Patient Safety and Age-Related Risks

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Questions and Answers

Which of these components is NOT included in a Transfer/Hand-Off Report?

  • Client's Date of Birth
  • Client's Diagnosis
  • Discharge Plan
  • Client's Insurance Information (correct)

What is the most important factor to consider when receiving a verbal prescription?

  • The client's weight
  • The client's age
  • The client's allergies (correct)
  • The prescriber's title

What is NOT a recommended safeguard to prevent client harm when using verbal prescriptions?

  • Immediately document the prescription in the client's record
  • Read-back all prescriptions with the prescriber
  • Establish facility-specific regulations for verbal prescriptions
  • Verify the client's insurance information (correct)

Why do verbal prescriptions necessitate special procedures and safeguards?

<p>They are often given in emergent situations (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When are verbal prescriptions NOT required to be written down immediately?

<p>In an emergency situation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of a telephone report in healthcare?

<p>To coordinate care between healthcare providers (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these is NOT a recommended practice when making a telephone report?

<p>Engage in personal conversations with the recipient (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of a health care proxy in relation to a client's care?

<p>To make medical decisions for the client if they are unable (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best defines a near miss in healthcare?

<p>A potential error that could have caused harm but was avoided. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the provided information, what is the primary purpose of incident reports?

<p>To improve processes through root cause analysis. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A toddler is observed putting a small toy in their mouth, which represents a safety risk. According to the information, what type of risk does this primarily represent?

<p>Risk of choking or poisoning (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which age group is identified as having an increased risk of engaging in risk-taking behaviors such as speeding, alcohol use, or unprotected sex?

<p>Adolescents (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An adult reports having difficulty seeing in low light and also reports some problems remembering recent events. According to these symptoms and the content provided, which of the following would be a higher risk for this person?

<p>Risks associated with lack of mobility and sensory deficits (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When a patient safety event occurs, what is the first action that should be taken, according to the provided information?

<p>Notify the nurse leader and the provider. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does 'TJC's Standards of Compliance' primarily focus on?

<p>Medical error prevention and maintaining healthcare standards. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is most closely related to a sentinel event?

<p>An adverse event that caused severe physical or psychological harm to a patient. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the I-SBAR-R communication technique, what does the 'B' stand for?

<p>Background information relevant to the patient's situation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the I-SBAR-R format, what information should be included in the 'Situation' component?

<p>The admitting diagnosis, changes in condition or reason for contact. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When using I-SBAR-R, what type of information should be relayed under the 'Background' component?

<p>The patient's admitting diagnosis, lab results, and code status. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of the 'Readback' step in I-SBAR-R?

<p>To verify and confirm the orders and instructions received. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse using I-SBAR-R identifies the patient and their location and explains the reason for contacting the provider based on changes in status. Which steps of I-SBAR-R are being implemented?

<p>Identification and Situation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the Transforming Care at the Bedside plan, what percentage of their time should nurses be spending in direct client care?

<p>70% (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a component of a rapid response team as outlined in the Transforming Care at the Bedside plan?

<p>A mental health counselor. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are two important precautions for a patient at risk of seizures?

<p>Having suction equipment and oxygen readily available at the bedside. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the priority action when a client begins to experience a seizure?

<p>Ensuring client safety by placing them in a side-lying position and protecting their head (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the appropriate action regarding restraints during a seizure?

<p>Avoiding all restraint during the seizure activity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to monitor the time of a client's seizure?

<p>To know when to call for medical support (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After a seizure, what must be assessed before allowing the client to eat or drink?

<p>The client's gag reflex and ability to follow directions (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to identify which body parts are involved during a seizure?

<p>To understand the type and extent of abnormal brain activity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of padding the side rails of a client's bed who is at risk of having seizures?

<p>To protect the client from injury during a seizure (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of obtaining a toxicology screen after a client has a seizure?

<p>To assess for drug-induced seizure activity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale for removing constrictive clothing and jewelry from a client at risk of seizures?

<p>To reduce the risk of injury during the seizure (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one primary effect of increased thoracic spinal curvature in older adults?

<p>Stooped posture (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What contributes to poor balance in older adults?

<p>Dysfunction of the nervous system (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is primarily associated with slow movement in the elderly?

<p>Loss of cartilage in joints (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does decreased strength influence mobility in older adults?

<p>It results in fatigue with ambulation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary characteristic of passive range of motion?

<p>Assistance is provided by another individual (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which change in older adults is most closely linked to reduced depth perception?

<p>Thickening of the lens in the eye (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect does joint mobility weakness have on older clients?

<p>Wider stance and slower steps (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a direct effect of loss of muscle mass in older adults?

<p>Increased strength (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom should be monitored for indicating a possible urinary tract infection?

<p>Urinary urgency (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an effective intervention to decrease the risk of renal calculi in a client?

<p>Increase activity in bed (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How often should a client be repositioned to prevent pressure injuries?

<p>Every 2 hours (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a recommended practice to maintain skin integrity in immobile clients?

<p>Use pressure redistribution devices (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What common sign may indicate deconditioning in a client?

<p>Weakness and lightheadedness (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does moisture play in skin integrity for immobile clients?

<p>Excess moisture increases risk of breakdown (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the Borg Rating of Perceived Exertion (RPE) scale?

<p>A subjective scale for gauging exertion levels (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What dietary considerations should be made to promote healing in clients with skin damage?

<p>Adequate intake of calories and protein (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Near Miss

An incident that could have resulted in harm to the patient but was prevented.

Patient Safety Event

An incident that occurred without causing any harm to the patient.

Sentinel Event

A serious incident that caused significant physical or psychological harm to the patient.

Root-Cause-Analysis

An incident report used to identify and address the underlying causes of errors.

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Verification of qualifications and competency of health care staff

A measure taken to prevent errors related to patient identity or medication.

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Rights and education of clients

Providing information about their rights and involvement in their care.

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Infection control

Measures taken to reduce the risk of infections, such as hand hygiene and environmental cleaning.

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Management of medications

Processes for managing medications safely, including verifying the correct medication, dose, and route.

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I-SBAR-R

A structured communication technique used in healthcare to ensure clear and concise communication.

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I (Identification)

Clearly identifies who is communicating, the patient, location, and the reason for the communication.

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S (Situation)

States the current problem, reason for contact, or changes in patient's condition.

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B (Background)

Includes relevant patient information such as diagnosis, medications, allergies, vital signs, and lab results.

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A (Assessment)

Provides the nurse's assessment of the patient, including their general impression and significant findings.

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R (Recommendation)

Offers the nurse's recommendations for further action, such as additional tests, treatments, or a specialist consultation.

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R (Readback)

The receiver acknowledges the information and repeats back any orders or instructions.

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Documentation

The nurse documents all relevant information, including patient status changes, provider notifications, orders, interventions, and evaluations.

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Baseline Vital Signs

Checking vital signs, including oxygen saturation, before a seizure occurs helps to establish a baseline for comparison during and after the seizure. It assists in identifying any potential issues and informs subsequent care.

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Establish Two IV Sites

Establishing two IV sites before a seizure allows for immediate access to medication and fluids, crucial for managing a seizure and addressing potential complications.

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Remove Constrictive Clothing and Jewelry

Removing potentially constrictive clothing and jewelry helps to prevent any restriction of blood flow or airway obstruction during a seizure. It ensures patient safety and comfort.

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Aura Before Seizure

Asking about an aura helps to identify a potential warning sign that precedes seizures. This information allows for early intervention and preparation for the seizure.

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Protect the Client's Head

Placing padding under the client's head during a seizure protects them from injury. This simple measure reduces the risk of head trauma, a common complication associated with seizures.

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Body Parts Involved in Seizure

Monitoring the specific body parts involved in the seizure helps to determine the extent and type of seizure activity. It assists in assessing the severity and informing potential treatment options.

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Eye Movements During Seizure

Assessing eye movements during a seizure provides insights into the neurological activity involved. Observing whether eyes are open or closed, twitching, or pupil size helps characterize the seizure type and severity.

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Administer Benzodiazepines

Administering benzodiazepines IV (or IM if IV is not yet established) as prescribed by the provider, helps to control seizures and reduce their duration. This medication is a vital component of managing seizures.

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Urinary Tract Infection (UTI)

A condition that occurs when bacteria enter the urinary tract, causing inflammation and infection.

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Urinary Urgency and Frequency

Increased frequency and urgency to urinate.

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Burning Sensation During Urination

Pain or burning sensation during urination.

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Frequent Repositioning

Repositioning the client at least every 2 hours to improve blood flow to bony prominences and prevent skin breakdown.

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Using Pillows and Cushions

Using pillows and cushions to support the client in different positions, reducing pressure on bony prominences and preventing skin breakdown.

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Pressure Redistribution Devices

Using pressure redistribution devices to minimize pressure on areas prone to skin breakdown.

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Maintaining Skin Cleanliness

Keeping the skin dry and clean to prevent bacterial growth and skin breakdown.

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Encouraging Increased Activity in Bed

Encouraging the client to increase activity level in bed to promote blood flow and prevent urinary stasis.

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Transfer/Hand-Off Report

A comprehensive report that includes all patient information, from demographics to discharge planning, used for seamless communication between healthcare teams.

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Telephone Report

A concise report delivered via phone, used for urgent updates or requests for specific information about a patient.

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Verbal Prescriptions

These prescriptions are only given in emergencies. When receiving a verbal prescription, it's crucial to write it down immediately for verification and read-back to ensure accuracy.

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Transcribing Verbal Prescriptions

A process where a nurse clarifies and verifies the details of a verbal prescription with the prescriber before implementing it. The prescriber's cosignature is needed to validate the order.

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Safeguards for Verbal Prescriptions

These are safety measures to prevent errors when receiving verbal prescriptions. They include: verifying the correct patient, checking for allergies, confirming prescription details, clarifying similar-sounding words, documenting the prescription immediately, read-backing the prescription, and resolving any concerns.

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Discharge Plan

Specific instructions for patients after they are discharged from the hospital. This could include medications, follow-up appointments, dietary changes, and necessary equipment or aids.

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Family Involvement

Communication with the family about the patient's care, involving them in decision-making and providing support and education.

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Healthcare Proxy

A person designated by the patient to make healthcare decisions on their behalf if they are unable to do so themselves.

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Thoracic Spinal Curvature

The natural bending of the spine, especially in the upper back, increases with age due to bone loss and wear and tear on the discs between vertebrae.

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Muscle Mass in Older Adults

Loss of muscle mass, especially in the legs, can lead to tiring quickly during walking.

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Passive Range of Motion

The ability to move a joint through its full range of motion without assistance from others.

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Active Range of Motion

The voluntary movement of a joint performed by the individual without any help.

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Balance in Older Adults

The ability to maintain balance, often affected by changes in the nervous system.

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Joint Stiffness

Stiffness and less flexibility in joints as we age can be caused by wear and tear on cartilage and bone changes.

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Ankle and Foot Weakness

Weakness in the ankles and feet can make walking more difficult and increase the risk of falls.

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Vision Changes and Mobility

Changes in the eyes, such as weakened muscles and thicker lenses, can make it harder for older adults to see clearly, increasing the risk of falls.

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Study Notes

Patient Safety Goals

  • The Joint Commission (TJC) establishes National Patient Safety Goals (NPSGs) each year, setting standards for safety in healthcare facilities.
  • NPSGs cover various areas:
    • Correctly identifying patients.
    • Improving communication among staff.
    • Safe medication use.
    • Safe alarm use.
    • Preventing healthcare-acquired infections.
    • Preventing suicide.
    • Preventing adverse events in surgery.
    • Improving health care equity.
  • Infants and preschoolers (0-4 years) are at risk for burns related to hot liquids or steam, accidental poisoning, choking, and drowning. Car safety is also critical.

  • Adolescents (13-19 years) face risks like bullying, violence, suicide, risky behaviors, and injuries from water, fire, sports, and vehicles.

  • Adults (19 years and older) are at risk for lifestyle choices like alcohol consumption or smoking, along with workplace accidents and leisure activities. Middle-aged adults are at higher risk for alcohol abuse, mental issues, and obesity. Older adults are at risk of falls due to chronic illnesses, less physical activity, impaired mobility, and cognitive/sensory issues.

Hospital-Acquired Infections (HAC)

  • Central Line-Associated Bloodstream Infections (CLABSI) occur when pathogens enter the bloodstream via a central line.

  • Catheter-Associated Urinary Tract Infections (CAUTIs) involve pathogens entering the urinary system through a catheter.

  • Surgical-site infections (SSIs) are infections occurring at the surgical site.

  • Ventilator-Associated Pneumonia (VAP) is pneumonia that develops while on a ventilator.

Fire Safety

  • Follow R.A.C.E. for fire response: Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish.
  • Use the P.A.S.S. method to use a fire extinguisher (Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep).

ISBARR Technique (Hand-off communication)

  • Identification: Identify self, unit, patient, and location.
  • Situation: State the issue, diagnosis or changing conditions.
  • Background: Provide background information (medical history, meds, allergies, etc).
  • Assessment: Describe the patient's current status and assessment findings.
  • Recommendation: State recommendations and treatments.
  • Readback: The receiver repeats the information.

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