Personal Jurisdiction Quiz

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Questions and Answers

What is the purpose of a protective order under rule 26 C?

  • To limit the scope of discovery if public disclosure may cause harm (correct)
  • To allow broad disclosure of information
  • To mandate the sharing of all evidence during a case
  • To ensure all information is disclosed regardless of harm

In the context of a motion for summary judgment, who bears the initial burden of production?

  • The judge
  • The defendant (correct)
  • The jury
  • The plaintiff

According to rule 56, how should facts be viewed when considering a motion for summary judgment?

  • In the light most favorable to the non-moving party (correct)
  • In isolation from each other
  • As equal and unbiased
  • In favor of the moving party

What must a plaintiff demonstrate to successfully move for summary judgment?

<p>That they have overwhelming evidence that no jury could favor the defendant (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the 7th amendment guarantee in a legal context?

<p>The right to a jury trial (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a jury trial, a directed verdict can be issued under which condition?

<p>When the evidence overwhelmingly supports one party (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which case established that video evidence could grant summary judgment in certain circumstances?

<p>Scott V. Harris (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an essential criterion to determine if a claim is entitled to a jury trial?

<p>The claim must be legal rather than equitable (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes a cross claim?

<p>Is a claim made by one defendant against another in the same case. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under permissive joinder, which of the following statements is true?

<p>Plaintiffs can join if there is a common question of law or fact. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of compulsory joinder?

<p>To ensure all relevant parties are included to avoid inconsistent obligations. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is meant by 'impleader'?

<p>A defendant brings in another party to share the liability. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When can a third party seek intervention in a lawsuit?

<p>If their interest would be harmed and no existing party represents that interest. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is true regarding derivative liability in the context of impleader?

<p>Derivative liability requires a legal theory that binds the third party to the defendant's liability. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is necessary for a party to be considered 'indispensable' in compulsory joinder?

<p>Their absence would likely lead to multiple suits. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a requirement for permissive joinder?

<p>The party seeking to join must have been initially named as a defendant. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must a defendant do regarding defenses in their response?

<p>Raise all defenses or they are waived (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic of compulsory counterclaims?

<p>They must be included in the response or are waived (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does Rule 12 primarily address?

<p>Defenses related to jurisdiction and failure to state a claim (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the main purposes of Rule 11 sanctions?

<p>To deter the filing of frivolous claims that lack legal basis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what condition can a new defendant be added after the statute of limitations has expired?

<p>If the same transaction or occurrence is involved (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What implications arise from the case of Zielinski v. Philadelphia Piers?

<p>A wrong defendant may still have to defend if they had notice (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is necessary for a party to seek joinder in claims or parties during litigation?

<p>There must be jurisdiction over the combined parties or claims (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the case of King v. Whitmer, what was deemed sanctionable?

<p>Allegations not well grounded in fact (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of a preemptory challenge in jury selection?

<p>To remove jurors without providing a reason (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what condition can a motion for judgment as a matter of law be filed?

<p>When the opposing party has had a chance to present their case (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the concept of 'claim preclusion' prevent?

<p>A party from relitigating the same claim after a chance to litigate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which situation best illustrates 'issue preclusion'?

<p>A previously litigated issue cannot be brought up again in a related case (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must be demonstrated for a motion for a new trial to be granted?

<p>That serious errors occurred during the trial (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'remitter' refer to in the context of jury verdicts?

<p>An adjustment to the jury verdict based on legal standards (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement correctly reflects the 'additur' process?

<p>It increases an inadequate jury award by legal order (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key requirement for 'claim preclusion' to be applicable?

<p>The previous claim must have been valid and final on the merits (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what condition can a defendant remove a case to federal court?

<p>The case could have been filed in federal court originally. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is true about the Erie Doctrine?

<p>In diversity cases, federal courts generally apply state substantive law. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factors determine the proper venue for a lawsuit in federal court?

<p>Convenience and where a substantial part of the claim arose. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When must a party file a Rule 12(b) motion to challenge subject matter jurisdiction?

<p>Anytime during the litigation process. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In relation to the Erie Doctrine, which situation requires the application of federal law?

<p>There is a federal question that is the point of conflict. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following must always be governed by state substantive law?

<p>Elements of a claim or defense. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can occur if a federal court determines that a removal was improper?

<p>The federal court can remand the case back to state court. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the core concept that underlies the exercise of personal jurisdiction over a defendant?

<p>Fairness in litigation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which situation does in personam jurisdiction apply?

<p>When the defendant has a permanent home in the forum state (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In terms of venue, which situation allows a plaintiff to file a suit in any federal district?

<p>When the plaintiff is subject to personal jurisdiction in that venue. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a requirement of the long arm statute for establishing personal jurisdiction?

<p>Defendant must maintain a permanent residence in the state (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What standard must a defendant meet to show minimum contacts with a forum state?

<p>The defendant must have systematic and continuous business activities in the state (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is crucial in determining whether a defendant's activities constitute purposeful availment?

<p>The extent to which the defendant takes advantage of state resources (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does relatedness refer to in the context of personal jurisdiction?

<p>The connection between the defendant's contacts and the plaintiff's claim (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which case was the concept of 'tag jurisdiction' established?

<p>Burnham v. Superior Court (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must a defendant demonstrate to satisfy the foreseeability requirement for personal jurisdiction?

<p>Knowledge or anticipation of being held accountable in the forum state (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Personal Jurisdiction

The court's ability to exercise control over a person or property.

In rem jurisdiction

Jurisdiction based on property located within the state.

In personam jurisdiction

Jurisdiction based on the defendant's personal connection to the state.

Domicile

The state where a defendant has a permanent home.

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Tag Jurisdiction (Burnham v. Superior Ct)

Defendant's presence (being physically found) in the state.

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Consent

Agreeing to be subject to a state's jurisdiction.

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Long Arm Statute

Statute allowing courts to exercise jurisdiction over certain non-resident defendants.

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Relatedness

Contacts with the forum state must be related to the lawsuit.

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Answer

Defendant's response to the plaintiff's complaint. It may contain an admission or denial of each claim.

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Compulsory Counterclaim

A claim made by a defendant against the plaintiff arising from the same transaction or occurrence as the plaintiff's claim. Must be included in the answer or it is waived. Cannot be brought later.

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Permissive Counterclaim

Claims raised by a defendant against the plaintiff, but not necessarily related to the plaintiff's claim.

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Rule 12

Rule governing the pleading of defenses. Failure to raise defenses can lead to their waiver.

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Amendment

A pleading modification that allows the addition or removal of parties or claims. It can be done once without court permission, but requires permission after that.

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Rule 11

A rule that requires attorneys to conduct reasonable inquiry before filing a legal action. This rule is intended to prevent frivolous lawsuits.

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Zielinski v. Philadelphia Piers

A judgment against the original defendant even if named wrongly in the complaint if the correct defendant had reason to know they were involved.

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Ingraham v. United States

Attorneys are prevented from bringing up unexpected defenses that were not included in the initial pleading.

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Removal Jurisdiction

Moving a case from state court to federal court. The defendant has the right to remove if the case could have been originally filed in federal court and the removal is proper.

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Removal Criteria 1

The defendant can remove the case to federal court if it could have been filed there originally. This means there's either federal question jurisdiction or diversity jurisdiction.

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Removal Criteria 2

All defendants must agree to the removal, except when one defendant opposes. If all defendants do not agree and one defendant is domiciled in the forum state, removal is not allowed.

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Removal Criteria 3

The defendant cannot be in their home state. If the defendant is from the same state where the case is filed, then removal is not permitted.

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Challenging Subject Matter Jurisdiction

Challenging whether the federal court has the right to hear a case. This can be done by any party or the court itself.

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Procedural Law

Rules governing how a case is heard, such as pleading rules or discovery.

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Substantive Law

Rules defining the legal rights and obligations of parties in a case, such as elements of a claim.

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Erie Doctrine

Federal courts apply state substantive law in diversity cases, except when federal law conflicts with state law. Federal procedural law generally applies.

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Protective Order (Rule 26(c))

A court order that limits the scope of discovery when disclosing information to the public could cause harm.

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Motion for Summary Judgment (Rule 56)

A motion filed by one party, asking the court to enter judgment in their favor without a trial, arguing there's no genuine dispute about the facts.

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Burden of Production (Summary Judgment)

The burden on the moving party in a Summary Judgment motion to provide evidence demonstrating the absence of a genuine dispute of material fact.

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Burden of Proof (Summary Judgment)

The party seeking Summary Judgment must show that the evidence is so strong that no reasonable jury could find in favor of the opposing party.

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Jury Trial

The right to a jury trial is guaranteed by the 7th Amendment and implemented under Rule 38.

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Legal Claim

A legal claim typically seeks monetary compensation.

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Equitable Claim

An equitable claim typically seeks a court order, like an injunction.

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Legal Claim Before Equitable Claim

A legal claim usually needs to be resolved before an equitable claim, preserving the right to a jury trial.

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Judgment as a Matter of Law (JMOL)

A motion to dismiss a case before trial, made by the defendant, arguing that there is no way for the plaintiff to win even if all facts are true.

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Challenge for Cause

A pretrial motion made to remove a potential juror for a specific, articulable reason, such as bias.

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Peremptory Challenge

A pretrial motion made to remove a potential juror without providing a reason.

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Motion for a New Trial

A motion seeking a new trial, arguing that serious errors occurred during the trial that prejudiced the losing party.

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Claim Preclusion

A legal doctrine that prevents a party from relitigating the same claim that was already decided in a previous lawsuit.

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Issue Preclusion (Collateral Estoppel)

A legal doctrine that prevents parties from relitigating issues of law or fact that were already decided in a previous lawsuit.

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Remittitur

A motion to reduce an excessive jury verdict, arguing that it is inconsistent with the evidence presented and the law.

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Additur

A procedure where a court increases a judgment that is considered inadequate, by adding an amount to the original verdict.

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Cross-Claim

A claim filed by one defendant against another defendant in the same lawsuit. This claim must arise from the same transaction or occurrence as the original claim. It allows defendants to seek relief from each other related to the main dispute.

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Permissive Joinder

A legal process where plaintiffs can join additional plaintiffs or defendants in a lawsuit if their claims arise from the same transaction or occurrence and share a question of law or fact. Joining these additional parties is not mandatory.

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Compulsory Joinder

A legal process where courts determine if an absent party is 'necessary' or 'indispensable' to a lawsuit. If the absent party's presence is essential for a fair and just trial, they may be required to join the lawsuit.

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Impleader

A legal procedure where a defendant can bring a third party into the lawsuit who may be liable to the defendant for the plaintiff's claim. This aims to shift the blame or financial responsibility to another party.

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Derivative Liability

A situation where a defendant in a lawsuit argues that they are only liable because of the actions of a third party. This is a key element in the impleader process.

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Intervention

A process by which a third party can request to join a lawsuit, either as a plaintiff or defendant, when their interests would be harmed if they are not included and no existing party adequately represents their interests. This procedure ensures that all parties with essential interests can participate.

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Study Notes

Personal Jurisdiction

  • Courts' ability to exercise control over someone or something
  • Core concept is fairness for chord 2 exercise jurisdiction over defendant

Types

  • In rem: Property is the subject
  • In personam:
    • Domicile: Defendant maintains permanent home in the forum state
    • Tag (Burnham v. Superior ct): Consent if you show up and don't object or agree to do business in the state. (Mallory v. Norfolk Southern, Burger King)
    • Long Arm Statute (statutory requirements): If nothing else satisfies, the long arm statute allows jurisdiction over defendant.
    • Unlimited: Follows constitutional requirements; must satisfy due process.
    • Limited: Minimum contacts with the forum state (Int. shoe - doing business in state is continuous and systematic).
      • Factors include:
        • Defendants level of purposeful availment
        • Did defendant take advantage of privileges and benefits enjoyed by the forum state residents? (not accidentally).
        • Example: Using state courts or resources or doing business in state.

Fairness

  • Must not offend traditional notions of Fair play and substantial justice.
  • Exercise of personal jurisdiction must be fair
  • Factors include: Inconvenience to defendant, plaintiffs interest, forum state interest, judicial efficiency.

Notice

  • Defendant must be reasonably notified of the pending lawsuit.
  • Require calculated notice under circumstances to apprise defendant of the pending action.
  • Methods of notice: Traditional methods of service, (Ex: personal service, registered mail, delivery to an appointed agent)

Subject Matter Jurisdiction

  • Courts' ability to exercise authority over a claim.
  • Federal courts are limited
  • State courts = anywhere there is personal jurisdiction

Types of Subject Matter Jurisdiction

  • Federal question jurisdiction: Claim arises under the Constitution, US treaty, or federal law
  • Diversity jurisdiction: Complete diversity, amount in controversy over $75,000.

Venue

  • Determining federal judicial districts in which plaintiff may bring suit.
  • Main factor: convenience
  • Venue is proper if: Defendant resides in any district, where a substantial part of the claim arose, or if defendant is subject to personal jurisdiction within the district.
  • Determining venue within a state requires considering the corporation's residence (interpretation methods exist, considering corporate address or location of business).

Erie Doctrine

  • Diversity cases: Federal courts mostly apply state substantive law and federal procedural law.
  • When conflicting, federal law prevails.
    • Procedural law governs how a case will be heard
    • Substantive law governs how the facts of a case will be interpreted.
  • Determining whether to apply state or federal substantive law is analyzed using the guided/unguided Erie track (Is there a federal question? If not, are there state/federal conflicts on a point?).

Discovery

  • Process where parties seek an exchange of information.
  • Includes devices like depositions, requests for production, interrogatories, and conferences.
  • Scope: Material is discoverable if non-privileged; attorney-client privilege protects communications, and work product is protected unless substantial need exists.

Motion for Summary Judgment

  • Asks court to enter judgment against the opposing party on the basis there is no genuine dispute as to material facts.
  • Burden of production rests on the party moving for summary judgment.
  • Evidence is weighed in favor of the plaintiff unless actual evidence contradicts.

Trial

  • If not enough evidence to support the claim in summary judgment, it proceeds to trial.
  • The party moving for summary judgment has the initial burden of proof (defendant).
  • The burden then shifts to the other party to bring evidence/argument against the motion.

Jury Trial

  • 7th amendment ensures this right
  • Directed verdicts are allowed if there is no genuine dispute of material facts (no reasonable jury could find for party being ruled against).

Judgment as a Matter of Law

  • Judge can take the case away from the jury and decide it based on the law and evidence.
  • A renewed motion based on this decision can be made, and must be made before judgment is entered if it needs reconsideration, in case of error or issues with judgment.

Preclusion

  • Claim preclusion: Prevents relitigating a previously litigated claim
  • Types: Merged (first lawsuit), barred (lost in second lawsuit)
  • Test: Valid, final on merits, same parties, same claim
  • Issue preclusion: Prevents relitigating issues of law or fact previously decided in a valid judgment.

Impleader

  • Defendant can bring in a third party who might be liable for the original plaintiff's claim
  • A required step if someone besides the defendant should be subject to a claim

Intervention

  • A third party may seek to join a lawsuit to protect their interests
  • An existing party is unavailable to represent the intervener's needs

Interpleader

  • A legal mechanism where a party with funds or property is the subject of multiple conflicting claims can enter court to resolve the issue and clear liability to all parties.

Joinder

  • Joining two or more parties or legal issues in a suit; same transaction or occurrence
  • Permissive: Parties can join claims/causes of action if they share common questions of law or fact.
  • Compulsory: Parties must join claims that arise in the same transaction or occurrence.

Rule 11 Sanctions

  • Rule aimed at deterring frivolous actions by penalizing parties, lawyers or other participants who advance baseless claims/defenses/actions.

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