Pharmacology: Medication Interactions and Mechanisms

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Questions and Answers

A patient prescribed warfarin is also prescribed levofloxacin. What potential interaction should the healthcare provider be most concerned about?

  • Decreased effectiveness of levofloxacin due to warfarin interference.
  • Increased risk of nephrotoxicity due to combined drug effects.
  • Increased risk of bleeding due to enhanced warfarin effect. (correct)
  • Reduced anticoagulant effect of warfarin, increasing clotting risk.

Which assessment finding would be most concerning in a patient receiving vancomycin?

  • A decrease in blood pressure following administration.
  • Mild rash on the upper extremities.
  • Slight redness at the IV insertion site.
  • Complaints of tinnitus and decreased hearing acuity. (correct)

A patient is prescribed azithromycin and reports taking antacids regularly. What education should the nurse provide regarding this combination?

  • Antacids may reduce the absorption of azithromycin, decreasing its effectiveness. (correct)
  • Antacids will increase the absorption of azithromycin, enhancing its effect.
  • Antacids should be taken at the same time as azithromycin to reduce GI distress.
  • There is no known interaction between antacids and azithromycin.

Why is clavulanic acid often combined with amoxicillin?

<p>To prevent the breakdown of amoxicillin by bacterial enzymes. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST important to monitor in a patient receiving imipenem?

<p>Signs and symptoms of superinfection. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with seasonal allergies is prescribed cromolyn spray. What is the MOST important instruction the nurse should provide regarding its use?

<p>Begin using the spray one week before the pollen season starts and continue throughout the season. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action of mast cell stabilizers?

<p>Suppressing the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators from mast cells. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed both cromolyn spray and a nasal decongestant. What instruction should the nurse include related to administration?

<p>Administer the cromolyn spray 30 minutes after the nasal decongestant. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When are mast cell stabilizers typically considered as a treatment option?

<p>As an alternative to corticosteroids when they are not an option. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports mild nasal irritation after starting cromolyn spray. What is the MOST appropriate nursing action?

<p>Advise the patient that mild irritation is a common and usually temporary side effect. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following structures is primarily responsible for gas exchange in the respiratory system?

<p>Alveoli (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's arterial blood gas (ABG) results show a pH of 7.30, PaCO2 of 50 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 24 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results?

<p>Respiratory acidosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with suspected tuberculosis is scheduled for sputum collection. When is the MOST appropriate time for the nurse to collect the sputum specimen?

<p>Early morning after mouth care (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a bronchoscopy, what nursing intervention is MOST important to implement before the procedure?

<p>Verify that the patient has signed the consent form. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors can interfere with the accuracy of a pulse oximetry reading?

<p>Anemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intervention is MOST appropriate when caring for a patient under airborne precautions?

<p>Wearing an N95 respirator (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a respiratory condition has collapsed alveoli. Which substance is the patient MOST likely deficient in?

<p>Surfactant (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A Gram stain of a sputum sample reveals the presence of gram-negative bacteria. What is the significance of this finding?

<p>It differentiates the type of bacteria present, aiding in antibiotic selection. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of smoking is diagnosed with lung cancer. What percentage range does smoking contribute to lung cancer cases?

<p>80-90% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with Potts disease secondary to long-term tuberculosis. Which area of the body is primarily affected by this condition?

<p>Spine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a chest tube inserted after a pneumothorax. Which assessment finding would indicate the chest tube is effectively resolving the pneumothorax?

<p>Improved breath sounds and symmetrical chest wall movement. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is admitted with a flail chest after a motor vehicle accident. What is the most concerning physiological consequence associated with flail chest?

<p>Paradoxical chest wall movement (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). What is a key characteristic of the pathophysiology of ARDS?

<p>Damage to the alveolar-capillary membrane, leading to increased permeability (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with ARDS is exhibiting refractory hypoxemia. What does this indicate about the patient's response to oxygen therapy?

<p>The patient's oxygen saturation does not improve adequately despite increased oxygen concentrations. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient receiving amoxicillin reports developing a vaginal yeast infection. What is the most likely explanation for this occurrence?

<p>Amoxicillin killed protective bacteria, leading to superinfection. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed cephalexin (a first-generation cephalosporin) for a skin infection. Which type of bacteria is this medication most effective against?

<p>Gram-positive bacteria (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known penicillin allergy is prescribed cefazolin, a first-generation cephalosporin, postoperatively for infection prophylaxis. What is the most important nursing action?

<p>Monitor the patient closely for signs of an allergic reaction, and notify the provider of the allergy history prior to administration. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When teaching a patient about taking penicillin, what instruction should the nurse include regarding meal times?

<p>Take penicillin on an empty stomach, 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on mechanical ventilation exhibits signs of increased agitation and restlessness. Which nursing intervention is the INITIAL priority based on the provided information?

<p>Assessing the patient's ventilator settings and respiratory status. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient receiving oxygen therapy at 6L/min via nasal cannula complains of a dry nasal passage. What nursing intervention is MOST appropriate?

<p>Initiating humidification to the oxygen delivery system. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a tracheostomy is being prepared for discharge. Which teaching point is MOST important for the nurse to emphasize to the patient and family?

<p>How to perform tracheostomy suctioning and stoma care to maintain airway patency. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed pseudoephedrine for nasal congestion. Which of the following conditions should the nurse recognize as a contraindication or reason for caution when administering this medication?

<p>Diabetes Mellitus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is receiving mechanical ventilation and the nurse observes a sudden decrease in cardiac output. Which of the following ventilator-related complications should the nurse suspect?

<p>Decreased venous return (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient receiving fluticasone nasal spray for allergic rhinitis reports experiencing frequent nosebleeds. What should the nurse recommend?

<p>Apply a lubricant such as petroleum jelly to the nasal mucosa. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking diphenhydramine (an antihistamine) for allergic symptoms reports feeling excessively drowsy. What nursing intervention is MOST appropriate?

<p>Recommend the patient avoid activities requiring alertness, such as driving. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following endotracheal intubation, the nurse auscultates the patient's lungs and hears diminished breath sounds on the left side. What immediate action should the nurse take?

<p>Immediately notify the provider and prepare for potential repositioning of the endotracheal tube. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed oseltamivir (Tamiflu) for influenza symptoms. The nurse should emphasize which of the following points regarding medication administration?

<p>The medication should be started within 48 hours of symptom onset. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has been on long-term mechanical ventilation and is now being weaned. Which assessment finding would indicate that the weaning process should be slowed or temporarily stopped?

<p>Development of new onset confusion or agitation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intervention is MOST appropriate for a patient experiencing acute bronchitis with a persistent, disruptive cough, especially at night?

<p>Recommending an antitussive, ensuring it coats the throat before drinking fluids 30-60 minutes later. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with pneumonia after presenting with fever, productive cough, and coarse crackles in the lower lobes. Which of the following actions should be prioritized by the nurse based on the potential complications of pneumonia?

<p>Administer a broad-spectrum antibiotic as prescribed and monitor for signs of further infection or resistance. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who is immunocompromised is suspected of having an opportunistic pneumonia. Which of the following factors is MOST critical in determining the course of treatment?

<p>The specific pathogen causing the pneumonia and the patient's immune status. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client with a persistent cough, night sweats, and recent weight loss is being evaluated for tuberculosis (TB). Which initial nursing intervention is MOST important while awaiting diagnostic confirmation?

<p>Initiating airborne precautions and ensuring proper respiratory isolation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed acetylcysteine via nebulizer as part of their treatment for a lower respiratory infection. What should the nurse emphasize when educating the patient about this medication?

<p>The medication helps to thin and loosen secretions, making it easier to cough them up. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of asthma is admitted with acute bronchitis and is experiencing significant wheezing. Which class of medication would be MOST appropriate to administer FIRST?

<p>A beta 2 adrenergic agonist to dilate the airways. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is being discharged after treatment for community-acquired pneumonia. Which discharge instruction is MOST important to prevent recurrence or complications?

<p>Complete the entire course of antibiotics as prescribed. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is caring for a patient with a nursing diagnosis of impaired gas exchange related to tuberculous infection. What focused assessment should the nurse prioritize?

<p>Assessing the patient's breath sounds, oxygen saturation, and respiratory rate. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement BEST describes the rationale for using empiric antibiotic therapy in the treatment of pneumonia?

<p>Initiating broad-spectrum antibiotics promptly can improve outcomes while waiting for specific culture results. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of heavy alcohol use is admitted with aspiration pneumonia. What is the MOST important nursing intervention to prevent recurrence?

<p>Educating the patient about the risks of alcohol use and its impact on aspiration. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with increased fremitus on the left side during a respiratory assessment. What physiological change is most likely causing this finding?

<p>Presence of fluid or consolidation in the lung tissue. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During percussion of a patient's chest, a nurse notes a hyperresonant sound. Which condition is most consistent with this finding?

<p>Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with suspected pneumonia is auscultated. Which adventitious breath sound is most closely associated with pneumonia?

<p>Crackles (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the underlying mechanism for the clinical manifestation of cyanosis in a patient with inadequate oxygenation?

<p>Elevated levels of deoxygenated hemoglobin in the blood. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with rhinitis is prescribed a nasal corticosteroid. What is the primary mechanism by which this medication alleviates symptoms?

<p>Reducing inflammation of the nasal mucosa. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with acute sinusitis is prescribed a topical decongestant nasal spray. What is an important teaching point regarding the use of this medication?

<p>Limit use to no more than 3-5 days to prevent rebound congestion. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient diagnosed with influenza is prescribed an antiviral medication. When should the nurse administer antiviral medications for influenza to be most effective?

<p>Within 48 hours of symptom onset. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which physiological process is the primary cause of morning headaches in patients with sleep apnea?

<p>Cerebral vasodilation in response to nocturnal hypoxemia. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During assessment of a patient with a suspected airway obstruction, the nurse notes suprasternal and intercostal retractions. What do these findings indicate?

<p>Increased effort to overcome resistance in the airway. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with rhinitis following exposure to a known allergen. Which assessment finding is most consistent with this condition?

<p>Pale, boggy, and swollen nasal turbinates. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with chronic sinusitis reports persistent nasal congestion, facial pain, and headache for over 12 weeks. What is the most likely underlying cause of these symptoms?

<p>Bacterial or fungal infection with inflammation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is educating a community group about influenza prevention. What should the nurse emphasize regarding the timing of influenza vaccination?

<p>Vaccination should be obtained annually, as the influenza virus can mutate. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing polysomnography is found to have apneic episodes with a cessation of respiratory airflow lasting more than 10 seconds. Based on this finding, how should the nurse interpret this result?

<p>The patient meets diagnostic criteria for sleep apnea. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a complete airway obstruction is unresponsive. What intervention should the nurse prioritize to establish a patent airway?

<p>Preparing for endotracheal intubation or cricothyroidotomy. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which assessment finding would indicate that a patient is experiencing early inadequate oxygenation?

<p>Restlessness (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who recently underwent a mediastinoscopy should be closely monitored for which of the following potential complications?

<p>Hemorrhage and pneumothorax (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Before a patient undergoes a VATS (video-assisted thoracic surgery) lung biopsy, which nursing action is the MOST important?

<p>Verifying that informed consent has been obtained (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a thoracentesis, a patient reports sudden onset sharp chest pain and increasing shortness of breath. What is the priority nursing intervention?

<p>Notifying the healthcare provider immediately and preparing for a chest X-ray (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is scheduled for pulmonary function tests (PFTs). Which instruction should the nurse provide to the patient prior to the test?

<p>Refrain from smoking or using bronchodilators for at least 6 hours prior to the test (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with no known risk factors for tuberculosis (TB) has a tuberculin skin test (TST) administered. Forty-eight hours later, the nurse assesses the injection site and notes an area of induration measuring 12 mm. How should this result be interpreted?

<p>Positive, as the induration is greater than 10 mm in a person with no known risk factors (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When taking a respiratory history, which question would be most important to ask to assess a patient's health perception-health management pattern?

<p>Describe any changes in your respiratory status (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) reports experiencing increased dyspnea and has thick, tenacious secretions. Which intervention is MOST important to include in the patient's plan of care?

<p>Teaching the patient effective coughing techniques and encouraging increased fluid intake (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An elderly patient is admitted with pneumonia. Knowing the effects of aging on defense mechanisms, which nursing intervention is most important to include in the patient's care plan?

<p>Assisting with coughing and deep-breathing exercises regularly (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the physical assessment of an elderly patient, the nurse observes a barrel chest and kyphotic posture. What is the best explanation for these findings, regarding the aging process?

<p>These are normal findings associated with aging due to structural changes in the respiratory system (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is assessing a patient's respiratory status and notes an increased respiratory rate, use of accessory muscles, and nasal flaring. What is the priority nursing intervention?

<p>Assessing oxygen saturation and administering supplemental oxygen, if indicated (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When auscultating a patient's lungs, the nurse hears high-pitched, musical sounds primarily during expiration. How should the nurse document these sounds?

<p>Wheezes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is palpating the chest wall to assess for fremitus. What does increased fremitus indicate?

<p>Lung consolidation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports a history of seasonal allergies. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask to assess the patient's respiratory health?

<p>What medications do you take for your allergies? (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with COPD reports feeling full quickly and experiencing weight loss. What dietary modification should the nurse suggest?

<p>Choose high-calorie, nutrient-dense foods and eat frequent, small meals (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An older adult patient is being discharged home after treatment for pneumonia. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching regarding respiratory health?

<p>&quot;I will take my cough medicine only when I have a fever.&quot; (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 52-year-old female presents to the emergency department experiencing a severe asthma exacerbation. Which assessment finding would be most indicative of impending respiratory failure?

<p>Absence of wheezing with decreased level of consciousness (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known history of asthma is prescribed both albuterol (Proventil) and fluticasone (Flovent Diskus). What instructions should the nurse give the patient regarding the use of these medications?

<p>Use albuterol (Proventil) first to open the airways, then use fluticasone (Flovent Diskus) to decrease inflammation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with COPD is being discharged home on oxygen therapy. Which statement indicates that the patient understands the safety precautions associated with oxygen use?

<p>&quot;I will avoid using electric blankets or heating pads while using oxygen.&quot; (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 68-year-old patient with COPD is admitted to the hospital with increased dyspnea and productive cough. The patient's ABG results are: pH 7.30, PaCO2 60 mm Hg, PaO2 55 mm Hg, HCO3 30 mEq/L. Which intervention is most appropriate for this patient?

<p>Providing controlled oxygen therapy to maintain SaO2 between 88% and 92%. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of exercise-induced asthma (EIA) is preparing to participate in a 5K run. What is an important recommendation the nurse should provide to prevent bronchospasm during the event?

<p>Use a short-acting beta-agonist such as albuterol 15-30 minutes before the run. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with COPD has developed cor pulmonale. Which assessment finding is most closely associated with this complication?

<p>Jugular venous distension and peripheral edema. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed montelukast (Singulair) for long-term asthma control. Which statement indicates the patient needs further teaching regarding this medication?

<p>&quot;I can use this medication to treat sudden asthma symptoms.&quot; (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 45-year-old patient with asthma is admitted for an elective surgery. Which medication should be continued throughout the perioperative period unless otherwise directed by the anesthesia provider?

<p>Inhaled fluticasone (Flovent) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with COPD is being evaluated for pulmonary rehabilitation. Which assessment finding would be most indicative of their suitability for this program?

<p>A willingness to actively participate in the rehabilitation program. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of asthma and allergic rhinitis reports increased symptoms during the spring. Which intervention would be most appropriate to recommend at this time?

<p>Limiting outdoor activities during peak pollen seasons. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 30-year-old female with asthma reports increased symptoms during her menstrual cycle. Which factor likely contributes to this phenomenon?

<p>Hormonal fluctuations affecting airway inflammation and reactivity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with COPD is being assessed for the effectiveness of their bronchodilator therapy. Following administration of a bronchodilator, which objective finding indicates a positive response?

<p>Improved forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with COPD and a history of smoking asks about ways to prevent further lung damage. Which recommendation is most important for the nurse to emphasize?

<p>Avoid exposure to secondhand smoke and pollutants. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A construction worker with no prior history of respiratory illness develops occupational asthma. Which measure would be most effective in preventing further exacerbations?

<p>Wearing a properly fitted respirator mask at all times while working. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is teaching a patient about the appropriate use of a peak flow meter. Which statement by the patient indicates a correct understanding of the procedure?

<p>&quot;I need to reset the meter to zero after each attempt.&quot; (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Primary purpose of the respiratory system?

Exchange of gases (O2 and CO2).

Alveoli

Tiny air sacs in the lungs where gas exchange occurs.

Surfactant

Lipoprotein that reduces surface tension in the alveoli, preventing collapse.

Atelectasis

Collapsed alveoli.

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Anatomic dead space

Airways where no gas exchange occurs (trachea and bronchi).

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PaO2

Partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood.

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SaO2

Oxygen saturation in arterial blood.

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Sputum Studies

Used to diagnose lung infections and abnormal cells. Collected in sterile container.

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Lung Cancer: Late Symptoms

Lung cancer often presents late due to nonspecific symptoms that can be masked by smoking or other respiratory conditions.

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Pneumothorax

Air in the pleural space leading to a collapsed lung.

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Iatrogenic Pneumothorax

A pneumothorax caused by a medical procedure.

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Tension Pneumothorax

Air enters the pleural space but cannot escape, compressing the lung and mediastinum.

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Hemothorax

Blood in the pleural space.

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Flail Chest

Two or more adjacent ribs are fractured in multiple places, leading to instability of the chest wall.

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Pleural Effusion

Fluid accumulation in the space between the lungs and the chest wall.

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ARDS

A severe lung condition caused by widespread inflammation & damage to alveoli. Common cause is sepsis.

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Refractory Hypoxemia

Severe hypoxemia that does not improve with supplemental oxygen.

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Acute Bronchitis

Inflammation of the mucous membrane of the bronchial tree.

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Bronchitis Symptoms

Cough, sputum, headache, fever, malaise, dyspnea, chest pain.

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Bronchitis Treatment Goals

Symptom relief and prevention of pneumonia.

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Pneumonia

Acute infection of the lung parenchyma.

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Pneumonia Symptoms

Cough, fever, chills, dyspnea, tachypnea, chest pain, crackles.

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Pneumonia Treatment

Broad-spectrum antibiotics, supportive care.

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Empiric Antibiotic Therapy

Started before culture results return.

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Hospital-Acquired Pneumonia

Infection acquired in a non-intubated patient 48 hours after hospital admission.

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Aspiration Pneumonia

Entry of substances from the mouth or stomach into the trachea and lungs.

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Tuberculosis Symptoms

Initial dry cough, fatigue, malaise, night sweats, fever.

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Vancomycin

Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis; used to treat MRSA.

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Macrolides

Broad-spectrum antibiotic; watch for liver and kidney toxicity.

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Beta-lactam combinations

Added to broad-spectrum penicillin to boost antibacterial action.

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Monobactams

Narrow-spectrum antibiotic for respiratory, urinary, and abdominal infections.

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Carbapenems

Broadest spectrum antibacterial; lower resistance, but watch for superinfections.

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Tracheostomy

Surgically created opening in the trachea to establish an airway, bypass obstruction, remove secretions, allow long-term ventilation, and facilitate weaning.

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Endotracheal Tube

Flexible tube inserted through the mouth into the trachea, connected to a ventilator to assist breathing during anesthesia, trauma, or illness.

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Antihistamines

Medications that bind to H1 receptors, blocking histamine release to relieve allergy symptoms like itching and sneezing.

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Non-Opioid Antitussives

Medications that act on the central nervous system (CNS) to increase the cough threshold, reducing the urge to cough.

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Nasal Glucocorticoids

Medications that inhibit the inflammatory response in the nasal passages, reducing congestion and facilitating sinus drainage.

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Oral Decongestants

Medications that stimulate adrenergic receptors, causing vasoconstriction in the nose to reduce nasal congestion.

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Antivirals (for Flu)

Medications that reduce the duration of flu symptoms and the risk of complications when started within 2 days of symptom onset.

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Venturi Mask

Oxygen delivery system that can deliver oxygen concentrations from 24% to 60% with flow rates of 4 to 12 L/min, via a specific color-coded adapter.

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Absorption Atelectasis

High concentrations of oxygen can lead to alveolar collapse due to nitrogen being replaced. Signs are cough, chest pain, and crackles.

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Oxygen Toxicity

Damage to the lungs due to prolonged exposure to high concentrations of oxygen. The patient may experience cough, chest pain, dyspnea, and pulmonary congestion.

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Increased Fremitus

Increased fremitus indicates fluid or denseness in the lungs.

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Dull Percussion Sound

Dull sounds during percussion may indicate a mass or pneumonia.

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Hyperresonance

Hyperresonance indicates overinflation, commonly found in COPD.

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Crackles

Fine or coarse crackles can be an indication of pneumonia.

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Inadequate Oxygenation

Early signs include accessory muscle use, shortness of breath, and pallor. Late signs include cyanosis and poor capillary refill.

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Rhinitis

Inflammation of the nasal mucosa in response to antigens.

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Rhinitis Treatments

Topical corticosteroids, antihistamines, decongestants.

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Sinusitis

Inflammation of sinus mucosa; can be acute, subacute, recurrent, or chronic.

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Sinusitis Treatment

Decongestants, intranasal corticosteroids, analgesics.

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Influenza

Highly contagious viral infection with subtypes A, B, C, D.

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Influenza Symptoms

Abrupt onset of fever, myalgia, headache, cough, sore throat, and fatigue.

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Influenza Management

Vaccination, rest, fluids, antipyretics, and analgesics.

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Sleep Apnea

Repeated upper airway obstruction during sleep.

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Sleep Apnea Risk Factors

Obesity, age over 65, neck circumference greater than 16 inches.

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Airway Obstruction Interventions

Heimlich maneuver, cricothyroidotomy, ET intubation, tracheostomy.

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Post-Sedation Monitoring

NPO until gag reflex returns post-sedation.

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Mediastinoscopy

Examines the mediastinum (space behind the breastbone).

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Lung Biopsy - Nursing Care

Obtain consent, monitor distress/bleeding, chest X-ray, incision care, monitor breath sounds, encourage deep breathing.

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Thoracentesis Use

Obtain fluid for diagnosis, remove fluid, or instill medication.

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Thoracentesis - Nursing

Upright, elbows on table, no talk/cough during procedure; observe for hypoxia/pneumothorax post-procedure.

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Pulmonary Function Test

Measures lung volumes and airflow to diagnose disease and assess bronchodilator response.

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PFT Prep & Care

Avoid bronchodilators/smoking before; deep breathing instruction; rest after.

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TB Skin Test - Positive

≥15mm is positive in all individuals.

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Respiratory History - Past

Respiratory issues, allergies, other diseases.

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Respiratory History - Lifestyle

Smoking, travel and immunizations.

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Respiratory - Genetic Risks

COPD, asthma, cystic fibrosis.

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Respiratory Objective Data

Rate, depth, rhythm, O2 sat.

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Aging - Respiratory Structure

Calcification, stiffening cause reduced expansion.

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Aging - Respiratory Defense

Reduced immune response, less cough force increases risk of aspiration or infection.

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Respiratory - Inspection

Position, shape, symmetry, and respiratory rate.

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Bronchodilators

Medications like albuterol that relax bronchial smooth muscle, opening airways.

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Corticosteroids (for Respiratory Issues)

Medications, like prednisone, that reduce inflammation in the airways.

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Mast Cell Stabilizers

Medications suppressing histamine release which reduces inflammation.

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Cromolyn (spray)

Reduces inflammation by stopping histamine release, preventing allergy symptoms.

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Cromolyn - Nursing Actions

Prevents allergy symptoms, start 1 week before pollen season, use prophylactically before allergen exposure, can use with antihistamines and/or nasal decongestants.

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Anaphylactic Reaction

A severe, life-threatening allergic reaction.

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Antituberculars/Antimycobacterials

Medications used to treat tuberculosis and other mycobacterial infections.

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Mucolytics

Medications that help loosen and clear mucus from the airways.

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Asthma

A chronic inflammatory disease characterized by hyperresponsiveness and reversible airflow limitation.

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Asthma Symptoms

Shortness of breath and chest tightness, potentially progressing to severe hypoxemia and respiratory arrest.

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Asthma Triggers

Air pollutants, allergens, drugs, food additives, occupational exposure, and viral infections.

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Clinical Manifestations of Asthma

Wheezing, cough, dyspnea, and chest tightness.

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Asthma Complications

Pneumonia, tension pneumothorax, status asthmaticus, and acute respiratory failure.

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Status Asthmaticus

A life-threatening asthma exacerbation unresponsive to usual treatments.

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Asthma Medications

Bronchodilators (short-acting beta 2 agonists, anticholinergics) and anti-inflammatory drugs (corticosteroids, leukotriene modifiers).

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COPD

A progressive lung disease characterized by persistent airflow limitation.

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COPD main causes

Cigarette smoking and exposure to noxious particles and gases.

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COPD Pathophysiology

Chronic inflammation, loss of elastic recoil, and airflow obstruction.

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COPD Complications

Pulmonary hypertension, cor pulmonale, and acute respiratory failure.

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COPD treatment goals

Relieve bronchospasms, decrease edema, improve ventilation and prevent/treat infections.

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Study Notes

  • The primary purpose of the respiratory system is gas exchange.

Upper Respiratory Tract Structures

  • Nose
  • Mouth
  • Pharynx
  • Epiglottis
  • Larynx
  • Trachea

Lower Respiratory Tract Structures

  • Bronchi
  • Bronchioles
  • Alveolar ducts
  • Alveoli

Lower Airways

  • Trachea and bronchi constitute the anatomic dead space, where no gas exchange occurs.
  • Bronchioles have smooth muscle that constricts and dilates.
  • Alveoli are the terminal part of the respiratory tract where gases are exchanged.
  • Surfactant, a lipoprotein secreted by alveoli when stretched, reduces surface tension, preventing alveolar collapse.
  • Atelectasis refers to collapsed alveoli.

Nursing Process & Respiratory Defense Mechanisms

  • Strategies should be developed to enhance normal respiratory system defense mechanisms.
  • Nursing diagnoses should relate to abnormalities of the respiratory system.

Precautions

  • Droplet precautions require a mask.
  • Airborne precautions require an N95 respirator.
  • Contact precautions require gloves and a gown.

Diagnostic Studies & Nursing Interventions

  • Hemoglobin: Normal range is 12-18.
  • Hematocrit: Normal range is 36-52.

Arterial Blood Gases (ABGs)

  • pH: Normal range is 7.35-7.45.
  • PaO2: Normal range is 80-100 mmHg.
  • SaO2: Normal range is >95%.
  • PaCO2: Normal range is 35-45 mmHg.
  • HCO3: Normal range is 22-26 mEq/L.
  • ABGs indicate respiratory or metabolic acidosis/alkalosis.

Pulse Oximetry

  • Normal range is 94-99%.
  • Factors affecting accuracy: anemia, cold extremities, IV dyes, thick nails.

PaO2 and SaO2

  • PaO2: Partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood, obtained via ABG analysis.
  • SaO2: Oxygen saturation, also obtained via ABG analysis.

Sputum Studies

  • Culture and Sensitivity: Diagnoses bacterial infection, selects antibiotics, and evaluates treatment.
  • Gram Stain: Classifies bacteria as gram-positive or gram-negative to guide initial therapy.
  • Acid-Fast Smear and Culture: Identifies Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
  • Cytology: Detects abnormal cells, possibly indicating cancer.

Sputum Studies: Nursing Implications

  • Obtain the specimen in the early morning after mouth care, as secretions accumulate overnight.
  • Collect the specimen in a sterile container.
  • Send the specimen promptly to the laboratory.

Endoscopic Testing

  • Bronchoscopy: Direct visualization of bronchi using a scope to obtain specimens or remove mucus/foreign bodies.
    • Before: Verify consent, NPO status ensured, patient sedated.
    • After: NPO until gag reflex returns, monitor for hemorrhage or pneumothorax.
  • Mediastinoscopy: Examines the mediastinum, the space behind the breastbone between the lungs containing lymph nodes, heart, and great vessels

Lung Biopsy

  • Verify consent.
  • Types include transbronchial, percutaneous/transthoracic needle aspiration (TTNA), video-assisted thoracic surgery (VATS), and open lung biopsy.
  • Nursing Implications: monitor for distress, pneumothorax, or bleeding. Obtain chest X-ray. Incision or chest tube care. Monitor breath sounds. Encourage deep breathing.

Thoracentesis

  • Used to obtain pleural fluid for diagnosis, remove pleural fluid, or instill medication.
    • Explain procedure and confirm signed consent; perform a time-out.
    • Position patient upright with elbows on overhead table and feet supported; instruct patient not to talk or cough during the procedure.
    • Observe for signs of hypoxia or pneumothorax.
    • Encourage deep breaths to expand lungs.
    • Send labeled specimen to the lab.

Pulmonary Function Studies

  • Measures lung volumes and airflow to diagnose pulmonary disease, assess response to bronchodilators, and evaluate disability.
    • Avoid bronchodilator administration or smoking 6 hours before the exam.
    • Assess height and weight.
    • Instruct on deep breathing exercises.
    • Encourage rest after testing to alleviate fatigue.

Tuberculin Skin Testing

  • 0-4 mm: Negative.
  • 5-9 mm (Category 1) Positive for people: HIV+, recent TB exposure, fibrotic lung lesions, immunosuppressed, recent organ transplants, or taking ≥15 mg prednisone daily.
  • 10-14 mm (Category 2) Positive when: diabetes mellitus, end-stage renal disease, recent immigrants, homeless, institutionalized, or IV drug abusers.
  • ≥15 mm (Category 3) Positive for all!

Respiratory History: Subjective Data

  • Past health history of respiratory conditions, allergies, and other relevant body systems.
  • Current medications, including prescription, OTC, illicit drugs, and oxygen.
  • Surgical or other treatments received.
  • Health perception and health management patterns, including smoking history, changes in respiratory status, characteristics of cough and sputum, and international travel.
  • Immunization status.
  • Family history of cystic fibrosis, COPD, and asthma.

Respiratory History: Objective Data

  • Vital signs with pulse oximetry.
  • Assess the nose for patency, inflammation, deformity, symmetry, and discharge.
  • Assess the mouth and pharynx for color, lesions, masses, gums, and dentition.
  • Assess the neck for symmetry, tenderness, and swollen nodes.
  • Examine the thorax and lungs by inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation.

Factors Influencing Respiratory Health

  • Current medications (OTC, prescribed, doses, frequency, side effects, overuse of bronchodilators).
  • Past health history (colds, sore throats, sinus issues, allergies, asthma, COPD, pneumonia, TB).
  • Past surgical history related to respiratory problems, dates, therapies, nebulizer/humidifier use.
  • Nutrition: weight loss, fatigue, feeling full quickly, common in TB, COPD, lung cancer. Avoid fluid overload.
  • Elimination: activity intolerance from dyspnea, limited mobility, and constipation.
  • Sleep patterns: waking due to lung problems, asthma, COPD; chest tightness, wheezing, coughing.
  • Activity patterns: dyspnea limiting activity; stress and coping levels.

Gerontological Considerations

Structural Changes

  • Reduced chest expansion due to calcification of costal cartilages.
  • Stiffening of the chest wall.
  • Barrel chest appearance and kyphotic posture.
  • Decreased chest wall movement and less deep breathing.
  • Breath sounds may be decreased at the bases.

Defense Mechanisms Changes

  • Immune function is reduced with decreased ability to produce antibodies.
  • Less forceful cough and decreased functional cilia.
  • Decreased sensation in the pharynx.
  • Decreased cough effectiveness.
  • Thickened mucus, increasing the risk for aspiration and infection.

Respiratory Control Changes

  • Responses to changes in O2 and CO2 levels are more gradual, increasing risk of hypoxemia and hypercapnia from minor incidents.
  • Decreased ability to maintain acid-base balance.
  • Slight PaO2 and PaCO2 changes may occur before changes in RR.

Physical Assessment Techniques

  • Inspection: Appearance, position, signs of respiratory distress, shape, symmetry, movement, respiratory rate, depth, and rhythm.
  • Examine skin & nails for cyanosis and clubbing.
  • Palpation: Tracheal position, expansion, fremitus (vibration of chest wall). Increased fremitus indicates fluid or denseness.
  • Percussion: Assesses density and aeration of lungs.
    • Dull: mass, pneumonia.
    • Flat: soft, high-pitched.
    • Hyperresonance: loud, low pitch (COPD).
    • Tympany: pneumothorax.
    • Resonance: normal sound.
  • Auscultation: Listen to anterior, lateral, and posterior aspects for at least one complete respiratory cycle.

Abnormal Breath Sounds

  • Crackles: Fine and coarse (pneumonia).
  • Wheezes.
  • Stridor.
  • Pleural friction rub.
  • Abnormal voice sounds: Egophony, bronchophony, whispered pectoriloquy.

Signs of Inadequate Oxygenation

  • Use of accessory muscles.
  • Cyanosis.
  • Pallor.
  • Shortness of breath.
  • Poor capillary refill.

Rhinitis

  • Inflammation of the nasal mucosa in response to an antigen.
    • Sneezing, watery/itchy eyes and nose, congestion, and decreased smell.
    • Pale, boggy, swollen turbinates.
    • Headache, nasal congestion, sinus pressure, hoarseness, and cough due to nasal polyps/postnasal drip.
  • Management: avoid triggers, reduce inflammation.
    • Medications: Corticosteroids, antihistamines, decongestants, leukotriene receptor agonists (LTRAs), immunotherapy (allergy shots).
  • No Antibiotics Listed

Sinusitis

  • Inflammation of the sinus mucosa resulting in blockage and accumulated secretions.
    • Risk for viral, bacterial, or fungal infection.
    • Acute (1-4 weeks), subacute (4-12 weeks), recurrent (4+ infections/year), chronic (more than 12 weeks).
  • Treatment: decongestants, intranasal corticosteroids, analgesics, increased fluid intake, hot showers, saline nasal sprays/lavages, warm/moist applications to the face.
  • Monitor temperature and assess for bacterial changes to determine if antibiotics are needed.

Influenza

  • Highly contagious viral infection with increased morbidity and mortality.
    • Peak season is December to February.
    • Classified by stereotypes (A, B, C, D).
    • Influenza A is the most common and virulent.
  • Transmission: infected droplets (1 day before symptoms to 5-7 days after).
    • Abrupt onset (chills, fever, myalgia, headache, cough, sore throat, fatigue).
    • Complications: pneumonia, ear/sinus infections. Older adults may experience weakness and lethargy.
  • Prevention: vaccine (inactivated or live attenuated). Annual vaccination is needed, takes 2 weeks for antibody production.
  • Symptom relief: rest, fluids, antipyretics, analgesia.
  • Antivirals shorten the duration of symptoms and reduce the risk of complications.

Sleep Apnea

  • Partial or complete upper airway obstruction during sleep, usually during REM cycle.
    • Apnea: Cessation of respiratory airflow lasting more than 10 seconds.
    • Hypopnea: 30-90% decrease in airflow.
  • Risk factors: obesity, age over 65, neck circumference ≥16 inches, male gender, postmenopausal women.
    • Frequent arousals, insomnia, daytime sleepiness, witnessed apneic episodes, snoring, morning headache, irritability.
  • Hypertension, type 2 diabetes, dysrhythmias, CHD, arteriosclerosis, heart failure.

Airway Obstruction

  • Medical emergency. Partial or complete.
    • Choking, stridor, use of accessory muscles, suprasternal/intercostal retractions, nasal flaring, wheezing, restlessness, tachycardia, cyanosis, altered LOC.
  • Immediate assessment and treatment (brain damage or death in 3-5 minutes).
  • Interventions: Heimlich maneuver, cricothyroidotomy, ET intubation, tracheostomy. Partial Symptoms Intervention: chest X-ray, laryngoscopy, bronchoscopy

Oxygen Therapy: Expected patient outcomes

  • Improved oxygenation
  • Decreased hypoxemia
  • Improved gas exchange
  • Decreased workload of breathing
  • Decreased myocardial stress

Oxygen Therapy: Nursing Implications

  • Assess the need for oxygen therapy and obtain an order.
  • Properly set up the equipment and apply devices, humidifying if needed.
  • Prevent infection and decrease the risk of fires.
  • Assess for complications and client response.
  • Perform patient/family teaching, and document interventions.

Oxygen Therapy Complications

  • Combustion
  • CO2 narcosis
  • Absorption atelectasis
  • Oxygen toxicity
  • Infection

Complications of Mechanical Ventilation

  • Decreased cardiac output
  • Barotrauma
  • Gastrointestinal distress
  • Fluid volume excess
  • Alteration in acid/base balance
  • Airway obstruction
  • Neurological complications such as increased intracranial pressure
  • Infections such as ventilator-associated pneumonia
  • Musculoskeletal and integumentary complications of immobility
  • Psychosocial needs

Nursing Care of Mechanical Ventilation

  • Respiratory assessment
  • Assess ventilator settings
  • Assess patient's response to treatment
  • Emergency equipment at bedside
  • Maintain patency of airway
  • Monitor vital signs
  • ROM exercises
  • Proper humidification
  • Cardiovascular assessment
  • Monitor lab results
  • Assess GI System
  • Nutritional support
  • Measures to decrease anxiety
  • Establish communication system
  • Emotional support and teaching

Artificial Airway: Tracheostomy

  • Surgically created stoma to:
    • Establish a patent airway
    • Bypass an upper airway obstruction
    • Facilitate secretion removal
    • Permit long-term mechanical ventilation
    • Facilitate weaning from mechanical ventilation.

Artificial Airway: Endotracheal Tube

  • Flexible plastic tube placed through the mouth and into the trachea.
    • Can be connected to a ventilator.
    • Inserted when receiving general anesthesia, trauma or during a serious illness.

Antihistamines

  • Prototype: Brompheniramine / diphenhydramin.
    • Binds with H1 receptors on target cells, blocking histamine release. Relieves acute symptoms of allergic responses (itching, sneezing, rhinorrhea).
    • Side effects: sedation, somnolence, paradoxical stimulation, palpitations, dry mouth, constipation, urinary hesitancy.
    • Nursing implications: warn against operating machinery, report palpitations, do not use alcohol.

Nasal Glucocorticoids

  • Prototype: Budesonide, ciclesonide, fluticasone mometasone.
  • Mechanism of action: inhibits inflammatory response, decreases mucosal inflammation, and facilitates drainage of sinus.
  • Side effects: mild nasal irritation, mucosal dryness, nosebleed, localized fungal infection.
  • Nursing implications: adherence, use on regular basis not pRn, reinforce that spray acts to decrease inflammation and it may take several days to 1-2 weeks to achieve max effect.
    • Stop if infection develops

Decongestants

  • Oral - pseudoephedrine.
    • Mechanism of action - stimulates adrenergic receptors and promotes vasoconstriction of superficial vessels of the nose, reduces nasal congestion.
    • Side effects - CN stimulations, headache, hypertension, dysuria.
    • Nursing implications - tolerance variable, hypertension, DM, Glaucoma, liver, kidney, rebound congestion with overuse.
    • Nasal spray- oxymetazoline: same as above

Antivirals

  • Antivirals shorten the duration of flu symptoms and reduce risk of complications.
    • Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) - oral med
    • Zanamivir (Relenza) - oral med.
  • Begin within 2 days of onset of symptoms.

Influenza Vaccine Implications

  • Know the vaccine, assess the patient, administer the vaccine, monitor patient (at least 15 mins), document.

Complementary/Alternative Therapies Implications

  • Zinc - May reduce duration of the cold virus
  • Echinacea - may affect the immune system and anti-inflammatory effects.
  • Golden Seal.

Acute Bronchitis

  • Inflammation of the mucous membrane of the bronchial tree.
    • Acute = up to 3 weeks Chronic = 2-3 months of the year for at least 2 consecutive years
  • Self-limiting inflammation of the bronchi, usually caused by viruses.
  • Symptoms: cough, clear/purulent sputum, headache, fever, malaise, dyspnea, chest pain.
  • Breath sounds may reveal crackles or wheezes.
  • Supportive treatment to relieve symptoms and prevent pneumonia.
  • Medications:
    • Beta 2 adrenergic agonists (if wheezing): Short acting inhaler (albuterol).
    • Antitussives: swallowed without water and allowed to coat throat for soothing effects, then followed with increased fluid intake 30 to 60 minutes later.
      • Opioids (codeine).
      • Non-opioids (dextromethorphen).
    • Expectorants to thin and loosen secretions.
      • Guaifenesin (oral: liquid and tabs).
    • Mucolytic agents to thin secretions.
      • Acetylcysteine inhalation with nebulizer.

Pneumonia

  • Acute infection of the lung parenchyma (fluid in lungs)
  • Etiology - occur when defense mechanisms become incompetent or are overwhelmed by the virulence or infectious agents.
    • Weakened cough or epiglottal reflex may allow aspiration of the oropharyngeal contents into the lungs.
  • Symptoms: cough, fever, chills, dyspnea, tachypnea, pleuritic chest pain, unproductive cough, confusion secondary to hypoxia, fine coarse crackles
  • Complications: multidrug resistant pathogens (MDR), MRSA and gram negative bacilli, advanced age, immune suppression, history of abx use, prolonged mechanical ventilation
  • Empiric antibiotic therapy- broad spectrum abx, started before culture and sensitivity returns
  • Risk factors:
    • Aspiration of normal flora from the nasopharynx or oropharynx
    • Many organisms that inhibit the mouth or pharynx in health adults
  • Hospital acquired - nosocomial - in a non-intubated patient that begins 48 hours or longer after admission to hospital and was not present when they were admitted.
  • Community acquired - occurs who have not been hospitalized or lived in a long-term facility within 14 days of infection
  • Aspiration - results from the abnormal entry of material from the mouth or stomach into the trachea and lungs, seizure, anesthesia, head injury, stroke, etoh use, decrease loc
  • Opportunistic - inflammation and infection of the lower respiratory tract in the immunocompromised community. at risk altered immune fx

Tuberculosis

Symptoms do not develop for 2-3 weeks after infection or deactivation. - Main: initial dry cough, fatigue, malaise, anorexia, night sweats, fever, dry cough that becomes productive and effects other organs. Bone and joint TB can cause pain dysaria and hematuria.

  • Complications- scarring and residual, significant lung damage, can be fatal if untreated
  • Complications of long term TB- spine Potts disease- destruction of intervertebral disc and adjacent joint, CNS- bacterial meningitis, abdomen peritonitis, kidney adrenal, lymph.

Lung Cancer

  • Smoking the biggest cause
  • Arise from mutated epithelial cells
  • Nonspecific and appear late in the disease process
  • Complications Lobar pneumonia that does not respond to treatment, masked by cough.
    • Spread location depends on cancer, location, and metastatic, persistent cough with sputum.

Chest Trauma

  • Pneumothorax: Air in the pleural space, leading to a collapsed lung, dyspnea, decreased chest wall movement and breath sounds, and hyperresonance to percussion.
    • Requires chest tube insertion.
    • Spontaneous can happen randomly
    • Iatrogenic can occur due to laceration or lung procedure
    • Tension occurs when air enters but cannot escape, compressing the lung.
  • Hemothorax: Blood in the pleural space.
    • Dyspnea, decreased/absent breath sounds, dullness to percussion, decreased hemoglobin, and shock.
    • Requires chest tube insertion/drainage, autotransfusion, and treatment for hypovolemia.
  • Fractures
    • Signs and symptoms: paradoxical movement of chest wall, respiratory distress
    • Intraprofessional care: O2 needed to maintain saturation, analgesia, positive pressure mechanical ventilation for acute respiratory distress, will also help stabilize flail segment, treat associated injuries

Restrictive Disorders

  • Pleural Effusion: Fluid in the pleural space. Requires aspiration via thoracentesis.
  • Atelectasis: Absence of gas or air in the lungs. Possible symptoms include SOB and chest pain
  • Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome: Sudden and progressive form of acute respiratory failure with damage to the alveolar-capillary membrane, increasing permeability to the intravascular fluids.
  • Etiology sepsis, or multisystem organ dysfunction, from acute respiratory sounds of direct injuries.
  • Refractory hypoxemia: Getting worse despite receiving higher concentrations of O2

Antibiotics/Antibacterials

  • Penicillins (amoxicillin, ampicillin): Effective against gram-positive bacteria.
    • Target areas: pneumonia, meningitis, skin, bone, joint, and GI infections.
    • Nursing education: Monitor superinfection and anaphylactic, monitor bleeding, increase fluids, take 1h before or 2H after meal.
  • Cephalosporins (monitor potential allergy with patients who are allergic to PCN 1-7% chance there is also an allergy)
    • Generations (Cephalexin, cefazolin, Cefaclor etc...)
    • Side effects: Gi distress, weakness, itching, high Dose, nephrotoxicity, bleeding, seizures can increase effect of warfarin can't mix with nephrotoxic drugs.
  • Respiratory Fluoroquinolones (levofloxacin and moxifloxican): GI problems, neuralgic effects, rash
  • Vancomycin (treatment of MRSA, alternative to PCN): Bacteriocidal, inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis. Side effects: kidney/hearing toxicity IV site monitoring, skin irritation, thrombophlebitis red man

Mucoltytics

Asthma

  • Diverse: characterized by bronchial hyperactivity and reversible expiratory airflow limitation. Signs and symptoms: varied Genetic Environmental Air pollution: Pathophysiology Clinical manifestations: Wheezing, diminished breath sounds Cough Dyspnea Chest tightness
  • Complications Treatment: Albuterol rescue.

COPD

  • Destruction of alveoli and connective tissue of the lung that gets trapped affecting gas exchange
  • Vascular networks fuse together Progressive lung disease characterized by persistent airflow limitations. Cigarette smoke is the biggest cause
  • Complications: o Pulmonary hypertension o Cor pulmonale o Acute respiratory failure o Depression/ anxiety
  • Goals: adequate hydration, relieve bronchiospasm, mucolytics, prevent infection and psycho social needs.

Mast Cell Stabilizers

Cromolyn (spray): suppresses the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators from mast cells Side effects: minimal, occasional irritation. Nursing Action : spray prevents the symptoms begin 1 week before pollen season starts through out, isolated use prophylactic, may use antihistamine or decongestant.

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