Pharmacology Key Concepts final

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Questions and Answers

Which route of drug administration bypasses the first-pass effect?

  • Intravenous (correct)
  • Oral
  • Sublingual
  • Rectal

An elderly patient's reduced excretion rate will have what affect on dosages?

  • Increased risk of adverse effects (correct)
  • Faster drug clearance
  • Decreased risk of adverse effects
  • Decreased drug concentration in their system

A patient reports taking black cohosh. For which condition is the patient MOST likely self-treating?

  • Nausea
  • Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)
  • Post-menopausal symptoms (correct)
  • Depression

A patient is prescribed acyclovir. For which infection is this medication MOST likely indicated?

<p>Herpes zoster (C)</p>
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A patient with a severe penicillin allergy is prescribed an antibiotic. Which antibiotic should the nurse question?

<p>Cephalexin (A)</p>
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A patient is prescribed efavirenz as part of their HIV treatment. What is the mechanism of action of efavirenz?

<p>Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI) (A)</p>
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A patient is prescribed metronidazole. For which condition is this medication MOST likely indicated?

<p>Vaginal trichomoniasis (C)</p>
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A patient is prescribed tetracycline. What education should the nurse provide regarding the adverse effects of this medication?

<p>Avoid sunlight exposure (A)</p>
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A patient receiving IV vancomycin develops red man syndrome. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action?

<p>Slow the infusion rate and administer antihistamines. (D)</p>
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A patient is prescribed azathioprine. For which condition is this medication MOST likely indicated?

<p>Rheumatoid arthritis (C)</p>
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What are the signs and symptoms of bone marrow suppression?

<p>Fever, fatigue, and bleeding (A)</p>
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A patient is prescribed cyclophosphamide. What adverse effect should the nurse educate the patient about?

<p>Hemorrhagic cystitis (C)</p>
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A patient is prescribed cyclosporine. Which adverse effect requires the MOST immediate intervention?

<p>Organ rejection (B)</p>
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A patient is prescribed doxorubicin. What monitoring parameter will provide the MOST important information regarding a life threatening adverse effect of this drug?

<p>Electrocardiogram (EKG) (A)</p>
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Administration of live vaccines should be avoided in which patient population?

<p>Pregnant patients (C)</p>
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A patient is prescribed tamoxifen. What adverse effect should the nurse educate the patient about?

<p>Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) (D)</p>
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A patient is prescribed vincristine. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

<p>Peripheral neuropathy (D)</p>
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Which medication can be used to treat both alcohol withdrawal symptoms and hypertension?

<p>Clonidine (A)</p>
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A patient with cerebral palsy is prescribed baclofen. What education should the nurse reinforce with this patient?

<p>Taper the medication slowly (B)</p>
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A patient with a history of seizures is considering smoking cessation. Which medication is contraindicated?

<p>Bupropion (A)</p>
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A patient taking ibuprofen chronically is MOST at risk for which adverse effect?

<p>Heartburn (C)</p>
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A patient with Parkinson's disease is prescribed levodopa/carbidopa. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

<p>Confusion, psychosis, hallucinations (A)</p>
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A patient is prescribed sumatriptan for migraines. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

<p>Vasoconstriction (D)</p>
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A patient with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed sumatriptan for migraines. Why is this concerning?

<p>Sumatriptan can cause vasoconstriction. (A)</p>
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A patient is prescribed carbamazepine. What education should the nurse provide regarding adverse effects?

<p>Report any fevers immediately (B)</p>
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A patient is exhibiting extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) while taking chlorpromazine. What signs and symptoms might the nurse observe?

<p>Restlessness, stooped posture, lip movements (D)</p>
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A patient is prescribed clozapine. What laboratory value is MOST important to monitor?

<p>Neutrophils (WBC) (D)</p>
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A patient taking lithium requires ongoing monitoring of which laboratory values?

<p>Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), sodium, BUN/SCr (D)</p>
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A patient is prescribed methylphenidate. What adverse effect requires close monitoring?

<p>Weight loss and insomnia (B)</p>
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A patient taking phenelzine (MAOI) should avoid consuming which foods?

<p>Aged meats and cheeses (A)</p>
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A patient taking phenytoin is MOST at risk for which adverse effect?

<p>Nystagmus (D)</p>
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A patient is prescribed alendronate. What education should the nurse provide regarding administration?

<p>Take with a full glass of water and stay upright for 30 minutes after (D)</p>
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What is the treatment for acute gout?

<p>Colchicine (B)</p>
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A patient is prescribed hydroxychloroquine. Which assessment is MOST important to monitor?

<p>Eye sight (B)</p>
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A female patient is prescribed isotretinoin. What is the MOST important education point?

<p>Negative pregnancy test before administration and monthly (D)</p>
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What is the MOST likely reason for mupirocin to be prescribed?

<p>Impetigo (B)</p>
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Stimulation of which adrenergic receptor results in bronchodilation?

<p>Beta-2 (A)</p>
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A patient with severe bradycardia is MOST likely to be given which medication?

<p>Atropine (B)</p>
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A patient with urinary retention is MOST likely to be given which medication?

<p>Bethanechol (D)</p>
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A patient with malignant hyperthermia is MOST likely to be receiving which medication?

<p>Succinylcholine (B)</p>
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A patient with urge incontinence is MOST likely to be given which medication?

<p>Oxybutynin (D)</p>
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A patient is prescribed glipizide. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

<p>Stimulates the pancreas to release insulin (B)</p>
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A patient is prescribed levothyroxine. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

<p>Palpitations (D)</p>
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A patient is prescribed prednisone. What adverse effect is the patient at risk for with long-term use?

<p>Osteoporosis and infections (D)</p>
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A patient is prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). What laboratory value is MOST important to monitor?

<p>TSH and WBC (A)</p>
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In the context of pharmacokinetics, what process does the acronym 'ADME' represent?

<p>Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion (A)</p>
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A drug's bioavailability is affected by the route of administration. Which route generally leads to the lowest bioavailability?

<p>Oral (D)</p>
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A patient is taking multiple medications, including one that is known to have a narrow therapeutic index. What does this indicate to the healthcare provider?

<p>The drug's dose needs to be carefully adjusted and monitored due to the small difference between its effective and toxic concentrations. (B)</p>
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A patient who is HIV positive is prescribed enfuvirtide. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

<p>Inhibits viral entry into CD4 cells. (B)</p>
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A patient with Clostridium difficile infection is prescribed metronidazole. Which statement best explains how this medication works?

<p>It disrupts the DNA and inhibits nucleic acid synthesis in anaerobic bacteria and protozoa. (A)</p>
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A patient receiving vancomycin IV develops flushing, rash, and pruritus during the infusion. Which action is most appropriate to address these symptoms?

<p>Slow the infusion rate and administer an antihistamine. (A)</p>
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A patient is started on azathioprine for rheumatoid arthritis. What is the primary mechanism by which azathioprine achieves its therapeutic effect?

<p>Inhibiting the production of T and B lymphocytes. (B)</p>
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A patient is receiving cyclophosphamide as part of their chemotherapy regimen. Which instruction is most important to include in the patient's education to minimize a significant adverse effect?

<p>Increase fluid intake and empty the bladder frequently. (C)</p>
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A patient receiving doxorubicin is being monitored for potential cardiotoxicity. Which assessment finding would be of greatest concern and warrant immediate notification of the healthcare provider?

<p>A new S3 heart sound and signs of heart failure. (D)</p>
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Why is it important to avoid live vaccines in immunocompromised patients?

<p>Live vaccines can cause a severe infection in immunocompromised patients. (A)</p>
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A patient is prescribed tamoxifen following treatment for breast cancer. What specific symptom should the patient be educated to promptly report to their healthcare provider?

<p>Unilateral leg swelling, pain, or redness in the calf. (A)</p>
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A patient with glaucoma is prescribed a medication that increases the outflow of aqueous humor. Which medication is MOST likely prescribed?

<p>Latanoprost (A)</p>
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A patient is receiving morphine for pain management. The nurse assesses the patient and finds them somnolent with a respiratory rate of 8. Which medication would the nurse anticipate administering?

<p>Naloxone (A)</p>
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A patient is prescribed bupropion for smoking cessation. Why is it essential to review the patient's medical history before initiating this medication?

<p>Bupropion is contraindicated in patients with a history of seizures. (B)</p>
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A patient taking levodopa/carbidopa for Parkinson's disease is experiencing visual hallucinations. What is the MOST appropriate initial nursing intervention?

<p>Notify the healthcare provider to discuss potential dosage adjustments. (C)</p>
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A patient with a history of migraines is prescribed sumatriptan. How does sumatriptan alleviate migraine symptoms?

<p>By causing vasoconstriction of intracranial blood vessels. (D)</p>
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A patient prescribed carbamazepine for seizures reports a persistent sore throat and fever. What is the MOST appropriate action for the nurse to take?

<p>Immediately report the symptoms to the healthcare provider. (C)</p>
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Which of the following findings would be most indicative of lithium toxicity?

<p>Hyponatremia, tremors, and confusion (A)</p>
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A patient taking phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), is educated about dietary restrictions. Which meal choice indicates that the patient understands these restrictions?

<p>Grilled chicken salad with a vinaigrette dressing. (C)</p>
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What information should be included when providing instructions to a patient about taking alendronate for osteoporosis?

<p>Take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for 30 minutes. (D)</p>
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A patient is prescribed hydroxychloroquine for rheumatoid arthritis. What adverse effect requires regular monitoring?

<p>Ophthalmologic function (C)</p>
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Stimulation of beta-1 adrenergic receptors primarily results in which physiological effect?

<p>Increased heart rate and contractility (C)</p>
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A patient is prescribed bethanechol. The nurse recognizes that this medication is most likely indicated for what condition?

<p>Urinary retention (A)</p>
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Which medication is MOST associated with the risk of developing malignant hyperthermia?

<p>Succinylcholine (A)</p>
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A patient is prescribed oxybutynin. The nurse understands that this medication is used primarily to treat which condition?

<p>Urge incontinence (B)</p>
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A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed glipizide. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

<p>It stimulates the pancreas to secrete more insulin. (C)</p>
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Which of the following adverse effects is MOST associated with long-term prednisone use?

<p>Increased risk of infection (B)</p>
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A patient experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI) is receiving alteplase. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

<p>Dissolving existing blood clots. (A)</p>
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A patient who is receiving filgrastim is expected to demonstrate which therapeutic effect?

<p>Increased white blood cell count (D)</p>
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When administering heparin, which laboratory value is MOST important for the nurse to monitor?

<p>Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (D)</p>
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A patient is prescribed atorvastatin. The patient should be instructed to immediately report which adverse effect?

<p>Muscle pain or weakness (C)</p>
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A patient is taking cholestyramine for hyperlipidemia. To minimize a common adverse effect and potential drug interaction, what should the nurse teach the patient?

<p>Take cholestyramine 1 hour before or 4-6 hours after other medications. (C)</p>
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A patient is prescribed diltiazem for the treatment of hypertension. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

<p>Calcium channel blockade (C)</p>
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A patient is prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets for angina. What instruction regarding the administration of nitroglycerin should the nurse include in the patient teaching?

<p>Take up to three tablets 5 minutes apart if chest pain is not relieved. (A)</p>
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A patient taking ramipril for hypertension develops a persistent, dry cough. What is the MOST likely cause of this adverse effect?

<p>Increased bradykinin levels (C)</p>
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A patient is prescribed furosemide. The nurse knows to monitor for which electrolyte imbalance?

<p>Hypokalemia (C)</p>
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A patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is prescribed mannitol. By what mechanism does mannitol decrease ICP?

<p>Drawing fluid from the brain tissue into the bloodstream. (A)</p>
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A patient is prescribed albuterol via metered-dose inhaler for asthma. What is the primary mechanism of action of albuterol in treating asthma symptoms?

<p>Dilating the bronchioles in the lungs. (B)</p>
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A patient is prescribed beclomethasone inhaler for asthma. What education should the nurse provide?

<p>Rinse your mouth out with water after each use. (A)</p>
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A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease is prescribed triple therapy. What medications are included in the triple therapy protocol?

<p>Proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin (A)</p>
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A patient is prescribed sucralfate for the treatment of a duodenal ulcer. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

<p>Forms a protective barrier over the ulcer. (A)</p>
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A patient's medication regimen includes multiple drugs, some of which are highly protein-bound. What pharmacokinetic process could be affected by this fact?

<p>Distribution (A)</p>
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Why do physiological changes in elderly patients require careful consideration by a healthcare provider?

<p>Reduced excretion rates require lower doses to prevent drug accumulation. (A)</p>
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A patient taking lopinavir should be educated on which mechanism of action?

<p>Protease Inhibitor (C)</p>
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A patient has been prescribed azathioprine. What would be an appropriate education topic for this patient?

<p>Avoiding crowds and people who are sick. (C)</p>
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A patient is receiving doxorubicin as part of their chemotherapy regimen. The nurse would be concerned about which of the following EKG changes?

<p>Prolonged QT interval (B)</p>
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A patient is prescribed tamoxifen following surgical removal of a malignant breast tumor. What is the MOST important adverse effect to monitor for?

<p>Unilateral leg swelling (D)</p>
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A patient prescribed levodopa/carbidopa for Parkinson's disease reports experiencing hallucinations. After consulting with the provider, what intervention is implemented?

<p>Administer a second-generation antipsychotic like quetiapine. (A)</p>
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A patient taking lithium is also prescribed furosemide for hypertension management. What potential interaction should the nurse monitor for?

<p>Increased risk of lithium toxicity (D)</p>
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Several days after starting allopurinol for gout prophylaxis, a client reports an increase in gout flares. What instruction should the nurse give the client?

<p>Continue taking allopurinol as prescribed; flares may increase initially. (B)</p>
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A patient is about to receive succinylcholine as part of a surgical procedure. What is important for the nurse to assess for?

<p>Personal or family history of malignant hyperthermia (B)</p>
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Flashcards

Bioavailability

The amount of drug that reaches the bloodstream after administration.

Pharmacokinetics

Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs in the body.

Enteral Route

Oral, sublingual, buccal, NG tube and rectal routes of administration.

Parenteral Route

IV, IM, SubQ, ID, epidural routes of administration.

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Black Cohosh Indications

Post-menopause symptoms.

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Echinacea Indications

Increased immunity and prevention of infection.

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Ginger Indications

Nausea, motion sickness, and morning sickness.

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Saw Palmetto Indications

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

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St. John's Wort Indications

Depression

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Acyclovir Indications

Herpes Simplex Virus, Varicella, Herpes Zoster

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Cephalexin Special Considerations

Avoid in patients with severe Penicillin allergies

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Efavirenz MOA

Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

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Enfuvirtide MOA

Entry inhibitor

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Lopinavir MOA

Protease Inhibitor

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Metronidazole MOA

Anti-protozoal and antibiotic

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Metronidazole Indications

Protozoal infections, C. diff., H. pylori

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Nystatin Indications

Oral thrush/candidiasis

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Tetracycline Considerations

Avoid sunlight d/t photosensitivity, monitor for skin rashes

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Vancomycin Adverse Effects

Red man syndrome, ototoxic

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Azathioprine Indications

Management of Crohn's, RA, Lupus, ulcerative colitis, autoimmune diseases

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Bone Marrow Suppression S/Sx

Fever, fatigue, bleeding/bruising, pin prick spots on arms

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Cyclophosphamide Adverse Effects

Hemorrhagic cystitis, monitor for blood in urine

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Cyclosporine Adverse Effects

Myelosuppression, organ rejection, HTN, Lymphoma

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Doxorubicin Adverse Effects

Heart failure, monitor EKG

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Interferon Beta Indications

Hepatitis B

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Live Vaccines

Rotavirus, MMR, Varicella. Avoid in immunocompromised pts

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Rhogam Use

Prevent maternal antibodies from forming an immune response to the fetus

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Tamoxifen Adverse Effects

DVT (blood clots), monitor pain/redness/swelling in calf area.

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Vincristine Adverse Effects

Peripheral neuropathy

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Alcohol Withdrawal Treatment

Clonidine, Diazepam/lorazepam

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Baclofen Indications

Manage cerebral palsy

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Bupropion Indications

Smoking cessation, manage depression

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Diazepam Indications

Anxiety, px seizures associated with alcohol withdrawal

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Ibuprofen Adverse Effects

Heartburn sx d/t PUD

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Levodopa/carbidopa Indications

Parkinson's disease

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Opioid Adverse Effects

Myosis, Sedation, Respiratory depression, Pruritis, Hypotension, Infrequency, Nausea, Emesis/Euphoria

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Sumatriptan MOA

Vasoconstriction

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Phenelzine Contraindications

Avoid stimulants d/t HTN crisis, avoid other antidepressants d/t serotonin syndrome

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IV vs. Oral Bioavailability

IV administration results in 100% of the drug reaching the bloodstream, while oral administration is less than 100% due to factors like absorption and first-pass metabolism.

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Elderly Physiological Changes

As people age, their excretion rate usually decreases, potentially leading to drugs staying in their bodies longer and increasing the risk of adverse effects.

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Ideal Therapeutic Index

The ideal drug has a wide therapeutic window, indicating a large difference between the effective and toxic doses.

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Metoprolol MOA

Blocks the stimulation of receptors by norepinephrine and epinephrine, reducing heart rate and blood pressure.

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Nitroglycerin Indications

Dilates blood vessels to relieve chest pain (angina).

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Nitroglycerin Adverse Effects

Adverse effects include dizziness and hypotension.

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Ramipril Indications

ACE inhibitor used to lower blood pressure.

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Ramipril Adverse Effects

Dry cough, angioedema, and hyperkalemia.

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Furosemide MOA

Loop diuretic that inhibits reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the loop of Henle, leading to increased urine output.

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Furosemide Adverse Effects

Hypokalemia and ototoxicity.

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Hydrochlorothiazide MOA

Thiazide diuretic that decreases potassium levels.

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Hydrochlorothiazide Contraindication

Contraindicated in patients with a sulfa allergy.

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Mannitol Indications

Used to reduce intracranial pressure (ICP) and intraocular pressure (IOP) by promoting osmotic diuresis.

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Mannitol Monitoring

Monitor electrolytes, especially potassium.

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Potassium Chloride Indications

Used to increase potassium levels in patients with hypokalemia.

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Potassium Chloride Special Considerations

Monitor EKG if administered IV, and never administer IV push.

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Furosemide Adverse Effects

Loop Diuretic Adverse Effects: Hypokalemia, Ototoxicity (tinnitus)

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Sodium Bicarbonate Indications

Used to lower high potassium levels by shifting potassium into cells.

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Spironolactone Indications

Used to increase potassium levels and is a potassium-sparing diuretic.

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Spironolactone Adverse Effect

Hyperkalemia.

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Mucomyst

Acetylcysteine Indications

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Albuterol Indications

Rescue inhaler for acute asthma exacerbations.

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Diphenhydramine Adverse Effect

Sedation.

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Fexofenadine Adverse Effect

Little to no sedation.

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Phenylephrine Considerations

A nasal decongestant that should only be used for 3-5 days to prevent rebound congestion.

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Latanoprost MOA

Increases outflow of aqueous humor.

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Metoclopramide Indications

Gastric reflux and vertigo.

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Metoclopramide Contraindication

Parkinson's disease, due to dopamine-blocking effects.

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Metoclopramide Adverse Effects

Parkinson's-like side effects.

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Omeprazole MOA

Proton pump inhibitor that reduces acid production in the stomach.

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Ondansetron Indications

Chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.

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Ondansetron Adverse Effect

Prolonged QT intervals.

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Orlistat Adverse Effect

Oily stool.

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Peptic Ulcer Disease Triple Therapy

Proton pump inhibitor, Amoxicillin, Clarithromycin.

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Sucralfate MOA

Forms a protective coating over ulcers in the stomach.

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Sucralfate Dosing

Take 3-4 times a day.

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Betamethasone Injection Indications

Mature fetal lungs in preterm labor.

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Clomiphene Indications

Infertility treatment.

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Clomiphene Adverse Effect

Multiple births (twins/triplets).

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Estrogen Indications

Menopausal symptoms and prevention of osteoporosis.

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Estrogen Contraindication

History of breast cancer.

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Finasteride Indications

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia.

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Magnesium Sulfate Indications & Adverse Effects

Preterm labor, eclampsia, asthma, dysrhythmias. If dose too high muscle weakness, respiratory failure.

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Misoprostol Indications

Induce labor and protect against GERD-induced gastric ulcers.

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Misoprostol Contraindication

Pregnancy if used for GERD prevention.

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Oxytocin Indications

Inducing or enhancing labor contractions.

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Progesterone Indications

Menopausal symptoms and endometriosis.

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Study Notes

Key Concepts

  • Bioavailability refers to the amount of a drug that reaches the bloodstream after administration.
    • IV administration has 100% bioavailability.
    • Oral administration has less than 100% bioavailability.
  • Pharmacokinetics involves the four phases of drug movement within the body: absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion (ADME).
    • ADME is the order of the four phases.
  • In elderly patients, excretion rates decrease, leading to a higher risk of adverse effects due to drug accumulation; starting doses should be low and increased slowly.
  • The ideal therapeutic index for a drug is wide.

Routes of Administration

  • Enteral routes include oral, sublingual, buccal, NG tube, and rectal.
    • They are associated with the first-pass effect, gastric irritation, slow effect, and decreased bioavailability.
  • Parenteral routes include IV, IM, SubQ, ID, and epidural.
    • They have 100% bioavailability and no first-pass effect.
  • Topical routes include transdermal, eye, ear, and vaginal.
  • Inhalation routes include vaporization, gas inhalation, and nebulization.

Herbal Supplements

  • Black cohosh is indicated for post-menopausal symptoms.
  • Echinacea is used to increase immunity and prevent infection.
  • Ginger is indicated for nausea, motion sickness, and morning sickness.
  • Saw palmetto is indicated for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).
  • St. John’s wort is used for depression.

Antibiotics, Antifungals, and Antivirals

  • Acyclovir is indicated for herpes simplex virus (HSV), varicella, and herpes zoster.
  • Cephalexin should be avoided in patients with severe penicillin allergies.
  • Efavirenz's mechanism of action (MOA) is as a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI).
  • Enfuvirtide's MOA is as an entry inhibitor.
  • Lopinavir's MOA is as a protease inhibitor.
  • Metronidazole functions as an anti-protozoal and antibiotic, indicated for protozoal infections such as vaginal trichomoniasis, Clostridium difficile, and Helicobacter pylori.
  • Nystatin is indicated for oral thrush/candidiasis.
  • Patients taking tetracycline should avoid sunlight due to photosensitivity and be monitored for skin rashes.
  • Vancomycin, an IV antibiotic, can cause red man syndrome and is ototoxic (ringing in ears); peak and trough levels, BUN/SCr, hearing acuity, and infusion reactions should be monitored.

Immunomodulators and Antineoplastic Agents

  • Azathioprine is used for the management of Crohn's disease, rheumatoid arthritis (RA), lupus, ulcerative colitis, and other autoimmune diseases.
  • Bone marrow suppression can cause fever, fatigue, bleeding/bruising, and petechiae; medications like carbamazepine and cyclosporine are potential causes.
  • Cyclophosphamide can cause hemorrhagic cystitis, and patients should be monitored for blood in the urine.
  • Cyclosporine can cause myelosuppression, organ rejection, hypertension (HTN), and lymphoma.
  • Doxorubicin can cause heart failure; EKG monitoring is necessary.
  • Interferon beta is an immunostimulant used to treat hepatitis B.
  • Live vaccines, such as rotavirus, MMR, and varicella, should be avoided in immunocompromised patients (pregnant, chemo, etc.).
  • Rhogam is given to pregnant patients at 28 weeks to prevent maternal antibodies from forming an immune response to the fetus.
  • Tamoxifen can cause deep vein thrombosis (DVT); patients should be monitored for pain/redness/swelling in the calf area with unilateral leg swelling.
  • Vincristine can cause peripheral neuropathy.

Pain, Inflammation, Substance Abuse, and Neurodegenerative Disorders

  • Alcohol withdrawal can be treated with clonidine (also for decreasing blood pressure) and diazepam/lorazepam for seizures.
  • Baclofen is used to manage cerebral palsy and should be tapered slowly to avoid seizures if stopped abruptly.
  • Bupropion is used for smoking cessation and depression management but is contraindicated in patients with a history of seizures.
  • Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and to manage/prevent seizures associated with alcohol withdrawal.
  • Ibuprofen can cause heartburn due to peptic ulcer disease (PUD).
  • Levodopa/carbidopa is used for Parkinson's disease but can cause confusion, psychosis, and hallucinations.
  • Opioids can cause myosis, sedation, respiratory depression, pruritus, hypotension, constipation, urinary retention, nausea, emesis/euphoria (MORPHINE mnemonic).
  • Smoking cessation can be treated with bupropion and varenicline to help with cravings, and clonidine to manage hypertension symptoms associated with withdrawal.
  • Sumatriptan, a vasoconstrictor, is used for migraines but is contraindicated in patients with a history of myocardial infarction (MI); angina should be reported immediately.

Mental Health Drugs

  • Carbamazepine, an anti-epileptic and mood stabilizer, can cause myelosuppression; patients should report any fevers immediately.
  • Chlorpromazine, a first-generation antipsychotic, can cause extrapyramidal symptoms like restlessness and stooped posture.
  • Clozapine requires monitoring of complete blood count (CBC) and neutrophil levels.
  • Extrapyramidal symptoms include dystonia, parkinsonism, akathisia, restlessness, and tardive dyskinesia (DPART).
    • DPART = Dystonia, Parkinsonism's, Akathisia, Restlessness, Tardive dyskinesia
    • Dystonia: involuntary muscle contractions
    • Parkinsonism's: stooped posture
    • Akathisia: Pacing, rocking
    • Tardive dyskinesia: lip/tongue smacking, chewing motion
  • Lithium requires monitoring of TSH, Na, BUN/SCr.
  • Methylphenidate can cause weight loss, insomnia, and tachycardia; weight, sleep, and heart rate should be monitored.
  • Phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), is contraindicated with aged meats and cheeses, stimulants (due to hypertensive crisis risk), and other antidepressants (due to serotonin syndrome risk).
  • Phenytoin, an anti-epileptic, can cause nystagmus (rapid eye movement).

Bone and Skin Disorders

  • Alendronate, for osteoporosis, requires monitoring for jaw changes (bone density); it should be taken with a full glass of water, and the patient should remain upright for 30 minutes due to risk of esophageal issues.
  • Colchicine is used for acute gout treatment, secondary to NSAIDs.
  • Acute gout is treated with colchicine, while prophylaxis involves allopurinol.
  • Hydroxychloroquine is used for rheumatoid arthritis and lupus; eyesight should be monitored with eye doctor visits every 6 months.
  • Isotretinoin requires monitoring of liver function tests (LFTs), total cholesterol, and mood for suicidal ideations; females need a negative pregnancy test before administration and monthly.
  • Mupirocin is used for impetigo.

Adrenergic and Cholinergic Drugs

  • Alpha-1 adrenergic receptors cause vasoconstriction.
  • Alpha-2 adrenergic receptors inhibit norepinephrine (NE) release.
  • Beta-1 adrenergic receptors increase heart rate.
  • Beta-2 adrenergic receptors cause bronchodilation in the lungs.
  • Atropine is indicated for excessive oral secretion, organophosphate poisoning, severe bradycardia, and as a reversal agent for cholinergic crisis; adverse effects are DUCCT (dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation, confusion, tachycardia).
  • Bethanechol is used for urinary retention but can cause wheezing.
  • Epinephrine can cause pupil dilation, tachycardia, hyperglycemia, and decreased bladder contractions.
  • Malignant hyperthermia is a risk with succinylcholine.
  • Norepinephrine causes vasoconstriction and increases blood pressure.
  • Oxybutynin is used for urge incontinence.
  • Succinylcholine is used for short surgical procedures and muscle paralysis but can cause malignant hyperthermia (symptoms include fevers, increased HR, and sweating).
  • Sympathetic stimulation causes pupil dilation, increased heart rate, bronchiole dilation, increased glycogen to glucose conversion, sweating, decreased digestive activities, vaginal contractions, and bladder relaxation.

Endocrine Drugs

  • Glipizide stimulates the pancreas to release insulin and can cause hypoglycemia.
  • Lispro and Aspart insulin have a 15-30 minute onset, 30-2.5 hour peak, and 3-6 hour duration; administer before meals (ac).
  • Regular insulin has a 30-60 minute onset, 1-5 hour peak, and 6-10 hour duration; administer before meals (ac).
  • Intermediate NPH insulin has a 1-2 hour onset, 6-14 hour peak, and 16-24 hour duration; administer once or twice daily (QD/BID).
  • Glargine/Detemir insulin has a 70 minute onset, no peak, and 18-24 hour duration; administer once daily (QD).
  • Levothyroxine is for hypothyroidism but can cause osteoporosis, hyperthyroidism, and cardiovascular disease; if the dose is too high, palpitations, tremors, and tachycardia may occur, and a feeling of being hot.
  • Metformin, for type 2 diabetes, can cause GI upset and diarrhea.
  • Prednisone, a steroid, can cause hyperglycemia and, with long-term use, increased risk of osteoporosis and infections including fungal infections.
  • Propylthiouracil, an antithyroid drug, can cause agranulocytosis; TSH and WBC should be monitored for signs of infection.
    • Used in adjunct with methimazole to tx hyperthyroidism

Blood Thinners, Hematopoietic Agents, and Blood Products

  • Alteplase is a fibrinolytic used to break up clots in MI, stroke, and blocked catheters.
  • Oprelvekin is used to increase platelets.
  • Erythropoietin is used to increase RBC production.
  • Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet used to prevent future MI.
  • Filgrastim is used to increase neutrophils in patients with low WBC.
  • Heparin requires monitoring of aPTT; protamine is the antidote, and CBC should be used to monitor for thrombocytopenia.
  • Warfarin requires monitoring of INR; vitamin K or fresh frozen plasma is the antidote.

Cardiovascular Drugs

  • Atorvastatin is used to lower LDL but can cause muscle pain, hepatitis, and elevated LFTs.
  • Cholestyramine lowers cholesterol but decreases absorption of vitamins KADE and causes GI upset.
    • Educate pt to increase KADE intake, don't take w/ other meds d/t preventing absorption
  • Digoxin can cause vomiting and visual halos; hold if HR < 60; Digoxin toxicity includes anorexia, palpitations, fatal arrhythmias, N/V, halos.
  • Diltiazem (similar to verapamil) is a non-DHP calcium channel blocker that decreases HR; hold if HR < 60.
  • Metoprolol is a beta blocker that decreases HR.
  • Nitroglycerin is used for angina and can cause dizziness and hypotension.
  • Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor used for lowering BP but can cause a dry cough, angioedema, and hyperkalemia.

Diuretics, IV Fluids, and Antidotes

  • Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause hypokalemia and ototoxicity (tinnitus).
  • Hydrochlorothiazide, a thiazide diuretic, decreases potassium and is contraindicated in patients with sulfa allergies.
  • Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used for increased intracranial pressure (ICP) / intraocular pressure (IOP); electrolytes, and K levels should be monitored.
  • Potassium chloride is used to increase potassium levels; do not administer IV push and monitor EKG if IV drip.
  • Sodium bicarbonate is used to lower high potassium levels.
  • Spironolactone is used to increase potassium levels; it can cause hyperkalemia.

Respiratory Drugs

  • Acetylcysteine is used for acetaminophen overdose, cystic fibrosis as a mucolytic, and pre-contrast renal protection.
  • Albuterol is a rescue inhaler for acute asthma exacerbation.
  • First-generation antihistamines (diphenhydramine) cause sedation.
  • Second-generation antihistamines (fexofenadine) cause little to no sedation.
  • Acute asthma exacerbation is treated with albuterol.
  • Beclomethasone inhaler is an inhaled steroid for asthma; patients should rinse their mouth out after use to prevent thrush.
  • Diphenhydramine (1st gen antihistamine) causes sedation.
  • Fexofenadine (2nd gen antihistamine) causes little to no sedation and should be started 3-4 days before allergy season.
  • Phenylephrine is used for nasal congestion for only 3-5 days to avoid rebound nasal congestion.

Eye and Ear Disorders

  • Ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone ear drops are used for otitis externa.
  • During eye drop administration, hands should be washed before and after; the eye dropper should not touch the eye, and pressure should be applied on the nasal side of the eye.
  • Latanoprost increases the outflow of aqueous humor (AH) and is used for open-angle glaucoma.
  • Otitis externa is treated with ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone.

Gastrointestinal Medications

  • Metoclopramide is used for gastric reflux and vertigo but is contraindicated in Parkinson's disease and can cause Parkinson's-like side effects.
  • Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that decreases the amount of acid pumped into the stomach.
  • Ondansetron is used for chemotherapy-induced nausea/vomiting and can cause prolonged QT intervals, which require EKG monitoring.
  • Orlistat, a weight loss drug, can cause oily stool.
  • Peptic ulcer disease triple therapy includes omeprazole, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin.
  • Sucralfate forms a sugary coating to line the stomach and should be taken 3-4 times a day.

Reproductive Drugs

  • Betamethasone injection is used in premature labor to mature the fetal lungs.
  • Clomiphene is used for infertility but can cause multiple births (twins/triplets).
  • Estrogens are used for menopausal symptoms, acne, and to prevent osteoporosis but are contraindicated in patients with a history of breast cancer.
  • Finasteride is used for BPH.
  • Magnesium sulfate is used for preterm labor, eclampsia (HTN), asthma, and dysrhythmias; if the dose is too high, it can cause muscle weakness.
  • Misoprostol is used to induce labor and to prevent gastric ulcers caused by GERD but is contraindicated in pregnancy if used for GERD.
  • Oxytocin is used to induce labor and enhance labor contractions.
  • Progesterone is used for menopausal symptoms and endometriosis but can cause breakthrough bleeding.
  • Sildenafil is used for erectile dysfunction (ED) and pulmonary hypertension but is contraindicated with nitroglycerin use (due to fatal hypotension); it can cause hypotension and visual changes; avoid grapefruit.
  • Tamsulosin, an alpha-1 blocker, causes vasodilation and is used for BPH; it can cause orthostatic hypotension (dizziness upon standing), hypotension, and dizziness.
  • Terbutaline is used for asthma but can cause palpitations.
  • Testosterone can cause acne and aggression.

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