Personal Jurisdiction Overview
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Questions and Answers

What must be established in the initial pleading of a complaint?

  • Factors related to the defendants' personal history
  • A detailed account of all evidence available
  • Grounds upon jurisdiction over parties and claim (correct)
  • An exhaustive list of all potential witnesses
  • Which case relates to the standard of pleading that requires allegations to be plausible?

  • Swanson v. Citibank
  • Lassiter case
  • Twombly (correct)
  • Harris case
  • Under Matthew's balancing test, which factor is NOT considered?

  • States interest
  • Likelihood of erroneous decision because of absence
  • Plaintiffs interest
  • Public opinion (correct)
  • In the context of initial pleadings, what does the rule 12(B)(6) address?

    <p>Failure to state a claim upon which relief can be granted</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about fraud pleading is accurate according to rule 9?

    <p>Circumstances must be stated with particularity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what condition can a protective order be issued according to rule 26 C?

    <p>If disclosure of information to the public will result in harm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of a motion for summary judgment?

    <p>To enter judgment based on the absence of material fact disputes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What burden does the party moving for summary judgment hold?

    <p>They must demonstrate a complete lack of evidence from the opposing party</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What standard must a plaintiff meet when moving for summary judgment?

    <p>Present evidence so strong that no reasonable jury could rule against them</p> Signup and view all the answers

    According to the 7th Amendment, what right is provided regarding jury trials?

    <p>The right to a jury trial in legal claims seeking damages</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which case illustrates that a plaintiff must present actual facts of a conspiracy in their motion for summary judgment?

    <p>Matushita</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of a jury trial, what is typically required for legal claims?

    <p>Legal claims often must be addressed before equitable claims to preserve the right to a jury trial</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is NOT considered when determining if a legal claim can proceed to jury trial?

    <p>Is the claim seeking constitutional review?</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a preemptory challenge in jury selection?

    <p>Removing a juror without a listed reason.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what circumstance can a party move for judgment as a matter of law?

    <p>After the other side has had the opportunity to be heard.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does 'remitter' refer to in the context of jury verdicts?

    <p>Trimming the jury's verdict without ordering a new trial.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly defines 'claim preclusion'?

    <p>Preventing relitigation of a claim that has already been decided.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of a 'renewed motion for judgment as a matter of law'?

    <p>To challenge a judgment that was made incorrectly in the first place.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a requirement for issue preclusion?

    <p>The issue must involve different parties.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes 'additur' from 'remitter' in legal terms?

    <p>Additur increases an inadequate verdict instead of ordering a new trial.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which scenario would issue preclusion apply?

    <p>When a party revisits an issue that has been settled in a previous trial.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes personal jurisdiction?

    <p>It requires a long arm statute for authorization.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a requirement for proper venue?

    <p>The claim must have arisen in the district.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor does NOT relate to the public factors of convenience in venue transfer?

    <p>Location where the claim arose.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what circumstances may a court decline to exercise jurisdiction through forum non conveniens?

    <p>If there is a more appropriate court system available.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a requirement for service of process?

    <p>It must satisfy the notice requirement reasonably.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What constitutes subject matter jurisdiction?

    <p>Federal question and diversity jurisdiction.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is not a factor in determining fairness in personal jurisdiction?

    <p>The jurisdiction's economic impact.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the importance of Mullane in the context of service of process?

    <p>It provides guidelines for reasonable notice methods.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes permissive joinder from compulsory joinder?

    <p>Permissive joinder is based on common questions of law or fact.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a cross claim, what is a requirement for filing the claim?

    <p>It must arise from the same transaction or occurrence.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one factor that determines if a party is deemed necessary in compulsory joinder?

    <p>Whether complete relief can be granted without them.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must a defendant demonstrate to implead a third party?

    <p>There must be a legal theory that establishes derivative liability.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is true regarding the requirements for intervention?

    <p>The intervening party must have a legal interest that could be harmed if not joined.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can a third party defendant do once they are joined in the case via impleader?

    <p>They can add further claims as long as there is jurisdiction.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true about the role of absentee parties in compulsory joinder?

    <p>The court can proceed without absentee parties if it's not possible to join them.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which scenario best demonstrates a situation for permissive joinder?

    <p>Two plaintiffs who have claims arising from the same car accident joining together.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the core concept of personal jurisdiction?

    <p>Fairness in the exercise of control over a defendant</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a type of personal jurisdiction?

    <p>Subject matter jurisdiction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What criterion must be met regarding minimum contacts with the forum state?

    <p>There must be a continuous and systematic connection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what circumstances can a defendant be said to have 'consented' to personal jurisdiction?

    <p>If they agree to conduct business in the state or do not object upon appearing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the concept of 'relatedness' refer to in personal jurisdiction?

    <p>The relevance of the defendant's contacts to the plaintiff's claim</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a requirement of a long arm statute?

    <p>It allows jurisdiction based on the defendant's systematic activities in the state</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of personal jurisdiction, what does 'purposeful availment' mean?

    <p>The defendant's participation in benefits and privileges of the state</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which case established that merely placing an item in commerce is often not sufficient for jurisdiction?

    <p>WW Volkswagen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Personal Jurisdiction

    • Courts' ability to exercise control over someone or something
    • Core concept is fairness for chord 2 exercise jurisdiction over defendant

    Types

    • In rem: Property is the subject
    • In personam:
      • Domicile: defendant maintains permanent home in the forum state
      • Tag (Burnham v. Superior ct): consent if you show up and don't object or agree to do business in the state
        • Mallory v. Norfolk Southern
        • Burger King
      • Long Arm Statute (statutory requirements): If nothing else satisfies, the long arm statute will allow jurisdiction over defendant
        • Unlimited
        • Follow constitutional requirements: must satisfy due process by:
          • Minimum contacts with the forum state (Int. shoe - doing business in state is continuous and systematic)
            • Factors:
              • defendants level of purposeful availment - did defendant take advantage of privileges and benefits enjoyed by the forum state residents; not accidentally (ex: using state courts or resources or doing business in state)
    • Limited

    Fairness

    • Must not offend traditional notions of Fair play and substantial justice
    • Exercise of personal jurisdiction must be fair
    • Factors:
      • Inconvenience to defendant—would it severely disadvantage defendant?
      • Plaintiffs interest—Plaintiffs interest in obtaining convenient and fair relief
      • Cost of litigating in defendants domicile and difficulty of travel to
      • Forum state interest—interest in providing redress for its residents or an interest in the outcome of the case
      • Judicial efficiency—ease of litigating in forum state (ex: consider location of witnesses, evidence, ETC)

    Notice

    • Defendant must be reasonably notified of the pending lawsuit
    • Requirement: notice must be reasonably calculated under the circumstances to apprise defendant of pendency of action

    Subject Matter Jurisdiction

    • Courts' ability to exercise authority over a claim
    • Federal courts are limited
    • State courts - anywhere there is personal jurisdiction
    • Types:
      • Federal question jurisdiction
      • Diversity jurisdiction
      • Supplemental jurisdiction
      • Removal jurisdiction

    Federal Question Jurisdiction (1331)

    • If a claim arises under the constitution, US treaty, or federal law, the court has federal question jurisdiction
    • Plaintiffs claim must clearly raise a claim arising under federal authority (does it raise a federal question? Mottley case: Cannot arise out of a predicted defense or counterclaim)
    • Is it the right kind of federal issue? (Substantial federal issue or federal cause of action (by statute)

    Diversity Jurisdiction (1332)

    • Gives federal courts authority over citizens of different states, even when claims do not arise under federal law
    • Total amount in controversy must be more than $75,000
    • Complete diversity: defendant and plaintiff must be from different states

    Venue

    • Determining federal judicial districts in which plaintiffs may bring suit
    • Main factor is convenience
    • Venue is proper:
      • In any district where defendant resides (if all defendants are from the same state)
      • In any district where a substantial part of the claim arose(where it occurred)
    • How do we know which venue is proper within a state? (corporations) – interpretations:
      • Corporation is a resident of all districts.
      • Corporation is a resident only in the districts where they have corporate address.
    • Venue Transfer

    Erie Doctrine

    • In diversity cases, federal courts mostly apply state substantive law and federal procedural law
    • When a federal law SUBSTANTIALLY conflicts with state law, the court should apply federal law
    • Procedural Law: the rules by which a case will be heard
    • Substantive Law: how the facts of the case will be interpreted
    • Analysis: Do you apply state or federal substantive law?
      • If there is a conflict between federal and state laws, we use guided (fed Q on point)
      • If federal and state laws don't directly conflict, we use unguided
        • Is there a federal question on point?

    Discovery

    • Process where parties seek an exchange of information
    • Rule 26 involves depositions, requests for production, interrogatories, and conferences
    • Scope: Material is discoverable if
      • Non privileged
        • Attorney-client privilege: communication between attorney and client done in private; Providing legal advice
        • Work product (rule 26b3): prepared in anticipation of the litigation by the client or attorney or agent

    Motion for Summary Judgment

    • Asks court to enter judgment against the opposing party
    • Rule 56: facts are viewed in light most favorable to non moving party
    • Happens after discovery and before trial
    • Is there an actual dispute of facts?
      • Yes, then trial
      • No, then summary judgment
    • The party that moves for summary judgment bears the burden of production
    • Evidence is weighed in favor of plaintiff unless there is actual evidence to contradict

    Preclusion

    • Claim preclusion: Prevents a party who had the opportunity to litigate a claim from relitigating a claim.
    • Types: merged (won in first lawsuit), barred (lost in first lawsuit)
    • Issue preclusion: Prevents parties from relitigating issues of law or fact in a subsequent lawsuit, based on the conditions. Must have been valid and final on the merits of the case. There needs to have been an actual opportunity to litigate in the prior case. The party against whom the issue is asserted must have had a full and fair opportunity to litigate the issue.

    Impleader

    • Allows a defendant to bring a third party into a lawsuit if that third party may be liable to the defendant for the plaintiff's claim.
      • The defendant is trying to make the third party liable.
      • The third party now has to respond to the claim.

    Intervention

    • Allows a third party to join a lawsuit if they have an interest that would be harmed if not joined or if a statute gives an unconditional right to intervene.

    Interpleader

    • Allows a party holding a fund or property to bring all potential claimants into a single lawsuit to determine the rightful owner.

    Joinder

    • Claim joinder: Allows a party to bring additional parties or claims related to the same transaction or occurrence.
    • Counterclaim: A claim made by the defendant against the opposing party
      • Compulsory claim: arise from the same transaction or occurrence
      • Permissive claim: unrelated to the main transaction
    • Cross-claim: A claim made by one party against another party on the same side of the lawsuit.
      • Can be permissive—not arising from the same transaction or occurrence
    • Permissive joinder: Allows parties to join in lawsuits based on a common question of law, fact, or transaction.

    Discovery Rule

    • Scope: Material is discoverable if relevant to the case
    • Non-privileged: communication done in private, providing legal advice
    • Work product: prepared in anticipation of the litigation by the client or attorney or agent, in aid of litigation or reasonable prospect of litigation

    Jury Trial

    • 7th Amendment: Guarantees the right to a jury trial in civil cases
    • Rule 38: States what happens in a trial process.
    • Galloway: Plaintiff did not meet the burden to get a directed verdict, this does not violate constitutional rights.

    Judgement as a Matter of Law

    • Judge taking a case from the jury
    • No way to find for the other side: rule 50
    • When can a movement be made
      • As soon as the other party has opportunity to be heard
      • After making statements or end of evidence

    Removing Jury

    Removing jurors, rule 47.

    • Removing jurors due to a specific reason and a preemptory challenge (race or sex).

    Judgment

    • Motion for a new trial
      • Serious errors occurred in the trial.
      • Sanders case: entitled to new trial if it prejudices litigant
    • Remitter: trims jury verdict instead of a new trial

    Preclusion

    • Claim preclusion (res judicata): prevents relitigation of a claim that could've been raised in a prior action.

    • Issue preclusion (collateral estoppel): prevents the relitigation of an issue of law or fact that was actually litigated and determined in a prior action.

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    Description

    Explore the essential concepts of personal jurisdiction, including the different types such as in rem and in personam with their respective factors. Understand the legal principles that ensure fairness when courts exercise jurisdiction over defendants. This quiz tests your knowledge on how jurisdiction is determined by factors like domicile and minimum contacts.

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