Pharmacokinetics Key Concepts
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Questions and Answers

Gentamicin typically has a half-life of 2-3 hours. However, in cases of kidney accumulation, its half-life extends to 53 hours. What is this type of half-life prolongation called?

  • Zero-order half-life
  • Terminal half-life (correct)
  • First-order half-life
  • Secondary half-life

A patient experiencing an ST-elevation myocardial infarction is treated with aspirin, propranolol, clopidogrel, and atorvastatin. Which of these medications is primarily metabolized by CYP2D6?

  • Warfarin
  • Propranolol (correct)
  • Clopidogrel
  • Atorvastatin

Drug metabolism in the liver occurs in two phases: catabolic reactions (Phase 1) and synthetic reactions (Phase 2). Which of the following is a Phase 1 reaction?

  • Acetylation
  • Methylation
  • Hydroxylation (correct)
  • Conjugation

A young girl is brought to the ER after overdosing on an unknown drug. To enhance its elimination, urine acidification is considered. Which of the following drugs, if taken in excess, would have its elimination rate increased by acidifying the urine?

<p>Amphetamine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient receives Drug A and Drug B intravenously every 24 hours for six days. A graph plotting drug concentration in the blood over time reveals that drug A does not maintain therapeutic levels when administered every 24 hours. What conclusion can be drawn from this observation?

<p>Drug A does not maintain persistent therapeutic levels when administered every 24 hours. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 30-year-old pregnant woman, at 22 weeks gestation with no known health issues, is prescribed mefloquine, a highly protein-bound drug, for malaria prophylaxis before traveling. What effect can be anticipated regarding mefloquine's distribution in the patient?

<p>Decreased drug concentration in maternal plasma due to increased volume of distribution. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A drug is eliminated from the body primarily through hepatic metabolism. Which patient characteristic would most significantly decrease the rate of drug elimination, potentially requiring dosage adjustments?

<p>Presence of significant liver cirrhosis as evidenced by elevated liver enzymes and bilirubin. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A drug is known to undergo first-pass metabolism. How does this phenomenon affect the drug's bioavailability after oral administration?

<p>Bioavailability is significantly reduced as the drug is metabolized before reaching systemic circulation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with renal impairment is prescribed a drug that is primarily eliminated by glomerular filtration. What adjustments should be made to the drug regimen to ensure patient safety?

<p>Decrease the dose or increase the dosing interval to prevent drug accumulation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A drug with a narrow therapeutic window is administered to a patient. Which of the following strategies is most important to ensure safe and effective treatment?

<p>Monitor plasma drug concentrations regularly to maintain levels within the therapeutic range. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A drug is known to be a substrate of CYP3A4. Concurrent administration of which substance would most likely lead to a decrease in the plasma concentration of the drug?

<p>Rifampin, a potent inducer of CYP3A4. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A new drug is being developed. Studies show it has a very large volume of distribution. What can be inferred about the drug's distribution characteristics?

<p>The drug readily distributes into tissues and body fluids outside of the plasma. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A drug has a half-life of 4 hours. Assuming first-order kinetics, approximately how long will it take for the drug to reach steady-state concentration after continuous intravenous infusion?

<p>20 hours (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Therapeutic drug monitoring is essential when a drug's effect is difficult to measure directly. Which of the following drugs typically requires therapeutic drug monitoring due to its narrow therapeutic index and potential for toxicity?

<p>Warfarin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 7-year-old child with a history of rheumatic fever is on erythromycin prophylaxis. Which of the following laxatives should be avoided due to the potential for increased risk of arrhythmia when used concurrently with erythromycin?

<p>Cisapride (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 5 ml ampoule contains 5 mg/ml of nitroglycerin (NTG). This ampoule is added to normal saline to create a 500 ml solution. What is the infusion rate (in drops/min) required to deliver NTG at 10 mcg/min, using a micro drip set (60 drops/ml)?

<p>12 drops/min (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes a key factor influencing drug distribution within the body?

<p>Plasma protein binding affects drug distribution (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 57-year-old male post-STEMI is prescribed an antiplatelet medication. Knowing that the patient's CYP2C19 genotype can influence the effectiveness of certain drugs, which antiplatelet medication's efficacy is most likely to be affected by this genetic variation?

<p>Clopidogrel (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed a drug with a known maintenance dose. What is the primary purpose of calculating and administering a maintenance dose?

<p>To maintain a steady-state concentration of the drug within the therapeutic range. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A drug's response cannot be easily measured through direct clinical observation. In which of the following cases would therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) be LEAST necessary?

<p>A drug with a wide therapeutic index used to treat a non-life-threatening condition. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST common Phase II metabolic reaction?

<p>Glucuronidation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient receiving erythromycin is also prescribed a laxative. Which of the following drug interactions is a major concern when considering the co-administration of erythromycin with cisapride?

<p>Increased risk of QTc prolongation and torsades de pointes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Phase II drug metabolism reactions primarily result in which of the following outcomes?

<p>Improved water solubility of the drug (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with toxicity due to an overdose of a weak base drug. Which of the following strategies would MOST effectively promote urinary excretion?

<p>Acidifying the urine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient overdoses on a drug. The physician decides to alter the urinary pH to enhance the drug's excretion. If the drug is a weak acid, which of the following changes to urinary pH would be MOST appropriate?

<p>Increasing urinary pH to alkaline levels (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following Phase II metabolic reactions involves the addition of a two-carbon fragment derived from acetyl-CoA?

<p>Acetylation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following Phase II metabolic reactions involves the addition of a methyl group?

<p>Methylation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does thiopentone have a short duration of CNS effect despite high plasma protein binding?

<p>It is highly lipid soluble, leading to rapid redistribution to less vascular organs. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with renal calculi is prescribed tramadol. Which of the following statements correctly explains how urine pH affects tramadol excretion?

<p>Acidic urine promotes faster excretion of tramadol because tramadol is a weakly basic drug. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is brought to the emergency department exhibiting signs of amphetamine overdose. Knowing that amphetamine is a weak base, which of the following interventions is MOST likely to increase the drug's elimination?

<p>Administering ammonium chloride to acidify the urine. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes how changes in urinary pH affect the tubular reabsorption of drugs in the kidneys?

<p>Alkaline drugs are excreted more in acidic urine. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is true regarding the binding characteristics of acidic and basic drugs in plasma?

<p>Acidic drugs are bound primarily to plasma albumin, while basic drugs bind to alpha-1 glycoprotein. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where are basic drugs primarily ionized and absorbed in the body?

<p>Basic drugs are ionized in the stomach but best absorbed in the intestine. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following Phase II drug metabolism reactions is the most common?

<p>Glucuronidation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During drug metabolism, what is the primary difference between Phase I and Phase II reactions?

<p>Phase I reactions convert a drug into a polar metabolite, while Phase II reactions conjugate the drug to enhance water solubility. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of drug metabolism in older adults, which statement accurately describes the relative impairment of Phase I and Phase II reactions?

<p>Phase I reactions usually become impaired before Phase II reactions in older adults. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A drug is administered intravenously and its plasma concentration decreases rapidly within the first 15 minutes, followed by a slower decline. What is the most likely explanation for this phenomenon?

<p>The drug is undergoing marked redistribution from high blood flow organs to less vascular organs. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why do weak acids ionize more in alkaline urine?

<p>Alkaline urine has a lower concentration of hydrogen ions, shifting the equilibrium towards ionization of the weak acid. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a case of methotrexate poisoning, why is urine alkalinized?

<p>To increase the ionization and reduce the reabsorption of methotrexate. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Drug A's concentration reaches zero before the next dose is administered. What can be concluded about Drug A?

<p>Drug A does not maintain persistent therapeutic levels when administered every 24 hours. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does Drug A's behavior differ from Drug B's behavior, given Drug B exhibits cumulative properties?

<p>Drug A's concentration decreases to zero every 24 hours. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient receives fentanyl via a transdermal patch for postoperative pain. What is a primary advantage of using this route of administration?

<p>It avoids the hepatic first-pass metabolism of the drug, increasing its bioavailability. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are transdermal patches suitable for administering drugs like fentanyl and rotigotine?

<p>These drugs are highly lipid-soluble and can traverse intact skin. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A new drug is developed that is a weak base. How would acidification of the urine affect the drug's excretion?

<p>Increase ionization, decreasing reabsorption and increasing excretion. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A drug is known to undergo significant first-pass metabolism. Which route of administration would be best to avoid this effect?

<p>Intravenous administration (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

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Flashcards

Pharmacokinetics

The study of what the body does to a drug, including absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion (ADME).

Pharmacodynamics

Describes the effects of a drug on the body, involving receptor binding, signal transduction, and resulting physiological effects.

Clinical Trials

Research studies in humans intended to evaluate the safety, efficacy, and dosage of a new drug or treatment.

Parasympathetic System

Part of the autonomic nervous system, responsible for "rest and digest" functions; utilizes acetylcholine.

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Sympathetic System

Part of the autonomic nervous system, responsible for "fight or flight" responses; utilizes norepinephrine and epinephrine.

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NSAIDs

Drugs that reduce pain, fever, and inflammation; examples include ibuprofen and aspirin.

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Vancomycin Mechanism

Inhibits cell wall synthesis by binding to D-Ala-D-Ala, preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking.

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Drug Efflux

A process where drugs are transported out of cells by efflux pumps, reducing their intracellular concentration and effectiveness.

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Terminal Half-Life

The half-life observed when a drug accumulates in a tissue, leading to a longer elimination time than its initial half-life.

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CYP2D6

Cytochrome P450 2D6 is a liver enzyme responsible for metabolizing many drugs, influencing their efficacy and duration of action.

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Propranolol Metabolism

Propranolol is metabolized by CYP2D6.

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Phase 1 Metabolism

Phase 1 reactions involve catabolic modifications like oxidation, reduction, or hydrolysis to introduce or unmask polar functional groups.

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Hydroxylation

Hydroxylation is adding an -OH group to a molecule, making it more polar.

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Urine Acidification

Acidification of urine increases the excretion of basic drugs by increasing their ionization in the kidney tubules.

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Salicylate Elimination

Salicylates are eliminated faster through urine acidification.

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Therapeutic Drug Levels

Drug A's concentration fails to maintain persistent therapeutic levels when administered every 24 hours.

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Phase 2 Reactions

Phase 2 reactions enhance drug water solubility and elimination through conjugation.

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Glucuronidation

The most common phase 2 reaction, adding glucuronic acid to increase water solubility.

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Acetylation

A phase 2 reaction involving the addition of an acetyl group.

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Methylation

A phase 2 reaction involving the addition of a methyl group.

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Sulfation

A phase 2 reaction involving the addition of a sulfate group.

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Glycine Conjugation

A phase 2 reaction involving the addition of glycine.

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Urine pH and Drug Reabsorption

Weak bases are ionized and less reabsorbed in acidic urine; weak acids in alkaline urine.

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Amphetamine Poisoning Treatment

Acidifying urine promotes amphetamine excretion, as amphetamine is a weak base.

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Thiopentone's CNS effect duration

A short duration of CNS effect is observed despite high plasma protein binding.

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Thiopentone Redistribution

Initial distribution to high blood flow organs, followed by redistribution to less vascular organs causes a rapid decrease in plasma concentration.

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Basic drug excretion

Weakly basic drugs are excreted faster in acidic urine because they dissolve more easily.

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Weakly Basic Drugs (Examples)

Examples include: Telmisartan, Tramadol, Nalbuphine, Morphine, Olanzapine, Sildenafil citrate

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Drug binding proteins

Basic drugs bind to alpha-1 glycoprotein, while acidic drugs bind to plasma albumin.

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Basic Drug Absorption

Basic drugs are ionized in the stomach and best absorbed in the intestine.

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Most common Phase II reaction

Glucuronidation is the most common phase II drug metabolizing reaction.

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Phase I vs. Phase II drug metabolism

Phase I: polar, water-soluble metabolite by cytochrome P450 oxidation, reduction, and hydrolysis; Phase II: conjugated, very polar metabolite excreted via kidneys by glucuronidation, acetylation, and sulfation methylation reactions.

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Maintenance Dose

A dose needed to maintain a steady concentration of a drug in the body after initial doses have achieved therapeutic levels.

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Therapeutic Drug Monitoring

Plasma drug level monitoring is essential when drug response is hard to measure directly.

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Cisapride Risk

Cisapride is a laxative that can cause arrhythmia.

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Drug Distribution Factor

Drug distribution is affected by plasma protein binding.

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Clopidogrel & CYP2C19

Patient's CYP2C19 genotype can influence the effect of Clopidogrel.

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NTG Concentration

NTG concentration: 5mg/5ml = 1mg/ml = 1000mcg/ml.

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NTG Infusion Rate

A 5 ml ampule contains 25 mg NTG. With a total volume of 500 ml, the concentration is 50 mcg/ml. At 10 mcg/min, the infusion rate is 12ml/hour or 12 microdrops/min.

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Weak Acids in Alkaline Urine

In alkaline urine, weak acids ionize more, leading to decreased reabsorption.

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Non-Cumulative Drug

The concentration of the drug decreases to zero by the time the next dose is administered.

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Cumulative Drug

The concentration of the drug constantly increases with every dose.

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Drug A Clearance Time

Drug A is cleared from the body in less than 24 hours, with its concentration reaching zero before the next dose.

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Transdermal Route

Administering a drug through the skin via a patch.

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Transdermal Benefit

Transdermal patches bypass the liver, so first-pass metabolism is avoided.

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Transdermal Drug Properties

Lipid-soluble drugs are suited for crossing intact skin, as in transdermal patches, for consistent drug absorption.

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Transdermal Advantage

Delivers continuous, controlled drug release, minimizing fluctuations in plasma drug concentration.

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Study Notes

Pharmacokinetics

  • Mefloquine has high protein binding, so anticipate effects due to this characteristic in a pregnant woman during prophylaxis.
  • Gentamicin's half-life extends to 53 hours when accumulated in the kidney, known as the terminal half-life.
  • CYP2D6 metabolizes propranolol from the drugs aspirin, propranolol, clopidogrel, and atorvastatin, which are used during myocardial infarction treatment.
  • Hydroxylation is a phase 1 reaction of drug metabolism in the liver
  • Amphetamine toxicity is treated through urine acidification.
  • Drug A doesn't maintain persistent therapeutic levels when administered every 24 hours.
  • Therapeutic dose monitoring is not required for Warfarin, Gentamicin, Cyclosporine and Phenytoin.
  • Avoid Cisapride laxative with erythromycin due to the risk of arrhythmia.
  • If a 5 ml ampoule containing 5 mg/ml NTG is added to normal saline to make a total of 500 ml solution, the required infusion rate is 12 drops/min when NTG is needed at ten mcg/min, considering 1 micro drip = 60 drops/mL.
  • Plasma protein binding affects drug distribution.
  • Clopidogrel, an antiplatelet drug, might cause unexpected results based on the patient's CYP2C19 genotype.
  • Weakly basic drugs like tramadol dissolve more easily and are excreted faster in acidic urine, used in treating nephrolithiasis.
  • Glucuronidation is the most common phase II drug metabolizing reaction and is catalysed by microsomal enzyme glucuronyl transferase.
  • Urine is acidified in case of amphetamine poisoning, as amphetamine is basic.
  • Transdermal patches avoid the hepatic first-pass metabolism of the drug.

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Description

Key pharmacokinetic principles including protein binding, half-life variations, and drug metabolism via CYP2D6. Also covers toxicity treatments, therapeutic monitoring, and drug interactions with clinical implications. Includes example calculation of infusion rate.

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