Podcast
Questions and Answers
Which route of drug administration bypasses the first-pass effect?
Which route of drug administration bypasses the first-pass effect?
- Intravenous (correct)
- Oral
- Sublingual
- Rectal
An elderly patient's reduced excretion rate will have what affect on dosages?
An elderly patient's reduced excretion rate will have what affect on dosages?
- Increased risk of adverse effects (correct)
- Faster drug clearance
- Decreased risk of adverse effects
- Decreased drug concentration in their system
A patient reports taking black cohosh. For which condition is the patient MOST likely self-treating?
A patient reports taking black cohosh. For which condition is the patient MOST likely self-treating?
- Nausea
- Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)
- Post-menopausal symptoms (correct)
- Depression
A patient is prescribed acyclovir. For which infection is this medication MOST likely indicated?
A patient is prescribed acyclovir. For which infection is this medication MOST likely indicated?
A patient with a severe penicillin allergy is prescribed an antibiotic. Which antibiotic should the nurse question?
A patient with a severe penicillin allergy is prescribed an antibiotic. Which antibiotic should the nurse question?
A patient is prescribed efavirenz as part of their HIV treatment. What is the mechanism of action of efavirenz?
A patient is prescribed efavirenz as part of their HIV treatment. What is the mechanism of action of efavirenz?
A patient is prescribed metronidazole. For which condition is this medication MOST likely indicated?
A patient is prescribed metronidazole. For which condition is this medication MOST likely indicated?
A patient is prescribed tetracycline. What education should the nurse provide regarding the adverse effects of this medication?
A patient is prescribed tetracycline. What education should the nurse provide regarding the adverse effects of this medication?
A patient receiving IV vancomycin develops red man syndrome. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action?
A patient receiving IV vancomycin develops red man syndrome. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action?
A patient is prescribed azathioprine. For which condition is this medication MOST likely indicated?
A patient is prescribed azathioprine. For which condition is this medication MOST likely indicated?
What are the signs and symptoms of bone marrow suppression?
What are the signs and symptoms of bone marrow suppression?
A patient is prescribed cyclophosphamide. What adverse effect should the nurse educate the patient about?
A patient is prescribed cyclophosphamide. What adverse effect should the nurse educate the patient about?
A patient is prescribed cyclosporine. Which adverse effect requires the MOST immediate intervention?
A patient is prescribed cyclosporine. Which adverse effect requires the MOST immediate intervention?
A patient is prescribed doxorubicin. What monitoring parameter will provide the MOST important information regarding a life threatening adverse effect of this drug?
A patient is prescribed doxorubicin. What monitoring parameter will provide the MOST important information regarding a life threatening adverse effect of this drug?
Administration of live vaccines should be avoided in which patient population?
Administration of live vaccines should be avoided in which patient population?
A patient is prescribed tamoxifen. What adverse effect should the nurse educate the patient about?
A patient is prescribed tamoxifen. What adverse effect should the nurse educate the patient about?
A patient is prescribed vincristine. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?
A patient is prescribed vincristine. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?
Which medication can be used to treat both alcohol withdrawal symptoms and hypertension?
Which medication can be used to treat both alcohol withdrawal symptoms and hypertension?
A patient with cerebral palsy is prescribed baclofen. What education should the nurse reinforce with this patient?
A patient with cerebral palsy is prescribed baclofen. What education should the nurse reinforce with this patient?
A patient with a history of seizures is considering smoking cessation. Which medication is contraindicated?
A patient with a history of seizures is considering smoking cessation. Which medication is contraindicated?
A patient taking ibuprofen chronically is MOST at risk for which adverse effect?
A patient taking ibuprofen chronically is MOST at risk for which adverse effect?
A patient with Parkinson's disease is prescribed levodopa/carbidopa. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?
A patient with Parkinson's disease is prescribed levodopa/carbidopa. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?
A patient is prescribed sumatriptan for migraines. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
A patient is prescribed sumatriptan for migraines. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
A patient with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed sumatriptan for migraines. Why is this concerning?
A patient with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed sumatriptan for migraines. Why is this concerning?
A patient is prescribed carbamazepine. What education should the nurse provide regarding adverse effects?
A patient is prescribed carbamazepine. What education should the nurse provide regarding adverse effects?
A patient is exhibiting extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) while taking chlorpromazine. What signs and symptoms might the nurse observe?
A patient is exhibiting extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) while taking chlorpromazine. What signs and symptoms might the nurse observe?
A patient is prescribed clozapine. What laboratory value is MOST important to monitor?
A patient is prescribed clozapine. What laboratory value is MOST important to monitor?
A patient taking lithium requires ongoing monitoring of which laboratory values?
A patient taking lithium requires ongoing monitoring of which laboratory values?
A patient is prescribed methylphenidate. What adverse effect requires close monitoring?
A patient is prescribed methylphenidate. What adverse effect requires close monitoring?
A patient taking phenelzine (MAOI) should avoid consuming which foods?
A patient taking phenelzine (MAOI) should avoid consuming which foods?
A patient taking phenytoin is MOST at risk for which adverse effect?
A patient taking phenytoin is MOST at risk for which adverse effect?
A patient is prescribed alendronate. What education should the nurse provide regarding administration?
A patient is prescribed alendronate. What education should the nurse provide regarding administration?
What is the treatment for acute gout?
What is the treatment for acute gout?
A patient is prescribed hydroxychloroquine. Which assessment is MOST important to monitor?
A patient is prescribed hydroxychloroquine. Which assessment is MOST important to monitor?
A female patient is prescribed isotretinoin. What is the MOST important education point?
A female patient is prescribed isotretinoin. What is the MOST important education point?
What is the MOST likely reason for mupirocin to be prescribed?
What is the MOST likely reason for mupirocin to be prescribed?
Stimulation of which adrenergic receptor results in bronchodilation?
Stimulation of which adrenergic receptor results in bronchodilation?
A patient with severe bradycardia is MOST likely to be given which medication?
A patient with severe bradycardia is MOST likely to be given which medication?
A patient with urinary retention is MOST likely to be given which medication?
A patient with urinary retention is MOST likely to be given which medication?
A patient with malignant hyperthermia is MOST likely to be receiving which medication?
A patient with malignant hyperthermia is MOST likely to be receiving which medication?
A patient with urge incontinence is MOST likely to be given which medication?
A patient with urge incontinence is MOST likely to be given which medication?
A patient is prescribed glipizide. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
A patient is prescribed glipizide. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
A patient is prescribed levothyroxine. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?
A patient is prescribed levothyroxine. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?
A patient is prescribed prednisone. What adverse effect is the patient at risk for with long-term use?
A patient is prescribed prednisone. What adverse effect is the patient at risk for with long-term use?
A patient is prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). What laboratory value is MOST important to monitor?
A patient is prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). What laboratory value is MOST important to monitor?
In the context of pharmacokinetics, what process does the acronym 'ADME' represent?
In the context of pharmacokinetics, what process does the acronym 'ADME' represent?
A drug's bioavailability is affected by the route of administration. Which route generally leads to the lowest bioavailability?
A drug's bioavailability is affected by the route of administration. Which route generally leads to the lowest bioavailability?
A patient is taking multiple medications, including one that is known to have a narrow therapeutic index. What does this indicate to the healthcare provider?
A patient is taking multiple medications, including one that is known to have a narrow therapeutic index. What does this indicate to the healthcare provider?
A patient who is HIV positive is prescribed enfuvirtide. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?
A patient who is HIV positive is prescribed enfuvirtide. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?
A patient with Clostridium difficile infection is prescribed metronidazole. Which statement best explains how this medication works?
A patient with Clostridium difficile infection is prescribed metronidazole. Which statement best explains how this medication works?
A patient receiving vancomycin IV develops flushing, rash, and pruritus during the infusion. Which action is most appropriate to address these symptoms?
A patient receiving vancomycin IV develops flushing, rash, and pruritus during the infusion. Which action is most appropriate to address these symptoms?
A patient is started on azathioprine for rheumatoid arthritis. What is the primary mechanism by which azathioprine achieves its therapeutic effect?
A patient is started on azathioprine for rheumatoid arthritis. What is the primary mechanism by which azathioprine achieves its therapeutic effect?
A patient is receiving cyclophosphamide as part of their chemotherapy regimen. Which instruction is most important to include in the patient's education to minimize a significant adverse effect?
A patient is receiving cyclophosphamide as part of their chemotherapy regimen. Which instruction is most important to include in the patient's education to minimize a significant adverse effect?
A patient receiving doxorubicin is being monitored for potential cardiotoxicity. Which assessment finding would be of greatest concern and warrant immediate notification of the healthcare provider?
A patient receiving doxorubicin is being monitored for potential cardiotoxicity. Which assessment finding would be of greatest concern and warrant immediate notification of the healthcare provider?
Why is it important to avoid live vaccines in immunocompromised patients?
Why is it important to avoid live vaccines in immunocompromised patients?
A patient is prescribed tamoxifen following treatment for breast cancer. What specific symptom should the patient be educated to promptly report to their healthcare provider?
A patient is prescribed tamoxifen following treatment for breast cancer. What specific symptom should the patient be educated to promptly report to their healthcare provider?
A patient with glaucoma is prescribed a medication that increases the outflow of aqueous humor. Which medication is MOST likely prescribed?
A patient with glaucoma is prescribed a medication that increases the outflow of aqueous humor. Which medication is MOST likely prescribed?
A patient is receiving morphine for pain management. The nurse assesses the patient and finds them somnolent with a respiratory rate of 8. Which medication would the nurse anticipate administering?
A patient is receiving morphine for pain management. The nurse assesses the patient and finds them somnolent with a respiratory rate of 8. Which medication would the nurse anticipate administering?
A patient is prescribed bupropion for smoking cessation. Why is it essential to review the patient's medical history before initiating this medication?
A patient is prescribed bupropion for smoking cessation. Why is it essential to review the patient's medical history before initiating this medication?
A patient taking levodopa/carbidopa for Parkinson's disease is experiencing visual hallucinations. What is the MOST appropriate initial nursing intervention?
A patient taking levodopa/carbidopa for Parkinson's disease is experiencing visual hallucinations. What is the MOST appropriate initial nursing intervention?
A patient with a history of migraines is prescribed sumatriptan. How does sumatriptan alleviate migraine symptoms?
A patient with a history of migraines is prescribed sumatriptan. How does sumatriptan alleviate migraine symptoms?
A patient prescribed carbamazepine for seizures reports a persistent sore throat and fever. What is the MOST appropriate action for the nurse to take?
A patient prescribed carbamazepine for seizures reports a persistent sore throat and fever. What is the MOST appropriate action for the nurse to take?
Which of the following findings would be most indicative of lithium toxicity?
Which of the following findings would be most indicative of lithium toxicity?
A patient taking phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), is educated about dietary restrictions. Which meal choice indicates that the patient understands these restrictions?
A patient taking phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), is educated about dietary restrictions. Which meal choice indicates that the patient understands these restrictions?
What information should be included when providing instructions to a patient about taking alendronate for osteoporosis?
What information should be included when providing instructions to a patient about taking alendronate for osteoporosis?
A patient is prescribed hydroxychloroquine for rheumatoid arthritis. What adverse effect requires regular monitoring?
A patient is prescribed hydroxychloroquine for rheumatoid arthritis. What adverse effect requires regular monitoring?
Stimulation of beta-1 adrenergic receptors primarily results in which physiological effect?
Stimulation of beta-1 adrenergic receptors primarily results in which physiological effect?
A patient is prescribed bethanechol. The nurse recognizes that this medication is most likely indicated for what condition?
A patient is prescribed bethanechol. The nurse recognizes that this medication is most likely indicated for what condition?
Which medication is MOST associated with the risk of developing malignant hyperthermia?
Which medication is MOST associated with the risk of developing malignant hyperthermia?
A patient is prescribed oxybutynin. The nurse understands that this medication is used primarily to treat which condition?
A patient is prescribed oxybutynin. The nurse understands that this medication is used primarily to treat which condition?
A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed glipizide. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed glipizide. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Which of the following adverse effects is MOST associated with long-term prednisone use?
Which of the following adverse effects is MOST associated with long-term prednisone use?
A patient experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI) is receiving alteplase. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
A patient experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI) is receiving alteplase. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
A patient who is receiving filgrastim is expected to demonstrate which therapeutic effect?
A patient who is receiving filgrastim is expected to demonstrate which therapeutic effect?
When administering heparin, which laboratory value is MOST important for the nurse to monitor?
When administering heparin, which laboratory value is MOST important for the nurse to monitor?
A patient is prescribed atorvastatin. The patient should be instructed to immediately report which adverse effect?
A patient is prescribed atorvastatin. The patient should be instructed to immediately report which adverse effect?
A patient is taking cholestyramine for hyperlipidemia. To minimize a common adverse effect and potential drug interaction, what should the nurse teach the patient?
A patient is taking cholestyramine for hyperlipidemia. To minimize a common adverse effect and potential drug interaction, what should the nurse teach the patient?
A patient is prescribed diltiazem for the treatment of hypertension. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
A patient is prescribed diltiazem for the treatment of hypertension. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
A patient is prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets for angina. What instruction regarding the administration of nitroglycerin should the nurse include in the patient teaching?
A patient is prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets for angina. What instruction regarding the administration of nitroglycerin should the nurse include in the patient teaching?
A patient taking ramipril for hypertension develops a persistent, dry cough. What is the MOST likely cause of this adverse effect?
A patient taking ramipril for hypertension develops a persistent, dry cough. What is the MOST likely cause of this adverse effect?
A patient is prescribed furosemide. The nurse knows to monitor for which electrolyte imbalance?
A patient is prescribed furosemide. The nurse knows to monitor for which electrolyte imbalance?
A patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is prescribed mannitol. By what mechanism does mannitol decrease ICP?
A patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is prescribed mannitol. By what mechanism does mannitol decrease ICP?
A patient is prescribed albuterol via metered-dose inhaler for asthma. What is the primary mechanism of action of albuterol in treating asthma symptoms?
A patient is prescribed albuterol via metered-dose inhaler for asthma. What is the primary mechanism of action of albuterol in treating asthma symptoms?
A patient is prescribed beclomethasone inhaler for asthma. What education should the nurse provide?
A patient is prescribed beclomethasone inhaler for asthma. What education should the nurse provide?
A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease is prescribed triple therapy. What medications are included in the triple therapy protocol?
A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease is prescribed triple therapy. What medications are included in the triple therapy protocol?
A patient is prescribed sucralfate for the treatment of a duodenal ulcer. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
A patient is prescribed sucralfate for the treatment of a duodenal ulcer. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
A patient's medication regimen includes multiple drugs, some of which are highly protein-bound. What pharmacokinetic process could be affected by this fact?
A patient's medication regimen includes multiple drugs, some of which are highly protein-bound. What pharmacokinetic process could be affected by this fact?
Why do physiological changes in elderly patients require careful consideration by a healthcare provider?
Why do physiological changes in elderly patients require careful consideration by a healthcare provider?
A patient taking lopinavir should be educated on which mechanism of action?
A patient taking lopinavir should be educated on which mechanism of action?
A patient has been prescribed azathioprine. What would be an appropriate education topic for this patient?
A patient has been prescribed azathioprine. What would be an appropriate education topic for this patient?
A patient is receiving doxorubicin as part of their chemotherapy regimen. The nurse would be concerned about which of the following EKG changes?
A patient is receiving doxorubicin as part of their chemotherapy regimen. The nurse would be concerned about which of the following EKG changes?
A patient is prescribed tamoxifen following surgical removal of a malignant breast tumor. What is the MOST important adverse effect to monitor for?
A patient is prescribed tamoxifen following surgical removal of a malignant breast tumor. What is the MOST important adverse effect to monitor for?
A patient prescribed levodopa/carbidopa for Parkinson's disease reports experiencing hallucinations. After consulting with the provider, what intervention is implemented?
A patient prescribed levodopa/carbidopa for Parkinson's disease reports experiencing hallucinations. After consulting with the provider, what intervention is implemented?
A patient taking lithium is also prescribed furosemide for hypertension management. What potential interaction should the nurse monitor for?
A patient taking lithium is also prescribed furosemide for hypertension management. What potential interaction should the nurse monitor for?
Several days after starting allopurinol for gout prophylaxis, a client reports an increase in gout flares. What instruction should the nurse give the client?
Several days after starting allopurinol for gout prophylaxis, a client reports an increase in gout flares. What instruction should the nurse give the client?
A patient is about to receive succinylcholine as part of a surgical procedure. What is important for the nurse to assess for?
A patient is about to receive succinylcholine as part of a surgical procedure. What is important for the nurse to assess for?
Flashcards
Bioavailability
Bioavailability
The amount of drug that reaches the bloodstream after administration.
Pharmacokinetics
Pharmacokinetics
Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs in the body.
Enteral Route
Enteral Route
Oral, sublingual, buccal, NG tube and rectal routes of administration.
Parenteral Route
Parenteral Route
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Black Cohosh Indications
Black Cohosh Indications
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Echinacea Indications
Echinacea Indications
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Ginger Indications
Ginger Indications
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Saw Palmetto Indications
Saw Palmetto Indications
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St. John's Wort Indications
St. John's Wort Indications
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Acyclovir Indications
Acyclovir Indications
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Cephalexin Special Considerations
Cephalexin Special Considerations
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Efavirenz MOA
Efavirenz MOA
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Enfuvirtide MOA
Enfuvirtide MOA
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Lopinavir MOA
Lopinavir MOA
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Metronidazole MOA
Metronidazole MOA
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Metronidazole Indications
Metronidazole Indications
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Nystatin Indications
Nystatin Indications
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Tetracycline Considerations
Tetracycline Considerations
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Vancomycin Adverse Effects
Vancomycin Adverse Effects
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Azathioprine Indications
Azathioprine Indications
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Bone Marrow Suppression S/Sx
Bone Marrow Suppression S/Sx
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Cyclophosphamide Adverse Effects
Cyclophosphamide Adverse Effects
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Cyclosporine Adverse Effects
Cyclosporine Adverse Effects
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Doxorubicin Adverse Effects
Doxorubicin Adverse Effects
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Interferon Beta Indications
Interferon Beta Indications
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Live Vaccines
Live Vaccines
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Rhogam Use
Rhogam Use
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Tamoxifen Adverse Effects
Tamoxifen Adverse Effects
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Vincristine Adverse Effects
Vincristine Adverse Effects
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Alcohol Withdrawal Treatment
Alcohol Withdrawal Treatment
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Baclofen Indications
Baclofen Indications
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Bupropion Indications
Bupropion Indications
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Diazepam Indications
Diazepam Indications
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Ibuprofen Adverse Effects
Ibuprofen Adverse Effects
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Levodopa/carbidopa Indications
Levodopa/carbidopa Indications
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Opioid Adverse Effects
Opioid Adverse Effects
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Sumatriptan MOA
Sumatriptan MOA
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Phenelzine Contraindications
Phenelzine Contraindications
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IV vs. Oral Bioavailability
IV vs. Oral Bioavailability
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Elderly Physiological Changes
Elderly Physiological Changes
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Ideal Therapeutic Index
Ideal Therapeutic Index
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Metoprolol MOA
Metoprolol MOA
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Nitroglycerin Indications
Nitroglycerin Indications
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Nitroglycerin Adverse Effects
Nitroglycerin Adverse Effects
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Ramipril Indications
Ramipril Indications
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Ramipril Adverse Effects
Ramipril Adverse Effects
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Furosemide MOA
Furosemide MOA
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Furosemide Adverse Effects
Furosemide Adverse Effects
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Hydrochlorothiazide MOA
Hydrochlorothiazide MOA
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Hydrochlorothiazide Contraindication
Hydrochlorothiazide Contraindication
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Mannitol Indications
Mannitol Indications
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Mannitol Monitoring
Mannitol Monitoring
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Potassium Chloride Indications
Potassium Chloride Indications
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Potassium Chloride Special Considerations
Potassium Chloride Special Considerations
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Furosemide Adverse Effects
Furosemide Adverse Effects
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Sodium Bicarbonate Indications
Sodium Bicarbonate Indications
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Spironolactone Indications
Spironolactone Indications
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Spironolactone Adverse Effect
Spironolactone Adverse Effect
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Mucomyst
Mucomyst
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Albuterol Indications
Albuterol Indications
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Diphenhydramine Adverse Effect
Diphenhydramine Adverse Effect
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Fexofenadine Adverse Effect
Fexofenadine Adverse Effect
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Phenylephrine Considerations
Phenylephrine Considerations
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Latanoprost MOA
Latanoprost MOA
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Metoclopramide Indications
Metoclopramide Indications
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Metoclopramide Contraindication
Metoclopramide Contraindication
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Metoclopramide Adverse Effects
Metoclopramide Adverse Effects
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Omeprazole MOA
Omeprazole MOA
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Ondansetron Indications
Ondansetron Indications
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Ondansetron Adverse Effect
Ondansetron Adverse Effect
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Orlistat Adverse Effect
Orlistat Adverse Effect
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Peptic Ulcer Disease Triple Therapy
Peptic Ulcer Disease Triple Therapy
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Sucralfate MOA
Sucralfate MOA
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Sucralfate Dosing
Sucralfate Dosing
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Betamethasone Injection Indications
Betamethasone Injection Indications
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Clomiphene Indications
Clomiphene Indications
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Clomiphene Adverse Effect
Clomiphene Adverse Effect
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Estrogen Indications
Estrogen Indications
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Estrogen Contraindication
Estrogen Contraindication
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Finasteride Indications
Finasteride Indications
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Magnesium Sulfate Indications & Adverse Effects
Magnesium Sulfate Indications & Adverse Effects
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Misoprostol Indications
Misoprostol Indications
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Misoprostol Contraindication
Misoprostol Contraindication
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Oxytocin Indications
Oxytocin Indications
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Progesterone Indications
Progesterone Indications
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Study Notes
Key Concepts
- Bioavailability refers to the amount of a drug that reaches the bloodstream after administration.
- IV administration has 100% bioavailability.
- Oral administration has less than 100% bioavailability.
- Pharmacokinetics involves the four phases of drug movement within the body: absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion (ADME).
- ADME is the order of the four phases.
- In elderly patients, excretion rates decrease, leading to a higher risk of adverse effects due to drug accumulation; starting doses should be low and increased slowly.
- The ideal therapeutic index for a drug is wide.
Routes of Administration
- Enteral routes include oral, sublingual, buccal, NG tube, and rectal.
- They are associated with the first-pass effect, gastric irritation, slow effect, and decreased bioavailability.
- Parenteral routes include IV, IM, SubQ, ID, and epidural.
- They have 100% bioavailability and no first-pass effect.
- Topical routes include transdermal, eye, ear, and vaginal.
- Inhalation routes include vaporization, gas inhalation, and nebulization.
Herbal Supplements
- Black cohosh is indicated for post-menopausal symptoms.
- Echinacea is used to increase immunity and prevent infection.
- Ginger is indicated for nausea, motion sickness, and morning sickness.
- Saw palmetto is indicated for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).
- St. John’s wort is used for depression.
Antibiotics, Antifungals, and Antivirals
- Acyclovir is indicated for herpes simplex virus (HSV), varicella, and herpes zoster.
- Cephalexin should be avoided in patients with severe penicillin allergies.
- Efavirenz's mechanism of action (MOA) is as a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI).
- Enfuvirtide's MOA is as an entry inhibitor.
- Lopinavir's MOA is as a protease inhibitor.
- Metronidazole functions as an anti-protozoal and antibiotic, indicated for protozoal infections such as vaginal trichomoniasis, Clostridium difficile, and Helicobacter pylori.
- Nystatin is indicated for oral thrush/candidiasis.
- Patients taking tetracycline should avoid sunlight due to photosensitivity and be monitored for skin rashes.
- Vancomycin, an IV antibiotic, can cause red man syndrome and is ototoxic (ringing in ears); peak and trough levels, BUN/SCr, hearing acuity, and infusion reactions should be monitored.
Immunomodulators and Antineoplastic Agents
- Azathioprine is used for the management of Crohn's disease, rheumatoid arthritis (RA), lupus, ulcerative colitis, and other autoimmune diseases.
- Bone marrow suppression can cause fever, fatigue, bleeding/bruising, and petechiae; medications like carbamazepine and cyclosporine are potential causes.
- Cyclophosphamide can cause hemorrhagic cystitis, and patients should be monitored for blood in the urine.
- Cyclosporine can cause myelosuppression, organ rejection, hypertension (HTN), and lymphoma.
- Doxorubicin can cause heart failure; EKG monitoring is necessary.
- Interferon beta is an immunostimulant used to treat hepatitis B.
- Live vaccines, such as rotavirus, MMR, and varicella, should be avoided in immunocompromised patients (pregnant, chemo, etc.).
- Rhogam is given to pregnant patients at 28 weeks to prevent maternal antibodies from forming an immune response to the fetus.
- Tamoxifen can cause deep vein thrombosis (DVT); patients should be monitored for pain/redness/swelling in the calf area with unilateral leg swelling.
- Vincristine can cause peripheral neuropathy.
Pain, Inflammation, Substance Abuse, and Neurodegenerative Disorders
- Alcohol withdrawal can be treated with clonidine (also for decreasing blood pressure) and diazepam/lorazepam for seizures.
- Baclofen is used to manage cerebral palsy and should be tapered slowly to avoid seizures if stopped abruptly.
- Bupropion is used for smoking cessation and depression management but is contraindicated in patients with a history of seizures.
- Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and to manage/prevent seizures associated with alcohol withdrawal.
- Ibuprofen can cause heartburn due to peptic ulcer disease (PUD).
- Levodopa/carbidopa is used for Parkinson's disease but can cause confusion, psychosis, and hallucinations.
- Opioids can cause myosis, sedation, respiratory depression, pruritus, hypotension, constipation, urinary retention, nausea, emesis/euphoria (MORPHINE mnemonic).
- Smoking cessation can be treated with bupropion and varenicline to help with cravings, and clonidine to manage hypertension symptoms associated with withdrawal.
- Sumatriptan, a vasoconstrictor, is used for migraines but is contraindicated in patients with a history of myocardial infarction (MI); angina should be reported immediately.
Mental Health Drugs
- Carbamazepine, an anti-epileptic and mood stabilizer, can cause myelosuppression; patients should report any fevers immediately.
- Chlorpromazine, a first-generation antipsychotic, can cause extrapyramidal symptoms like restlessness and stooped posture.
- Clozapine requires monitoring of complete blood count (CBC) and neutrophil levels.
- Extrapyramidal symptoms include dystonia, parkinsonism, akathisia, restlessness, and tardive dyskinesia (DPART).
- DPART = Dystonia, Parkinsonism's, Akathisia, Restlessness, Tardive dyskinesia
- Dystonia: involuntary muscle contractions
- Parkinsonism's: stooped posture
- Akathisia: Pacing, rocking
- Tardive dyskinesia: lip/tongue smacking, chewing motion
- Lithium requires monitoring of TSH, Na, BUN/SCr.
- Methylphenidate can cause weight loss, insomnia, and tachycardia; weight, sleep, and heart rate should be monitored.
- Phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), is contraindicated with aged meats and cheeses, stimulants (due to hypertensive crisis risk), and other antidepressants (due to serotonin syndrome risk).
- Phenytoin, an anti-epileptic, can cause nystagmus (rapid eye movement).
Bone and Skin Disorders
- Alendronate, for osteoporosis, requires monitoring for jaw changes (bone density); it should be taken with a full glass of water, and the patient should remain upright for 30 minutes due to risk of esophageal issues.
- Colchicine is used for acute gout treatment, secondary to NSAIDs.
- Acute gout is treated with colchicine, while prophylaxis involves allopurinol.
- Hydroxychloroquine is used for rheumatoid arthritis and lupus; eyesight should be monitored with eye doctor visits every 6 months.
- Isotretinoin requires monitoring of liver function tests (LFTs), total cholesterol, and mood for suicidal ideations; females need a negative pregnancy test before administration and monthly.
- Mupirocin is used for impetigo.
Adrenergic and Cholinergic Drugs
- Alpha-1 adrenergic receptors cause vasoconstriction.
- Alpha-2 adrenergic receptors inhibit norepinephrine (NE) release.
- Beta-1 adrenergic receptors increase heart rate.
- Beta-2 adrenergic receptors cause bronchodilation in the lungs.
- Atropine is indicated for excessive oral secretion, organophosphate poisoning, severe bradycardia, and as a reversal agent for cholinergic crisis; adverse effects are DUCCT (dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation, confusion, tachycardia).
- Bethanechol is used for urinary retention but can cause wheezing.
- Epinephrine can cause pupil dilation, tachycardia, hyperglycemia, and decreased bladder contractions.
- Malignant hyperthermia is a risk with succinylcholine.
- Norepinephrine causes vasoconstriction and increases blood pressure.
- Oxybutynin is used for urge incontinence.
- Succinylcholine is used for short surgical procedures and muscle paralysis but can cause malignant hyperthermia (symptoms include fevers, increased HR, and sweating).
- Sympathetic stimulation causes pupil dilation, increased heart rate, bronchiole dilation, increased glycogen to glucose conversion, sweating, decreased digestive activities, vaginal contractions, and bladder relaxation.
Endocrine Drugs
- Glipizide stimulates the pancreas to release insulin and can cause hypoglycemia.
- Lispro and Aspart insulin have a 15-30 minute onset, 30-2.5 hour peak, and 3-6 hour duration; administer before meals (ac).
- Regular insulin has a 30-60 minute onset, 1-5 hour peak, and 6-10 hour duration; administer before meals (ac).
- Intermediate NPH insulin has a 1-2 hour onset, 6-14 hour peak, and 16-24 hour duration; administer once or twice daily (QD/BID).
- Glargine/Detemir insulin has a 70 minute onset, no peak, and 18-24 hour duration; administer once daily (QD).
- Levothyroxine is for hypothyroidism but can cause osteoporosis, hyperthyroidism, and cardiovascular disease; if the dose is too high, palpitations, tremors, and tachycardia may occur, and a feeling of being hot.
- Metformin, for type 2 diabetes, can cause GI upset and diarrhea.
- Prednisone, a steroid, can cause hyperglycemia and, with long-term use, increased risk of osteoporosis and infections including fungal infections.
- Propylthiouracil, an antithyroid drug, can cause agranulocytosis; TSH and WBC should be monitored for signs of infection.
- Used in adjunct with methimazole to tx hyperthyroidism
Blood Thinners, Hematopoietic Agents, and Blood Products
- Alteplase is a fibrinolytic used to break up clots in MI, stroke, and blocked catheters.
- Oprelvekin is used to increase platelets.
- Erythropoietin is used to increase RBC production.
- Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet used to prevent future MI.
- Filgrastim is used to increase neutrophils in patients with low WBC.
- Heparin requires monitoring of aPTT; protamine is the antidote, and CBC should be used to monitor for thrombocytopenia.
- Warfarin requires monitoring of INR; vitamin K or fresh frozen plasma is the antidote.
Cardiovascular Drugs
- Atorvastatin is used to lower LDL but can cause muscle pain, hepatitis, and elevated LFTs.
- Cholestyramine lowers cholesterol but decreases absorption of vitamins KADE and causes GI upset.
- Educate pt to increase KADE intake, don't take w/ other meds d/t preventing absorption
- Digoxin can cause vomiting and visual halos; hold if HR < 60; Digoxin toxicity includes anorexia, palpitations, fatal arrhythmias, N/V, halos.
- Diltiazem (similar to verapamil) is a non-DHP calcium channel blocker that decreases HR; hold if HR < 60.
- Metoprolol is a beta blocker that decreases HR.
- Nitroglycerin is used for angina and can cause dizziness and hypotension.
- Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor used for lowering BP but can cause a dry cough, angioedema, and hyperkalemia.
Diuretics, IV Fluids, and Antidotes
- Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause hypokalemia and ototoxicity (tinnitus).
- Hydrochlorothiazide, a thiazide diuretic, decreases potassium and is contraindicated in patients with sulfa allergies.
- Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used for increased intracranial pressure (ICP) / intraocular pressure (IOP); electrolytes, and K levels should be monitored.
- Potassium chloride is used to increase potassium levels; do not administer IV push and monitor EKG if IV drip.
- Sodium bicarbonate is used to lower high potassium levels.
- Spironolactone is used to increase potassium levels; it can cause hyperkalemia.
Respiratory Drugs
- Acetylcysteine is used for acetaminophen overdose, cystic fibrosis as a mucolytic, and pre-contrast renal protection.
- Albuterol is a rescue inhaler for acute asthma exacerbation.
- First-generation antihistamines (diphenhydramine) cause sedation.
- Second-generation antihistamines (fexofenadine) cause little to no sedation.
- Acute asthma exacerbation is treated with albuterol.
- Beclomethasone inhaler is an inhaled steroid for asthma; patients should rinse their mouth out after use to prevent thrush.
- Diphenhydramine (1st gen antihistamine) causes sedation.
- Fexofenadine (2nd gen antihistamine) causes little to no sedation and should be started 3-4 days before allergy season.
- Phenylephrine is used for nasal congestion for only 3-5 days to avoid rebound nasal congestion.
Eye and Ear Disorders
- Ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone ear drops are used for otitis externa.
- During eye drop administration, hands should be washed before and after; the eye dropper should not touch the eye, and pressure should be applied on the nasal side of the eye.
- Latanoprost increases the outflow of aqueous humor (AH) and is used for open-angle glaucoma.
- Otitis externa is treated with ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone.
Gastrointestinal Medications
- Metoclopramide is used for gastric reflux and vertigo but is contraindicated in Parkinson's disease and can cause Parkinson's-like side effects.
- Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that decreases the amount of acid pumped into the stomach.
- Ondansetron is used for chemotherapy-induced nausea/vomiting and can cause prolonged QT intervals, which require EKG monitoring.
- Orlistat, a weight loss drug, can cause oily stool.
- Peptic ulcer disease triple therapy includes omeprazole, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin.
- Sucralfate forms a sugary coating to line the stomach and should be taken 3-4 times a day.
Reproductive Drugs
- Betamethasone injection is used in premature labor to mature the fetal lungs.
- Clomiphene is used for infertility but can cause multiple births (twins/triplets).
- Estrogens are used for menopausal symptoms, acne, and to prevent osteoporosis but are contraindicated in patients with a history of breast cancer.
- Finasteride is used for BPH.
- Magnesium sulfate is used for preterm labor, eclampsia (HTN), asthma, and dysrhythmias; if the dose is too high, it can cause muscle weakness.
- Misoprostol is used to induce labor and to prevent gastric ulcers caused by GERD but is contraindicated in pregnancy if used for GERD.
- Oxytocin is used to induce labor and enhance labor contractions.
- Progesterone is used for menopausal symptoms and endometriosis but can cause breakthrough bleeding.
- Sildenafil is used for erectile dysfunction (ED) and pulmonary hypertension but is contraindicated with nitroglycerin use (due to fatal hypotension); it can cause hypotension and visual changes; avoid grapefruit.
- Tamsulosin, an alpha-1 blocker, causes vasodilation and is used for BPH; it can cause orthostatic hypotension (dizziness upon standing), hypotension, and dizziness.
- Terbutaline is used for asthma but can cause palpitations.
- Testosterone can cause acne and aggression.
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