. (correct)
  • 6 ft.
  • 10 ft.
  • Which tool must be present in the bucket of the platform ladder?

  • A shovel
  • A chainsaw
  • A fire extinguisher
  • An axe (correct)
  • Which tool must be checked for presence at the tip of the aerial ladder?

  • Axe (correct)
  • Rescue harness
  • Fire extinguisher
  • Utility knife
  • What is a critical setting that must be ensured before using the waterway of the aerial ladder?

    <p>Waterway is in rescue mode</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many feet is the minimum length of the pike pole required for the aerial ladder?

    <p>8 feet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which combination of tools is required at the tip of the aerial ladder?

    <p>Pike pole and axe</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What indicates the chainsaw is experiencing a malfunction related to electronics or the motor?

    <p>3 flashing red LEDs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the gauge of the drive link represented by the stamp on the drive link/tang?

    <p>.050&quot;</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the total number of cutting teeth on the carbide toothed STIHL MSA 220 C CHAINSAW

    <p>22</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the pitch of the chain based on the indication stamped on the raker?

    <p>3/8&quot;</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens if 3 or more cutting teeth are missing from the chain?

    <p>The chain should be replaced.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum percentage of ethanol that can be used in the fuel mix for the STIHL MS 046, 460, and 461R chainsaws?

    <p>10%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the weight of the powerhead of the STIHL MS 046, 460, and 461R chainsaws?

    <p>15 lbs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which chain specification indicates a chain that is designed for low kickback?

    <p>Green drive link</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the fuel mix ratio for the STIHL MS 046, 460, and 461R chainsaws?

    <p>50:1</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum cutting depth for a 14-inch blade used with the STIHL TS400 and 700 series circular saws?

    <p>4.9 inches</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which fuel specifications should be adhered to for optimal performance of the STIHL TS400 and 700 series circular saws?

    <p>Minimum 89 octane, no more than 10% Ethanol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the correct fuel mix ratio for the STIHL TS400 and 700 series circular saws?

    <p>50:1</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which inspection item is NOT necessary for composite blades used in STIHL TS400 and 700 series circular saws?

    <p>Inspect for blunting of cutting edges</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum spindle speed of the STIHL TS400 and 700 series circular saws?

    <p>5,350 RPM</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the engine displacement of the MS 500i chainsaw?

    <p>4.83 cu. in.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which tool has a higher maximum engine speed?

    <p>MS 500i Chainsaw</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the idle speed of the TS 500i Circular Saw?

    <p>2,500 RPM</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum cutting depth achievable with the TS 500i Circular Saw?

    <p>4.9 inches</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the fuel mix ratio for both the MS 500i Chainsaw and the TS 500i Circular Saw?

    <p>50:1</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum weight rating specified for extension and roof ladders?

    <p>750 lbs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the required minimum width between ladder beams for extension and roof ladders?

    <p>16 inches</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How far apart should the rungs of extension and roof ladders be spaced?

    <p>14 inches</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What load must all rungs of extension and roof ladders be tested to withstand?

    <p>1,000 lbs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What safety factor is applied to the weight rating of extension ladders and roof ladders?

    <p>4:1</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if a ladder requires more than 75 lbs of force to raise?

    <p>Immediately clean and wax the ladder</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How often should ladders be waxed at a minimum?

    <p>Every six months</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of applying bar wax to a ladder?

    <p>To reduce the force required to raise the ladder</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a consequence of not maintaining the wax on a ladder?

    <p>It could increase the force needed to raise the ladder</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly describes the frequency of ladder maintenance based on usage rates?

    <p>Maintenance should be adjusted based on the frequency of ladder use</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to the load capacity of an aluminum ladder if it reaches a temperature of 300° F?

    <p>It decreases by at least 25%.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if a heat sensor on an aluminum ladder turns black?

    <p>Take the ladder out of service and contact Tools and Equipment.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which material is used to construct the aluminum ladders mentioned?

    <p>6061-T6 alloy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what temperature do the visual warning labels on the aluminum ladders indicate heat presence?

    <p>300° F</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many visual warning labels are located on each section of aluminum ladders?

    <p>Four labels per section.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum AC output of the Honda EU2000i generator?

    <p>2000 watts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the displacement of the Honda EU1000i generator's engine?

    <p>3.01 cu in.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How much oil is required for the Honda EU2000i generator?

    <p>13 oz</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the run time per tankful for the Honda EU1000i under full load?

    <p>3 hours</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following specifications differentiates the EU2000i from the EU1000i in terms of weight?

    <p>45 lbs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum continuous operation rating of the EB5000X generator?

    <p>4,500 VA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How long can the EB5000X generator run at full load on a single tank of fuel?

    <p>7.1 hours</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the weight difference between the EB5000X and the EM6500SX generators?

    <p>15 lbs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum output rating for both the EB5000X and the EM6500SX generators?

    <p>7,000 watts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the air output of the Electric Ramfan EV400 when set to the 20-amp setting?

    <p>11,381 cfm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which Ramfan model has the highest horsepower rating?

    <p>Gas Ramfan GX200</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the noise level produced by the Gas Ramfan GX200 in decibels?

    <p>91 decibels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum air output of the Battery Ramfan EX50Li when using AC power?

    <p>9,635 cfm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How long can the Gas Ramfan GX200 run continuously on a full tank?

    <p>1 hour and 40 minutes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which smoke ejector has the highest air output in cubic feet per minute (cfm)?

    <p>SUPERVAC HF164E</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor differentiates the RAMFAN EFC150X from the SUPERVAC HF164E regarding cold crank wattage?

    <p>SUPERVAC HF164E has a higher cold crank wattage than RAMFAN EFC150X</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the speed at which the SUPERVAC P164SE operates?

    <p>1,725 rpm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which fan weighs the most among the listed smoke ejectors?

    <p>SUPERVAC HF164E</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which characteristic is common to all three smoke ejectors concerning their power supply?

    <p>All require 50/60 hertz</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the locking carabiner in the yellow mainline rope system?

    <p>To attach the rope to the internal webbing loop</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly describes the breaking strength of both the yellow mainline rope and the red taglines?

    <p>Both have a breaking strength of 3,484 pounds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What feature is unique to the deployment of the yellow rope from its bag?

    <p>It deploys out of only one end of the bag</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Identify the role of the non-locking carabiners in both the yellow mainline and the red taglines.

    <p>They provide a means of functionality for deployment and attachment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which aspect of the taglines ensures they are easy to account for during operations?

    <p>Each bag has an ID Tag for easy accountability</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the correct spreading distance for the Hydra-Ram II?

    <p>6 inches</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following components is unique to the Hydra-Ram II compared to the Rabbit Tool?

    <p>Hydraulic piston</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to the piston movement when the pressure exceeds 400 lbs on the Hydra-Ram II?

    <p>Piston moves 1/4 inch per pump</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which action is required to lubricate the Hydra-Ram II effectively?

    <p>Wipe clean and apply oil with piston fully extended</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the total weight of the Hydra-Ram II when included with its carrying bag?

    <p>14 lbs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of K-100 fuel additive?

    <p>To treat and stabilize fuel for engine maintenance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what types of fuel should K-100 be added?

    <p>Two-cycle mixed gas and straight gas</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a benefit of using K-100 fuel additive in small engines?

    <p>It helps prevent water in fuel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many platform ladders in the Columbus Fire fleet are designated as front-line apparatus?

    <p>7</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What material are the aerials on the platform ladders made from?

    <p>Aluminum #6061-T6</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many platform ladders does Columbus Fire have in total as of 2021?

    <p>12</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of construction do all platform ladders in the Columbus Fire fleet have?

    <p>Mid-mount platforms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which company manufactures the mid-mount platforms used in the Columbus Fire fleet?

    <p>Sutphen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key characteristic of Huck Bolts when installed properly?

    <p>They never come loose once installed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement best describes the function of Huck Bolts?

    <p>They do not require maintenance after installation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which environment are Huck Bolts most effective?

    <p>High vibration and stress environments.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main advantage of using Huck Bolts over traditional fasteners?

    <p>They prevent loosening under vibration.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to Huck Bolts once they are installed?

    <p>They remain secure without the need for regular maintenance.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the tip load capacity of the aerial ladder when the waterway is charged?

    <p>500 LB</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the jack spread of the truck compare to SPH models?

    <p>It has a shorter spread than SPH models.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the total distance of jack spread from jack-to-jack?

    <p>18’</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which feature of the truck requires coordination between two firefighters during operation?

    <p>Short-jacking process</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the total length of one extended outrigger on the truck?

    <p>5’ 3”</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What change was implemented for the outrigger controls in the first models of the SPH platforms introduced in 2005?

    <p>They switched to push button controls.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How did the wheelbase change impact the SPH platforms introduced in 2005?

    <p>It resulted in a significantly reduced turning radius.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the newer SPH models, what change was made to the ladder construction?

    <p>The ladder transitioned to a 5-section design.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does the use of a 5-section ladder have on the aerial while in use?

    <p>It increases the sway when the aerial is in use.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum discharge capability of the CFD platforms?

    <p>2,000 GPM</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs if a CFD platform's pump is engaged without a water supply?

    <p>The pump could sustain damage and fail.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true regarding CFD platforms?

    <p>They do not have any pre-connects.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the rated pump capacity of all CFD platforms?

    <p>1,500 GPM</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is essential for the CFD platform's pump to function properly?

    <p>A water supply must be established before pump operation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum combined weight that can be safely supported in the bucket when using stokes arms?

    <p>500-LB</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What wind speed rating do all CFD platforms have?

    <p>35-MPH</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum weight rating of the stokes basket arms when used together?

    <p>400-LB per pair</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How much weight can the stokes arms support in total when used with the bucket?

    <p>500-LB</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When the stokes arms are used, what is the maximum weight that can be lifted in the bucket compared to the maximum weight capacity of the arms?

    <p>The combined weight must not exceed 500-LB total</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the total number of tillers in the fleet mentioned?

    <p>14</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many of the tillers are designated as front line vehicles?

    <p>9</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum tip load capacity of the aerial ladders used on the tillers?

    <p>750 lbs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary manufacturer of the cab for the TDAs purchased by the City of Columbus?

    <p>American Lafrance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the aerial reach of the TDAs that were purchased by the City of Columbus?

    <p>110 feet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which feature is used to easily identify the TDAs from a distance?

    <p>White aerials</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which company produced the aerial component for the TDAs used by the City of Columbus?

    <p>Ladder Tower Incorporated</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of setup do the TDAs purchased by the City of Columbus have?

    <p>Four-outrigger setup</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be checked if hydraulic power is lost while operating the aerial ladder?

    <p>5th wheel lockout light in the outrigger control box</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a notable difference between Pierce tillers from various purchase years?

    <p>Length of aerials available</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component is specifically checked in the outrigger control box during ladder operation?

    <p>5th wheel lockout light</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of aerial ladder operations, what should be prioritized if a malfunction occurs?

    <p>Ensuring the 5th wheel lockout light is functioning</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of not confirming the nozzle's position before bedding the ladder?

    <p>It can lead to the nozzle obstructing the aerial positioning during rescue.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is crucial to check regarding the aerial ladder before initiating operations?

    <p>The nozzle must be stowed properly.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During morning checks, what mode should the waterway be pinned to?

    <p>Rescue mode to facilitate operations.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended action when using controls for the aerial ladder?

    <p>Feather the controls for smoother operation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum duration for which the EPU on the ALF ladders can be used continuously?

    <p>2 minutes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How long must the EPU be turned off after 2 minutes of continuous use?

    <p>7 minutes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which action is NOT a way to override the truck’s interlocks during short-jacked operations?

    <p>Using a secondary override lever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what frequency should EPU/Auxiliary motors be checked?

    <p>Every 10 hours of aerial use</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of allowing the EPU to rest after 2 minutes of use?

    <p>To prevent overheating</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum continuous usage time for the EPU motor on CFD Pierce ladders?

    <p>30 minutes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How long of a cooldown period is required after using the EPU on Sutphen Platforms?

    <p>5 minutes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement is true regarding the operational rate of EPU motors?

    <p>Operations will be much slower when using the EPU.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the total cooldown time required after a full cycle of EPU operation on CFD Pierce ladders?

    <p>30 minutes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the duty cycle for the EPU on Sutphen Platforms?

    <p>2 minutes on, 5 minutes off</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary requirement for engaging a PTO driven generator?

    <p>The engine RPMs must be under 1100 RPM.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement correctly describes the operation of a PTO generator while driving?

    <p>The hydraulic generator activates only when RPMs drop below 1100 RPM.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must a driver ensure while approaching a scene when operating a PTO driven generator?

    <p>Allow the RPMs to decrease, dropping below 1100 RPM.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a method of powering an on-board generator?

    <p>Hydraulic battery system.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens when a driver activates the PTO HYD GEN button while driving?

    <p>No effect is observed until RPMs are reduced to 1100RPM</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which ladder models are equipped with LED lights that can operate on a truck's 12v battery system?

    <p>L-1, L-8, L-28, L-2, and L-26</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what temperature does a 500w halogen bulb generate heat?

    <p>570°F</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following ladder models currently does NOT include LED lighting technology?

    <p>L-7</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What potential hazard is associated with a 500w halogen bulb during operation?

    <p>Overheating to a high temperature</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement is true regarding the operational capabilities of LED lights in the listed ladder companies?

    <p>They can run off the truck's 12v battery system.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What air pressure reading indicates the need to start the engine to build pressure?

    <p>Below 70 PSI</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the normal operating range for oil pressure when the engine is running?

    <p>40-60 PSI</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which reading on the voltmeter indicates a low battery condition that may affect the load manager?

    <p>At 12.8 Volts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the transmission temperature ideally be when the motor is running?

    <p>160°F - 200°F</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the ideal engine temperature range when the motor is operational?

    <p>190°F - 212°F</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the appropriate angle for placing a ladder in the rescue position?

    <p>70°-75°</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How much water flow is indicated as the capacity of master streams in CFD ladders?

    <p>1,000 gpm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the collapse zone around a building based on its height?

    <p>1 1/2 times the height of the building</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about master streams is accurate?

    <p>They can flow over 1,000 gpm.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What aspect is primarily concerned when establishing a rescue position for a ladder?

    <p>The ladder must be placed at a climbing angle of 70°-75°.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be the first priority when rescuing victims in an emergency situation?

    <p>The most severely threatened victims</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a rescue scenario, which of the following should be tended to after the severely threatened victims?

    <p>The largest number of victims</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following rescue priorities comes last in the sequence?

    <p>Victims in the remaining areas of danger</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which option correctly represents the third priority in a rescue operation?

    <p>The remainder of the fire area</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of positioning extension ladders with the fly section out?

    <p>It makes the ladder 4% stronger.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true regarding the positioning of extension ladders?

    <p>The fly section should be positioned out for optimal strength.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what way does Duo Safety's recommendation affect the fly section of their extension ladders?

    <p>It enhances the structural integrity of the ladder.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended position for the bed section of Duo Safety extension ladders?

    <p>Against the building for optimal safety.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a 15:1 mechanical advantage with a 2” adz translate a 100 lbs exerted force into?

    <p>1,500 lbs of gapping force</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about the gapping process with the adz is correct?

    <p>Mechanical advantage enables less force to achieve greater gapping force.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of gapping, what is the purpose of using an adz?

    <p>To amplify the applied force for effective gapping.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When utilizing a 30” Pro-Bar and a 2” adz, how much force is required at the forks to apply 1,500 lbs of gapping force?

    <p>100 lbs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary advantage of using the K-tool for through-the-lock operations?

    <p>It is effective for accessing locked areas without forcing entry.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why might the K-tool be preferred over traditional lock-picking methods?

    <p>It minimizes the risk of lock damage.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common type of security feature used on vacant structures?

    <p>Vacant Property Security (VPS) Systems</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What may be an obstacle over entry points in vacant structures aimed at preventing access?

    <p>Plywood</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of polycarbonate window coverings in a vacant structure?

    <p>To prevent unauthorized entry</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why do outside ladder teams face additional challenges with vacant structures?

    <p>Often have security features obstructing entry points</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following features is NOT typically associated with vacant structures to deter intruders?

    <p>Open access stairways</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is primarily concerned with the likelihood of a victim's survival during a primary search?

    <p>Occupant accountability/survivability</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What aspect does the number, location, and condition of victims influence during a primary search?

    <p>Known life hazard vs. potential life hazard</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following factors contributes to assessing the safety of search crews during a primary search?

    <p>All the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the availability of equipment/staffing affect a primary search operation?

    <p>It influences the number and effectiveness of searches</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor has the least influence on the initial assessment of a primary search scenario?

    <p>Established water source</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What percentage of rescues were conducted by the crews assigned to primary search?

    <p>58%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which floor had the highest percentage of victims rescued during the operations?

    <p>First Floor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What portion of the victims found had no reports from bystanders or occupants regarding their presence?

    <p>28%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What percentage of the total rescues were attributed to bystanders or occupants reporting victims inside the building?

    <p>69%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What percentage of the first 2,000 rescues recorded utilized VEIS?

    <p>21%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What percentage of rescues utilized a dirty drag to remove victims?

    <p>82%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method was least used in the rescues mentioned?

    <p>Aerial ladder</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the rescue data, what was the percentage of victims removed using webbing drags?

    <p>3%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How frequently was the ground ladder utilized in the rescues?

    <p>14%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What percentage of the total rescues involved methods other than dirty drag or webbing?

    <p>1%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should crews check for above or behind firefighters at a distance marker knot?

    <p>Fire conditions by popping a ceiling tile</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which action is essential for confirming each firefighter's safety status at a distance marker knot?

    <p>Checking each firefighter’s air levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a mandatory procedure for crews at a distance marker knot along with checking air levels?

    <p>Performing a Personnel Accountability Report (PAR)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a recommended practice when arriving at a distance marker knot?

    <p>Ensuring all team members are in view</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what distance should a fan be positioned for optimal airflow when placed near a doorway?

    <p>4-6 feet away from the door</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary goal for firefighters when using a fan near a doorway?

    <p>To cover the complete opening with moving air</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the placement of a fan for effective air movement?

    <p>The fan's cone pattern must fully encompass the opening, including corners.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it important to ventilate a residential flat roof at least six feet away from the edge?

    <p>To ensure adequate airflow and reduce the risk of fire.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What consequence may occur if ventilation is placed too close to the edge of a flat roof?

    <p>Higher risk of smoke and heat accumulation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of residential flat roof ventilation, what aspect is primarily improved by maintaining a distance of at least six feet from the edge?

    <p>Safety and efficiency of ventilation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What underlying principle supports the recommendation to ventilate at least six feet away from the edge of a flat roof?

    <p>To reduce potential fire hazards.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What pressure range is classified as medium pressure?

    <p>10-60 psi</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the specific gravity of natural gas compared to air?

    <p>Natural gas is lighter than air.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What would indicate an elevated operating pressure of gas in an area?

    <p>Audible sound of gas escaping.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum pressure that can be classified as high pressure?

    <p>60 psi</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In relation to natural gas, what condition can occur during periods of high demand?

    <p>Decrease to as low as 2 psi</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the concentration range of natural gas in air that allows for combustion?

    <p>5% to 15%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to natural gas at concentrations below 5% or above 15%?

    <p>It will not burn.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which option is NOT listed as a rescue option for elevator incidents?

    <p>Elevator Electric System Diagnostic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement correctly identifies the characteristics of methane?

    <p>It is the primary component of natural gas.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following concentrations is classified as the lower explosive limit (LEL) for natural gas?

    <p>5%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What voltage is typically used to power the lights and ventilation fans inside the elevator car?

    <p>120 volts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many total volts do the three hot legs equate to in the elevator car's design?

    <p>480 volts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which voltage configuration is NOT used for the mechanics of the elevator car?

    <p>120 volts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of voltage system is represented by the notation '120V 3PH' in relation to the elevator mechanics?

    <p>Three phase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For what primary purpose is the 480 volts utilized in the elevator car system?

    <p>To operate the elevator mechanics</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Ladder Positioning (Extension Ladders)

    • Duo Safety recommends positioning extension ladders with the fly section extended outward and the bed section closest to the building.

    Other Ladder Information

    • Existing ladder information remains unchanged.
    • Gapping a door with an adz (2" wide) provides a 15:1 mechanical advantage.
    • A 30" Pro-Bar length and a 2" adz are used.
    • Applying 100 lbs of force on the forks will generate approximately 1,500 lbs of force on the adz for gapping.
    • The K-tool is a good option for through-the-lock considerations.
    • Vacant structures may have obstacles over entry points, such as plywood, Vacant Property Security (VPS) Systems, or polycarbonate window coverings.

    Distance Marker Knot Procedures

    • Check ceiling tiles for fire above or behind firefighters
    • Check firefighter air levels
    • Perform a PAR (presumably a procedure like Pre-Arrival Risk assessment)

    Primary Search Size-Up Factors

    • Known life hazard vs. potential life hazard: Assessing if a known life hazard exists during a primary search.
    • Occupant accountability/survivability: Determining if occupants are accounted for and their potential survivability.
    • Number, location, and condition of victims: Pinpointing the number, location, and condition of victims during searching.
    • Building construction: Considering the building's structural components during a primary search.
    • Size and extent of the fire: Evaluating the fire's scope and size.
    • Hazards to search crews: Identifying potential hazards for search teams.
    • Established water source: Evaluating availability of water.
    • Available equipment/staffing: Assessing equipment and personnel availability.
    • Firefighter experience levels: Considering the experience levels of firefighters conducting the search.

    Rescue Data

    • Primary search crews made 58% of rescues.
    • Fire attack teams made 25% of rescues.
    • Secondary search crews made 4% of rescues.
    • Victims were reported inside by bystanders/occupants in 69% of the times victims were found.
    • There was no bystander/occupant report on potential victims in 28% of the times that victims were found.
    • Victims were found after bystanders/occupants reported all were out of the building in 3% of cases.
    • Victim locations in 2,000 rescues:
      • Basement: 4%
      • First floor: 57%
      • Second floor: 30%
      • Third floor: 7%
      • Third Floor: 2%

    • VEIS (Ventilation, Escape, Inspection, Search) was used for 21% of the first 2,000 rescues.
    • In 82% of 2,000 rescues, a "dirty drag" was used to remove victims.
    • Webbing drags were used in 3% of 2,000 rescues.
    • Victims removed via ground ladder in 14% of 2,000 rescues.
    • Aerial ladders used in 1% of 2,000 rescues.

    Fan Placement

    • Fans are typically positioned at large openings like doorways.
    • A good starting point is 4-6 feet from the door.
    • Firefighters aim to create a cone of air that covers the whole doorway, including the corners.

    Ventilation of Residential Flat Roofs

    • When ventilating a residential flat roof, a best practice is to always ventilate at least six feet away from the edge of the roof.

    Line Operating Pressures

    • Operating pressure can be assessed by listening for the sound of blowing gas from a distance; elevated pressure is suggested by that sound.
    • Operating pressure varies by location and is determined by the gas company.
    • Operating pressures may include:
      • Low Pressure: Up to 0.5 pounds of pressure
      • Medium Pressure: 10-60 psi (can drop to 2 psi during periods of high demand).
      • High Pressure: Anything exceeding 60 psi.

    Specific Gravity

    • Natural gas has a specific gravity of .60-.70.
    • Air has a specific gravity of 1.0.
    • Natural gas is lighter than air and will rise.

    Chemical Make-up

    • Natural gas is primarily methane (CH4).
    • Natural gas has an explosive range of 5% to 15% gas to air.
    • Concentrations below 5% or above 15% will not support combustion.
    • 5% gas is the lower explosive limit (LEL).
    • 15% is the upper explosive level (UEL).

    Elevator Information

    • Elevator cars operate on 480V or 600V (electric).
    • Lights and ventilation fans inside the elevator car typically run on 120V.

    Rescue Options

    • Option One: Elevator Technician Arrival
    • Option Two: Elevator Fire Service Phase 1
    • Option Three: Elevator System Reset
    • Option Four: Hoistway Door Rescue
    • Option Five: Technical Rescue Through the Top of the Car

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    Description

    This quiz tests your knowledge of the essential equipment requirements for platform ladders. Focus on the specifications like the minimum length of the pike pole and additional tools necessary in the ladder bucket. Ensure you are familiar with these crucial safety standards.

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