Podcast
Questions and Answers
What is the primary goal of pain control in the postoperative setting?
What is the primary goal of pain control in the postoperative setting?
- To eliminate all sources of pain permanently
- To provide pain relief with minimal side effects on homeostasis (correct)
- To maximize the dosage of analgesics administered post-surgery
- To ensure complete sedation during and after the procedure
Which of the following factors does NOT influence the degree of pain experienced by a patient?
Which of the following factors does NOT influence the degree of pain experienced by a patient?
- Age of the patient
- Surgical site
- Anesthetic technique
- Type of insurance held by the patient (correct)
What is a requirement for a patient to use Patient Controlled Analgesia (PCA)?
What is a requirement for a patient to use Patient Controlled Analgesia (PCA)?
- Patient needs to have a history of opioid addiction
- Patient should be under general anesthesia during administration
- Patient must be able to self-administer via oral medications
- Patient must be oriented and have IV, SC, or epidural access (correct)
Which monitoring device is primarily used to measure the oxygen saturation of arterial blood?
Which monitoring device is primarily used to measure the oxygen saturation of arterial blood?
What can cause inaccurate readings in a pulse oximeter?
What can cause inaccurate readings in a pulse oximeter?
What is the purpose of having routine monitors during anesthesia?
What is the purpose of having routine monitors during anesthesia?
Which analgesic method aims to prevent or reduce noxious stimuli before surgery?
Which analgesic method aims to prevent or reduce noxious stimuli before surgery?
Which of the following is NOT a common monitoring device used in anesthesia?
Which of the following is NOT a common monitoring device used in anesthesia?
Which complication is associated with muscle necrosis and weakness during anesthesia?
Which complication is associated with muscle necrosis and weakness during anesthesia?
What is the primary reason for avoiding elective surgery within 6 months of a myocardial infarction (MI)?
What is the primary reason for avoiding elective surgery within 6 months of a myocardial infarction (MI)?
Which of the following is NOT a recommended prevention strategy for malignant hyperthermia?
Which of the following is NOT a recommended prevention strategy for malignant hyperthermia?
In the event of metabolic or physiologic derangements during anesthesia management, which action is critical?
In the event of metabolic or physiologic derangements during anesthesia management, which action is critical?
The severity of gastric aspiration is primarily influenced by which of the following factors?
The severity of gastric aspiration is primarily influenced by which of the following factors?
Which receptor class is primarily responsible for sedation and spinal analgesia?
Which receptor class is primarily responsible for sedation and spinal analgesia?
What is one of the central nervous system effects of morphine?
What is one of the central nervous system effects of morphine?
What is the effect of opioids on the gastrointestinal system?
What is the effect of opioids on the gastrointestinal system?
Which of the following is NOT an indication for opioid use?
Which of the following is NOT an indication for opioid use?
What is a common cardiovascular effect of morphine?
What is a common cardiovascular effect of morphine?
Which receptor class is associated with mood changes primarily?
Which receptor class is associated with mood changes primarily?
What is the mode of administration that opioids can be given?
What is the mode of administration that opioids can be given?
Which of the following effects is directly linked to opioid-induced CNS excitation?
Which of the following effects is directly linked to opioid-induced CNS excitation?
What is an effect of morphine on the respiratory system?
What is an effect of morphine on the respiratory system?
What impact do opioids have on bladder function?
What impact do opioids have on bladder function?
What does the capnometer primarily measure?
What does the capnometer primarily measure?
Which monitor is specifically used to assess muscle relaxation during anesthesia?
Which monitor is specifically used to assess muscle relaxation during anesthesia?
What is the primary goal of achieving amnesia in general anesthesia?
What is the primary goal of achieving amnesia in general anesthesia?
Which monitor would be used for continuous blood pressure monitoring?
Which monitor would be used for continuous blood pressure monitoring?
What is the purpose of the Swan-Ganz catheter?
What is the purpose of the Swan-Ganz catheter?
Which of the following is NOT one of the '6 A's of Anesthesia'?
Which of the following is NOT one of the '6 A's of Anesthesia'?
Which measurement tool is used to identify and measure inhaled and exhaled gases?
Which measurement tool is used to identify and measure inhaled and exhaled gases?
What is the function of the blood pressure cuff?
What is the function of the blood pressure cuff?
What condition is indicated by a PO2 of 60 mmHg corresponding to a Hb saturation of 90%?
What condition is indicated by a PO2 of 60 mmHg corresponding to a Hb saturation of 90%?
Which device is utilized for assessing the adequacy of ventilation?
Which device is utilized for assessing the adequacy of ventilation?
What is a notable risk associated with Nitrous Oxide during emergence from anesthesia?
What is a notable risk associated with Nitrous Oxide during emergence from anesthesia?
Which of the following volatile inhalational agents is least likely to cause postoperative hepatitis?
Which of the following volatile inhalational agents is least likely to cause postoperative hepatitis?
What should be administered during recovery after Nitrous Oxide administration?
What should be administered during recovery after Nitrous Oxide administration?
Which adverse effect is primarily associated with chronic use of volatile inhalational agents?
Which adverse effect is primarily associated with chronic use of volatile inhalational agents?
What specific danger does Nitrous Oxide pose in patients with trapped air in closed spaces?
What specific danger does Nitrous Oxide pose in patients with trapped air in closed spaces?
What major toxicity concern is associated with volatile inhalational agents?
What major toxicity concern is associated with volatile inhalational agents?
Which volatile inhalational agent is likely to have a faster emergence profile?
Which volatile inhalational agent is likely to have a faster emergence profile?
What is a potential central nervous system effect of volatile inhalational agents?
What is a potential central nervous system effect of volatile inhalational agents?
Halothane can rarely be implicated in which postoperative complication?
Halothane can rarely be implicated in which postoperative complication?
What is the risk of administering Nitrous Oxide to patients with closed air spaces?
What is the risk of administering Nitrous Oxide to patients with closed air spaces?
What is the primary function of colloid infusion in fluid management?
What is the primary function of colloid infusion in fluid management?
Which IV fluid solution has the highest sodium concentration?
Which IV fluid solution has the highest sodium concentration?
In which IV fluid is lactate converted to bicarbonate for buffering capacity?
In which IV fluid is lactate converted to bicarbonate for buffering capacity?
What is the osmolarity range for the majority of IV fluids typically used?
What is the osmolarity range for the majority of IV fluids typically used?
Which electrolytes are present in D5W IV fluid?
Which electrolytes are present in D5W IV fluid?
Which airway technique is contraindicated in patients with a known or suspected cervical spine fracture?
Which airway technique is contraindicated in patients with a known or suspected cervical spine fracture?
What complication may arise from using a nasopharyngeal airway?
What complication may arise from using a nasopharyngeal airway?
What is the primary purpose of an oropharyngeal airway?
What is the primary purpose of an oropharyngeal airway?
Which of the following is NOT an indication for tracheal intubation?
Which of the following is NOT an indication for tracheal intubation?
What is a common complication associated with oropharyngeal airway use?
What is a common complication associated with oropharyngeal airway use?
Which technique is an advanced airway management method?
Which technique is an advanced airway management method?
What is one of the primary concerns when using a nasopharyngeal airway?
What is one of the primary concerns when using a nasopharyngeal airway?
What is the maximum dose of lidocaine when used with epinephrine for a patient based on lean body weight?
What is the maximum dose of lidocaine when used with epinephrine for a patient based on lean body weight?
What is a critical feature of the patency of airway assessment?
What is a critical feature of the patency of airway assessment?
Which of the following local anesthetics has the highest maximum dose per kg of body weight?
Which of the following local anesthetics has the highest maximum dose per kg of body weight?
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of systemic toxicity from local anesthetics?
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of systemic toxicity from local anesthetics?
What is the order of CNS effects typically observed with local anesthetic systemic toxicity?
What is the order of CNS effects typically observed with local anesthetic systemic toxicity?
Which condition could lead to systemic toxicity from local anesthetics?
Which condition could lead to systemic toxicity from local anesthetics?
What is the main purpose of administering atropine or glycopyrrolate during anesthesia?
What is the main purpose of administering atropine or glycopyrrolate during anesthesia?
Which of the following statements accurately describes regional anesthesia?
Which of the following statements accurately describes regional anesthesia?
What should be considered a contraindication to regional anesthesia?
What should be considered a contraindication to regional anesthesia?
During preparation for regional anesthesia, what is an important step to ensure effectiveness?
During preparation for regional anesthesia, what is an important step to ensure effectiveness?
What is the primary purpose of premedication in the context of anesthesia?
What is the primary purpose of premedication in the context of anesthesia?
Which of the following is a potential complication of regional anesthesia?
Which of the following is a potential complication of regional anesthesia?
What is a notable characteristic of thiopental as an intravenous anesthetic?
What is a notable characteristic of thiopental as an intravenous anesthetic?
What type of regional anesthesia involves the application of a local anesthetic around a peripheral nerve?
What type of regional anesthesia involves the application of a local anesthetic around a peripheral nerve?
Which of the following effects is NOT associated with thiopental?
Which of the following effects is NOT associated with thiopental?
Which factor is NOT a relative indication for using regional anesthesia?
Which factor is NOT a relative indication for using regional anesthesia?
What technique is used in regional anesthesia for proper needle placement?
What technique is used in regional anesthesia for proper needle placement?
Why is it important to prevent parasympathomimetic effects during anesthesia?
Why is it important to prevent parasympathomimetic effects during anesthesia?
What type of solution is thiopental prepared as?
What type of solution is thiopental prepared as?
What can be a consequence of administering a bolus dose of thiopental?
What can be a consequence of administering a bolus dose of thiopental?
Which condition is a contraindication for the use of thiopental?
Which condition is a contraindication for the use of thiopental?
What is the typical half-life of thiopental?
What is the typical half-life of thiopental?
What is the most common mild reaction to blood transfusions?
What is the most common mild reaction to blood transfusions?
Which symptom is less commonly associated with a febrile reaction during a transfusion?
Which symptom is less commonly associated with a febrile reaction during a transfusion?
What management step should be taken in the event of a mild allergic reaction to a transfusion?
What management step should be taken in the event of a mild allergic reaction to a transfusion?
Which factor increases the likelihood of experiencing a febrile reaction during transfusions?
Which factor increases the likelihood of experiencing a febrile reaction during transfusions?
What is a potential management strategy for severe allergic reactions during transfusions?
What is a potential management strategy for severe allergic reactions during transfusions?
What is the most common complication associated with regional anesthesia during labor?
What is the most common complication associated with regional anesthesia during labor?
Which of the following is a method of pain relief during labor that involves controlled breathing techniques?
Which of the following is a method of pain relief during labor that involves controlled breathing techniques?
What type of anesthesia is typically preferred for cesarean sections?
What type of anesthesia is typically preferred for cesarean sections?
What common drugs are associated with systemic medication for pain relief during labor?
What common drugs are associated with systemic medication for pain relief during labor?
Which route of analgesia is known for providing excellent analgesia with minimal depressant effects on both mother and fetus?
Which route of analgesia is known for providing excellent analgesia with minimal depressant effects on both mother and fetus?
What is a primary reason for the popularity of propofol in outpatient surgery?
What is a primary reason for the popularity of propofol in outpatient surgery?
Which characteristic differentiates benzodiazepines from propofol in their use as anesthetic agents?
Which characteristic differentiates benzodiazepines from propofol in their use as anesthetic agents?
What is a key metabolic advantage of propofol compared to thiopental?
What is a key metabolic advantage of propofol compared to thiopental?
Which of the following is a notable feature of flumazenil, the benzodiazepine antagonist?
Which of the following is a notable feature of flumazenil, the benzodiazepine antagonist?
What differentiates the use of neuroleptics in anesthesia from other classes of drugs?
What differentiates the use of neuroleptics in anesthesia from other classes of drugs?
Which type of anesthesia involves the administration of anesthetics near a nerve to block sensation?
Which type of anesthesia involves the administration of anesthetics near a nerve to block sensation?
What is the role of fluid therapy in anesthesia management?
What is the role of fluid therapy in anesthesia management?
Which method is primarily used to maintain adequate oxygenation during anesthesia?
Which method is primarily used to maintain adequate oxygenation during anesthesia?
What is a potential risk associated with the use of epidural anesthesia?
What is a potential risk associated with the use of epidural anesthesia?
Which condition requires careful management during anesthesia due to its potential complications?
Which condition requires careful management during anesthesia due to its potential complications?
How does local infiltration anesthesia differ from regional anesthesia?
How does local infiltration anesthesia differ from regional anesthesia?
Which factor is critical for preoperative assessment before administering anesthesia?
Which factor is critical for preoperative assessment before administering anesthesia?
What is the purpose of supplemental oxygen in anesthesia?
What is the purpose of supplemental oxygen in anesthesia?
Which factor is least likely to influence the degree of pain experienced by a patient?
Which factor is least likely to influence the degree of pain experienced by a patient?
What is the primary advantage of preemptive analgesia?
What is the primary advantage of preemptive analgesia?
What is a key requirement for a patient to effectively use Patient Controlled Analgesia (PCA)?
What is a key requirement for a patient to effectively use Patient Controlled Analgesia (PCA)?
Which monitoring device is crucial for assessing physiological function during anesthesia?
Which monitoring device is crucial for assessing physiological function during anesthesia?
What is a limitation of using a pulse oximeter for monitoring patients?
What is a limitation of using a pulse oximeter for monitoring patients?
Why is it important to monitor the exposed parts of a patient during anesthesia?
Why is it important to monitor the exposed parts of a patient during anesthesia?
What common misconception about monitoring devices is incorrect?
What common misconception about monitoring devices is incorrect?
Which of the following routes of analgesic administration is not typically used?
Which of the following routes of analgesic administration is not typically used?
Which condition is most likely to lead to extrarenal sodium loss?
Which condition is most likely to lead to extrarenal sodium loss?
What symptom is characteristic of 10% body water loss?
What symptom is characteristic of 10% body water loss?
Which factor can cause redistribution of extracellular fluid volume?
Which factor can cause redistribution of extracellular fluid volume?
What is a potential risk when correcting chronic hyponatremia too quickly?
What is a potential risk when correcting chronic hyponatremia too quickly?
Which condition is associated with renal loss of water?
Which condition is associated with renal loss of water?
What is one of the most common mild reactions during blood transfusions?
What is one of the most common mild reactions during blood transfusions?
What is a common symptom experienced during a febrile reaction?
What is a common symptom experienced during a febrile reaction?
What management step should be taken for a patient experiencing a mild allergic reaction during transfusion?
What management step should be taken for a patient experiencing a mild allergic reaction during transfusion?
What is a notable characteristic of severe reactions to blood transfusion?
What is a notable characteristic of severe reactions to blood transfusion?
What is the recommended action if a febrile reaction occurs with a temperature above 38ºC?
What is the recommended action if a febrile reaction occurs with a temperature above 38ºC?
What is the primary goal in preparing a patient for emergency surgery when optimization of non-surgical disease states is not feasible?
What is the primary goal in preparing a patient for emergency surgery when optimization of non-surgical disease states is not feasible?
When can a patient be transported to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU)?
When can a patient be transported to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU)?
Which of the following is a potential complication related to the central nervous system during postoperative management?
Which of the following is a potential complication related to the central nervous system during postoperative management?
Which complication is associated with the respiratory system during postoperative management?
Which complication is associated with the respiratory system during postoperative management?
What is an expected outcome for a patient before being discharged from the post-anesthesia care unit?
What is an expected outcome for a patient before being discharged from the post-anesthesia care unit?
What is the primary purpose of simultaneous administration of atropine or glycopyrrolate during regional anesthesia?
What is the primary purpose of simultaneous administration of atropine or glycopyrrolate during regional anesthesia?
Which of the following statements accurately describes regional anesthesia?
Which of the following statements accurately describes regional anesthesia?
Which complication is NOT typically associated with regional anesthesia?
Which complication is NOT typically associated with regional anesthesia?
What should be done before administering regional anesthesia to a patient?
What should be done before administering regional anesthesia to a patient?
Which of the following is a relative contraindication for regional anesthesia?
Which of the following is a relative contraindication for regional anesthesia?
Which preoperative optimization is considered crucial for patients with diabetes mellitus?
Which preoperative optimization is considered crucial for patients with diabetes mellitus?
How can nerve localization be effectively achieved in regional anesthesia?
How can nerve localization be effectively achieved in regional anesthesia?
Which of the following indicates a successful regional anesthesia technique?
Which of the following indicates a successful regional anesthesia technique?
What is the primary purpose of assessing a patient's airway during the physical examination?
What is the primary purpose of assessing a patient's airway during the physical examination?
What is the potential risk if local anesthetic is injected intravascularly during a regional anesthesia procedure?
What is the potential risk if local anesthetic is injected intravascularly during a regional anesthesia procedure?
Which classification helps in assessing the visibility of the airway during intubation?
Which classification helps in assessing the visibility of the airway during intubation?
Which of the following conditions could lead to increased risk during anesthesia related to respiratory status?
Which of the following conditions could lead to increased risk during anesthesia related to respiratory status?
What should be assessed regarding a patient's medical history to help identify potential drug reactions?
What should be assessed regarding a patient's medical history to help identify potential drug reactions?
Which physical examination finding would be most relevant in assessing for difficult intubation?
Which physical examination finding would be most relevant in assessing for difficult intubation?
What is the significance of the 'thyromental distance' in airway assessment?
What is the significance of the 'thyromental distance' in airway assessment?
In which scenario is monitoring for raised intracranial pressure particularly relevant?
In which scenario is monitoring for raised intracranial pressure particularly relevant?
How does smoking cessation impact postoperative outcomes?
How does smoking cessation impact postoperative outcomes?
Which drug class is essential to optimize before surgery to minimize complications in patients with DM?
Which drug class is essential to optimize before surgery to minimize complications in patients with DM?
What is the maximum dose of bupivacaine without epinephrine for use in anesthetic procedures?
What is the maximum dose of bupivacaine without epinephrine for use in anesthetic procedures?
Which symptom is likely to occur first during systemic toxicity of local anesthetics at the CNS level?
Which symptom is likely to occur first during systemic toxicity of local anesthetics at the CNS level?
What factor is primarily associated with the risk of systemic toxicity of local anesthetics?
What factor is primarily associated with the risk of systemic toxicity of local anesthetics?
Which of the following statements regarding the maximum doses of local anesthetics is accurate?
Which of the following statements regarding the maximum doses of local anesthetics is accurate?
What is a potential consequence of systemic toxicity affecting the cardiovascular system?
What is a potential consequence of systemic toxicity affecting the cardiovascular system?
What is the approximate total body water (TBW) in liters for a 70 kg adult?
What is the approximate total body water (TBW) in liters for a 70 kg adult?
Which of the following accurately describes the fluid distribution in a 70 kg adult?
Which of the following accurately describes the fluid distribution in a 70 kg adult?
What clinical signs are indicative of ECF volume deficit?
What clinical signs are indicative of ECF volume deficit?
If a facial mask with an oxygen reservoir is set at 8 L/min, approximately what percentage of oxygen concentration is delivered?
If a facial mask with an oxygen reservoir is set at 8 L/min, approximately what percentage of oxygen concentration is delivered?
How does the Venturi mask benefit oxygen delivery?
How does the Venturi mask benefit oxygen delivery?
Which of the following fluid loss categorizations corresponds to a TBW fluid loss of more than 10%?
Which of the following fluid loss categorizations corresponds to a TBW fluid loss of more than 10%?
What happens to hematocrit levels during extracellular fluid expansion?
What happens to hematocrit levels during extracellular fluid expansion?
What essential factor must be ensured prior to anesthesia concerning hydration?
What essential factor must be ensured prior to anesthesia concerning hydration?
What are common symptoms of anaphylactic reactions in IgA deficient patients?
What are common symptoms of anaphylactic reactions in IgA deficient patients?
What is the typical time frame for the onset of TRALI after blood transfusion?
What is the typical time frame for the onset of TRALI after blood transfusion?
What is a major characteristic of the immunologic cause of TRALI?
What is a major characteristic of the immunologic cause of TRALI?
What management strategies are recommended for anaphylactic reactions in IgA deficient patients?
What management strategies are recommended for anaphylactic reactions in IgA deficient patients?
What is a primary consideration when planning future transfusions for an IgA deficient patient?
What is a primary consideration when planning future transfusions for an IgA deficient patient?
What is a common outcome of perioperative transfusions in relation to immune response?
What is a common outcome of perioperative transfusions in relation to immune response?
Which signs are indicative of the most serious hemolytic transfusion reactions?
Which signs are indicative of the most serious hemolytic transfusion reactions?
What nature does TRALI primarily exhibit as a pulmonary condition?
What nature does TRALI primarily exhibit as a pulmonary condition?
Which treatment is typically employed for TRALI management?
Which treatment is typically employed for TRALI management?
What is a significant indicator of septic shock in a patient?
What is a significant indicator of septic shock in a patient?
Which complication can result from hypovolemic shock?
Which complication can result from hypovolemic shock?
Which electrolyte change is most notably associated with stored blood?
Which electrolyte change is most notably associated with stored blood?
What is the correct first step in treating shock?
What is the correct first step in treating shock?
In spinal shock, what physiological state is typically observed?
In spinal shock, what physiological state is typically observed?
Which type of shock is most commonly associated with bacterial infections?
Which type of shock is most commonly associated with bacterial infections?
What is an atypical feature of septic shock?
What is an atypical feature of septic shock?
Which of the following is NOT a step in the general management of shock?
Which of the following is NOT a step in the general management of shock?
Which of these correctly describes a feature of obstructive shock?
Which of these correctly describes a feature of obstructive shock?
Which intervention is considered part of the initial treatment for septic shock?
Which intervention is considered part of the initial treatment for septic shock?
Which of the following factors is most critical in optimizing medical treatment preoperatively to reduce complications?
Which of the following factors is most critical in optimizing medical treatment preoperatively to reduce complications?
In the context of airway assessment, which classification allows for the estimation of intubation difficulty based on visibility?
In the context of airway assessment, which classification allows for the estimation of intubation difficulty based on visibility?
What aspect of a patient's history is most critical in predicting anesthetic complications?
What aspect of a patient's history is most critical in predicting anesthetic complications?
Which respiratory condition requires optimization to reduce operative risks and improve postoperative outcomes?
Which respiratory condition requires optimization to reduce operative risks and improve postoperative outcomes?
Which condition is NOT included in the focused review of systems that might influence anesthesia management?
Which condition is NOT included in the focused review of systems that might influence anesthesia management?
In assessing a patient's nutritional status preoperatively, which of the following conditions is prioritized for correction?
In assessing a patient's nutritional status preoperatively, which of the following conditions is prioritized for correction?
Which physical examination finding is MOST indicative of possible difficult intubation?
Which physical examination finding is MOST indicative of possible difficult intubation?
Which preoperative intervention is recommended for patients diagnosed with diabetes mellitus?
Which preoperative intervention is recommended for patients diagnosed with diabetes mellitus?
Which airway anatomical feature, when assessed, would be least likely to indicate potential intubation difficulties?
Which airway anatomical feature, when assessed, would be least likely to indicate potential intubation difficulties?
Which type of medication is most associated with increasing the risk of perioperative bleeding?
Which type of medication is most associated with increasing the risk of perioperative bleeding?
Study Notes
Pain Control
- Pain relief is crucial for proper recovery and minimizing complications.
- Preoperative visits can significantly benefit patients by addressing concerns and preparing them for surgery.
- Unrelieved pain can lead to numerous postoperative complications.
- Individual pain perception is influenced by factors like age, personality, premedication, surgical site, and anesthetic technique.
- Various administration routes are available, including IV, IM, oral, epidural, and rectal.
- Preemptive analgesia aims to prevent pain by reducing noxious stimuli and minimizing the need for higher doses of analgesics post-surgery.
- Patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) empowers patients to administer small doses of opioids for self-management of pain.
- PCA requires patients to be alert, and it involves setting specific bolus doses and lockout periods to avoid overuse.
Monitoring
- Monitoring is essential for patient safety and assessing physiological changes during surgery.
- While monitors with alarms enhance safety, they do not substitute for the anesthetist's vigilance.
- Physical examination combined with monitoring ensures optimal patient care.
- Basic monitoring includes blood pressure cuff, ECG, pulse oximeter, stethoscope, temperature probe, and capnometer (if intubated).
- Monitoring equipment and strategies vary based on surgery type, duration, location, and the patient's pre-existing conditions.
Pulse Oximeter
- Non-invasive device that measures oxygen saturation (SaO2) by detecting light absorption by hemoglobin.
- It provides valuable information about oxygenation status, especially during general anesthesia.
- It can display pulse waveforms for further analysis.
- Inaccurate readings can occur due to hypotension, vasoconstriction, dyes, nail polish, other hemoglobin types, limb compression, and movement.
Capnometer
- Measures exhaled carbon dioxide (CO2) to assess lung ventilation and cardiac output.
- It confirms endotracheal tube placement.
ECG
- Monitors heart rate, rhythm, and potential changes like ST segment elevation or depression, indicating cardiac abnormalities.
Other Commonly Used Devices
- Blood pressure cuff (manual or automatic)
- Stethoscope (precordial, esophageal)
- Thermometer (surface or core)
- Peripheral nerve stimulators (for monitoring neuromuscular blockade)
- Machine function monitors (volume, pressure, inspired oxygen alarms)
- Mass spectrometer/gas analyzer (identifies and measures inhaled/exhaled gases)
Less Frequently Used Monitors
- Urinary catheter and urometer
- Central venous line (for rapid fluid infusion, vasoactive drug delivery, and CVP measurement)
- Arterial line (for continuous blood pressure monitoring and frequent ABG sampling)
- Swan-Ganz catheter (measures CVP, PCWP, pulmonary artery pressures, cardiac output, mixed venous blood gases, and core temperature)
- Intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring
- Electroencephalogram (EEG), brain and spinal cord evoked potentials
- Transcutaneous gas measurements
- Transesophageal echocardiography (TEE)
General Anesthetic Agents
- General anesthesia (GA) involves delivering anesthetic drugs (inhaled or infused) to achieve a desired state of central nervous system (CNS) depression.
- The "6 A's" of anesthesia encompass: anesthesia (loss of consciousness), analgesia (pain control), amnesia (loss of recall), areflexia (muscle relaxation), autonomic areflexia (decreased sympathetic nervous system function), and antiemetic (nausea and vomiting prevention).
Opioids
- Opioids are medications that bind to opioid receptors (also known as morphine receptors) in the brain and spinal cord, resulting in various effects.
- Opioid receptors play roles in pain perception, mood modulation, and respiratory depression.
- Commonly used for pre-, intra-, and postoperative analgesia, and as induction agents.
- They reduce the minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) required for volatile anesthetics.
Morphine
- Prototype opioid with numerous effects, primarily impacting the central nervous system (CNS) and various organ systems.
- CNS effects include analgesia, mood changes, sedation, respiratory depression, and decreased cough reflex.
- Other effects include vasodilatation, orthostatic hypotension, bronchial constriction, constipation, biliary colic, urinary retention, and histamine release.
Volatile Inhalational Agents
- Inhaled anesthetics are volatile liquids that vaporize at room temperature and enter the bloodstream through the lungs.
- They provide a rapid, reversible effect and are routinely used for inducing and maintaining anesthesia.
- Important considerations include their MAC values, which are essential for determining the required anesthetic depth.
- Commonly used agents include halothane, enflurane, isoflurane, sevoflurane, and nitrous oxide.
Complications of General Anesthesia
- Malignant hyperthermia (MH) is a rare but potentially fatal reaction to certain anesthetic agents, usually triggered by succinylcholine (SCh) or inhalational agents.
- MH presents with hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, tachycardia, tachypnea, and metabolic acidosis.
- Prevention involves careful patient history, avoiding triggering agents, and utilizing alternative medications.
- Management includes rapid discontinuation of triggering medications, hyperventilation with 100% oxygen, administration of dantrolene (muscle relaxant), and supportive care.
Myocardial Infarction (MI)
- Elective surgeries are generally postponed for 6 months after an MI to minimize the risk of reinfarction or death.
- Perioperative MI carries a high mortality rate.
- Invasive monitoring and intensive care unit (ICU) management can reduce this risk.
Respiratory Diseases
- Pulmonary disease can complicate ventilation and the delivery of volatile anesthetics, requiring careful pre-operative optimization and close intra- and postoperative monitoring.
Aspiration Syndrome
- The severity of gastric aspiration depends on the volume, acidity, and contamination of the aspirate, as well as the patient's health status.
- Avoiding reflex inhibition, reducing gastric volume and acidity, and employing rapid sequence induction can help prevent aspiration.
Airway Management
- Most acute airway problems in an unconscious patient can be managed with:
- 100% O2 with the patient in the lateral position (contraindicated in known suspected C-spine fracture)
- head tilt via extension at the atlanto-occipital joint (contraindicated in known/suspected C-spine fracture)
- jaw thrust via subluxation of temporomandibular joint (TMJ)
- suctioning (secretions, vomitus, foreign body)
- positioning to prevent aspiration
- inserting oro- or naso-pharyngeal airway
- Nasopharyngeal airway is indicated if an oropharyngeal airway is difficult (e.g. trismus, mouth trauma):
- large adult 8-9 mm, medium adult 7-8 mm, small adult 6-7 mm internal diameter
- complications include tube too long (esophagus), laryngospasm, vomiting, nasal mucosa injury and bleeding
- Oropharyngeal airway holds tongue away from the posterior wall of the pharynx:
- large adult 100 mm, medium adult 90 mm, small adult 80 mm
- facilitates suctioning of pharynx
- prevents patient from biting and occluding endotracheal tube (ETT)
- complications include tube too long (epiglottis vs. larynx obstruction), improper insertion (posterior tongue push)
- More advanced airway techniques include tracheal intubation (orally or nasally), cricothyroidotomy, tracheostomy.
Tracheal Intubation
- Definition: Insertion of a tube into the trachea either orally or nasally
Indications for Intubation - the 5 Ps
- Patency of airway required:
- decreased level of consciousness (LOC)
- facial injuries
- epiglottitis
- laryngeal edema (e.g. burns, anaphylaxis)
- Protect the lungs from aspiration:
- absent protective reflexes (e.g. IV fluids)
IV Anesthetics (Excluding Opioids)
- IV administration provides rapid onset of effects:
- given as a bolus or continuous infusion, titrated to effect
- Common agents used for induction:
- Thiopental (Sodium Thiopental, Sodium Thiopentone, STP)
- ultrashort-acting thiobarbiturate
- most commonly used as an induction agent
- prepared as a pale yellow 2.5% solution with pH 10.5 (alkaline)
- rapid distribution to vessel rich organs (brain, liver, heart, kidney) leading to unconsciousness in 30 seconds
- rapid redistribution from vessel rich tissues to muscle and fat causes short lived effect (5 minutes)
- slow metabolism and elimination (T1/2 =5-12 hrs), resulting in residual sedation for hours
- effects include unconsciousness, decreased cerebral metabolism and O2 requirements, reduction of cerebral blood flow, decrease in CO, BP, reflex tachycardia, respiratory depression (apnea with bolus dose).
- no analgesic properties, may actually increase subjective feeling of pain (anti-analgesia)
- no muscle relaxant properties
- contraindications: lack of intubation and resuscitation equipment, potential difficult intubation, hypersensitivity, untreated hypovolemia, hypotension, shock-like states, cardiac failure, porphyria
- Thiopental (Sodium Thiopental, Sodium Thiopentone, STP)
Regional Anesthesia
- Definition: Local anesthetic applied around a peripheral nerve at any point for the purposes of reducing or preventing impulse transmission
- No CNS depression (unless overdose of local anesthetic); patient conscious
- Techniques include epidural and spinal anesthesia, peripheral nerve blockades, IV regional anesthesia
Preparation for Regional Anesthesia
- Patient Preparation:
- thorough pre-op evaluation and assessment of patient
- technique explained to patient
- IV sedation may be indicated before block
- monitoring should be as extensive as for general anesthesia
- Nerve Localization:
- anatomical landmarks, local anatomy (e.g. iliac crests line crosses L3-L4 interspace, axillary artery guides brachial plexus)
- paresthesias and peripheral nerve stimulation used as a guide to proper needle placement
Relative Indications for Regional Anesthesia
- Avoidance of dangers of general anesthesia (e.g. difficult intubation, severe respiratory failure)
- Patient specifically requests regional anesthesia
- For high quality post-op pain relief
- General anesthesia not available
Contraindications to Regional Anesthesia
- Allergy to local anesthetic
- Patient refusal, lack of cooperation
- Lack of resuscitation equipment
- Lack of IV access
- Coagulopathy
- Certain types of preexisting neurological dysfunction
- Local infection at block site
Complications of Regional Anesthesia
- Failure of technique
- Systemic drug toxicity due to overdose or intravascular injection
- Peripheral neuropathy due to intraneural injection
- Pain or hematoma at injection site
- Infection
Nerve Fibres
- Different types categorized as follows:
- Sensory blockade with relative preservation of motor function (for pain management)
- Motor blockade with relative preservation of sensory function (for surgery)
- Complete blockade (both sensory and motor)
- potential for toxicity
Maximum Doses for Local Anesthetics (LA)
- Always be aware of the maximum dose for the particular LA used
- Maximum dose usually expressed as (mg of LA) per (kg of lean body weight) and as a total maximal dose (adjusted for young/elderly/ill)
- Lidocaine maximum dose: 5 mg/kg (with epinephrine: 7mg/kg)
- Chlorprocaine maximum dose: 11 mg/kg (with epinephrine: 14 mg/kg)
- Bupivacaine maximum dose: 2.5 mg/kg (with epinephrine: 3 mg/kg)
Systemic Toxicity
- Occurs by accidental intravascular injection, LA overdose, or unexpectedly rapid absorption
- Systemic toxicity manifests mainly at CNS and CVS
- CNS effects first appear excitatory due to initial block of inhibitory fibres; subsequently, block of excitatory fibres
- CNS effects (in approximate order of appearance):
- numbness of tongue, perioral tingling
- disorientation, drowsiness
- tinnitus
- visual disturbances
- muscle twitching, tremors
- convulsions, seizures
- generalized CNS depression, coma, respiratory arrest
Transfusion reactions
- Febrile - most common mild reaction (0.5% - 4%).
- Due to alloantibodies to WBC, platelet, or other donor plasma antigens
- Fever likely caused by pyrogens liberated from lysed cells
- More common if previous transfusion
- Mild fever < 38° with or without rigors, fever may be > 38° with restlessness and shivering
- Nausea, facial flushing, headache, myalgias; hypotension, chest and back pain (less common)
- Occurs near completion of transfusion or within 2 hours
- Up to 40% with mild reactions will not experience another reaction with future transfusions
- With severe/recurrent reactions, future transfusions may cause leukocyte depletion
Allergic
- Occurs in about 3% of transfusions
- Due to IgE alloantibodies vs. substances in donor plasma
- Mast cells activated with histamine release
- Usually occurs in pre-exposed e.g. multiple transfusions, multiparous
- Often have history of similar reactions
- Abrupt onset pruritic erythema/urticaria on arms and trunk, occasionally with fever
- Less common - involvement of face, larynx, and bronchioles
Pain Control
- Goal is to provide pain relief safely with minimal disturbance of homeostasis
- Unrelieved pain can be the cause of many postoperative complications
- Factors influencing the degree of pain include age, personality, premedication, surgical site, and anesthetic technique
- Routes - IV, IM, oral, epidural, rectal
- Preemptive analgesia
- Prevent/reduce noxious stimuli which potentiate peripheral and central pain mechanisms
- In postoperative period the dose of analgesic is decreased and the side effects are less frequent
- Use - NSAID's, opioids, local anesthetics, combined agents
- PCA (patient controlled analgesia)
- Self-administration of small doses of opiates via pump
- Bolus dose is preset
- Lockout period is set to limit frequency of self-administration
- Requirements - oriented patient, IV, SC, or epidural access
Monitoring
- Provides information that improves the safety of anesthesia and provides a means to assess physiological function
- Appropriate monitors with alarms are intended to enhance but not replace the vigilance of the anesthetist
- Physical examination, observation, assessment, and diagnosis remain the most important tools available to the anesthetist
- Routine monitors for all cases: BP cuff, ECG, O2 sat monitor, stethoscope, temperature probe, exposed part of patient visible, capnometer if intubated
- Organ systems monitored and other devices used to monitor will vary depending on the nature, length, location, and systems involved in the surgery, and patient’s pre-existing condition/diseases
Pulse Oximeter
- Measures SaO2 by red and infrared light absorption by Hb; oxygenated and deoxygenated Hb have different absorption characteristics
- Non-invasive
- Can show pulse waveforms on suitably equipped monitors
- If ventilation is accidentally terminated, the SaO2 may remain normal for several minutes in a well oxygenated patient due to the high partial pressure of O2 remaining in the lungs
- Inaccurate with hypotension, vasoconstriction, dyes
- Propofol (Diprivan)
- Unique agent in its own class (an alkyl phenol)
- Used for induction and/or maintenance of anesthesia
- Thick white soybean-based solution
- Pharmacological effects similar to that of thiopental; thus similar contraindications but is safe for porphyria patients
- Metabolism and elimination much more rapid due to increased rate of liver metabolism compared to thiopental
- Less residual sedative effect, patient recovers sooner (T1/2 = 0.9 hr), thus popular for out patient surgery since reduces post-anesthesia recovery time; decreased incidence of nausea and vomiting
- More suited for continuous infusion than STP due to rapid elimination
- More expensive
Benzodiazepines
- Also known as the minor tranquilizers
- Used as a premedication prior to induction or as an induction agent in combination with other drugs
- Oral and injectable formulations available
- Act on specific brain (GABA) receptors to produce selective anti-anxiety and sedative effects; in correct doses, causes only slight depression of CVS and respiratory systems
- Onset less than 5 minutes if given IV
- Duration of action long but variable/somewhat unpredictable
- Benzodiazepine antagonist flumazenil (Anexate)
- Competitive inhibition
- Does not affect benzodiazepine metabolism, therefore once effects of reversal wear off, sedation may return
Neuroleptics
- Also known as the major tranquilizers, rarely used in anesthesia
- Blockade of dopamine receptors at various locations in CNS
- Droperidol used in low dose as antiemetic
Narcotics/Opioids
- Opium: natural product derived from poppy plant extract
- Opiates: derived from opium
Regional Anesthesia
- Definition of regional anesthesia
- Preparation of regional anesthesia
- Nerve Fibres
- Epidural and Spinal Anesthesia
- IV Regional Anesthesia
- Peripheral Nerve Blocks
- Obstetrical Anesthesia
Local Infiltration, Hematoma Blocks
- Relatively safe – avoid intraneural injection and neurotoxic agents
Local Anesthetics
- Provides good operating conditions
Obstetrical Anesthesia
- All patients entering the delivery room potentially require anesthesia, whether planned or as an emergency
- Adequate anesthesia of obstetric patients requires a clear understanding of maternal and fetal physiology
- Options for pain relief during parturition (labour) are
- Psychoprophylaxis – Lamaze method
- Patterns of breathing and focused attention of fixed object
- Systemic medication
- Easy to administer but risk of maternal or neonatal depression
- Common drugs: opioids, tranquilizers, ketamine
- Regional anesthesia
- Provides excellent analgesia with minimal depressant effects in mother and fetus
- Hypotension as a consequence of sympathectomy is the most common complication
- Maternal BP monitored q2-5 min for 15-20 min after initiation and regularly thereafter
- Techniques used: epidural, combined spinal epidural, pudendal blocks, spinal, paracervical, lumbar sympathetic blocks
- Inhalational analgesia
- Easy to administer, makes uterine contractions more tolerable, but does not relieve pain completely
- 50% nitrous oxide
- Psychoprophylaxis – Lamaze method
- Anesthesia for cesarean section
- Regional - spinal or epidural
Extrarenal Na+ Loss
- Gastrointestinal causes: vomiting, nasogastric suction, drainage, fistulae, diarrhea
- Skin/Respiratory causes: insensible losses (fever), sweating, burns
- Vascular causes: hemorrhage
Renal Na+ and H2O Loss
- Diuretics
- Osmotic diuresis
- Hypoaldosteronism
- Salt-wasting nephropathies
Renal H2O Loss
- Diabetes insipidus (central or nephrogenic)
Hypovolemia with Normal or Expanded ECF Volume
- Decreased cardiac output (CO)
- Redistribution: hypoalbuminemia (cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome), capillary leaking (acute pancreatitis, rhabdomyolysis, ischemic bowel)
Management of Dehydration
- Replace water and electrolytes based on patient needs
- With chronic hyponatremia, correction should be over >48 hours to avoid CNS central pontine myelinolysis
Signs and Symptoms of Dehydration
- Mild (5% loss): decreased skin turgor, sunken eyes, dry mucous membranes, dry tongue, reduced sweating
- Moderate (10% loss): oliguria, orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia, low volume pulse, cool peripheries, reduced filling of peripheral veins and central venous pressure (CVP), hemoconcentration, apathy
- Severe (15% loss): profound oliguria and compromised CNS function with or without altered sensorium
Febrile Reaction to Transfusion
- Most common mild reaction, 0.5%-4% of transfusions
- Due to alloantibodies to WBC, platelet, or other donor plasma antigens
- Fever likely caused by pyrogens liberated from lysed cells
- More common if previous transfusion
- Mild fever < 38° with or without rigors, fever may be > 38° with restlessness and shivering
- Nausea, facial flushing, headache, myalgias; hypotension, chest and back pain (less common)
- Near completion of transfusion or within 2 hours
- Up to 40% with mild reactions will not experience another reaction with future transfusions
- With severe/recurrent reactions, future transfusions may cause leukocyte depletion
Management of Febrile Reaction to Transfusion
- Rule out fever due to hemolytic reaction or bacterial contamination
- Mild < 38°: decrease infusion rate and antipyretics
- Severe: stop transfusion, antipyretics, antihistamines, symptomatic treatment
Allergic Reaction to Transfusion
- Mild allergic reaction occurs in about 3% of transfusions
- Due to IgE alloantibodies vs substances in donor plasma
- Mast cells activated with histamine release
- Usually occurs in pre-exposed individuals (e.g., multiple transfusions, multiparous)
- Often have history of similar reactions
- Abrupt onset pruritic erythema/urticaria on arms and trunk, occasionally with fever
- Less common: involvement of face, larynx, and bronchioles
Management of Allergic Reaction to Transfusion
- Mild: slow transfusion rate, IV antihistamines
- Moderate to severe: stop transfusion, IV antihistamines, subcutaneous epinephrine, hydrocortisone, IV fluids, bronchodilators
- Prophylactic: antihistamines 15-60 minutes prior to transfusion, washed or deglycerolized frozen RBC
Preoperative Optimization
- Diuretics, oral hypoglycemics, anticoagulants, steroids, monamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI), and drugs with CNS side effects
- Optimization of medical treatment preoperatively will reduce peri- and postoperative complications
- Diabetes mellitus (DM): optimize glycemic control
- Nutritional status: correct malnourished states
- Smoking: encourage cessation
- Obesity: encourage weight loss
- Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD): optimize respiratory status, teach postoperative exercises (e.g., incentive spirometry)
Anesthesia History
- Previous anesthetic experience and complications, previous intubations, medications drug allergies, and allergies to topical preparations
- Focused review of systems
- CNS: seizures, transient ischemic attack (TIA), cerebrovascular accident (CVA), raised intracranial pressure (ICP), spinal disease, arteriovenous malformation (AVM)/aneurysm, neuromuscular disease
- Resp: smoker, asthma, COPD, upper respiratory tract infection (URTI), dyspnea, stridor
- CVS: angina/coronary artery disease (CAD), MI, HTN, congestive heart failure (CHF), valvular disease, conditions requiring endocarditis prophylaxis, arrhythmia, peripheral vascular disease
- GI: liver disease, gastroesophogeal reflux disease (GERD), vomiting, diarrhea, last meal
- Renal: insufficiency, dialysis
- Hematologic: anemia, coagulation disorders, sickle cell
- Musculoskeletal (MSK) (arthritis - risk of C-spine subluxation during intubation)
- Endocrine: diabetes, thyroid, adrenal
- Other: morbid obesity, pregnancy, ethanol and drug use
- Family history of malignant hyperthermia, atypical cholinesterase (pseudocholinesterase), or other abnormal drug reactions
Anesthesia Physical Examination
- Oropharynx + airway assessment to determine the likelihood of difficult intubation
- No single test is specific or sensitive - all aid in determination of ease of intubation
- Degree of mouth opening + TMJ subluxation
- Jaw size (micro/retrognathia), "thyromental distance"
- Tongue size
- Posterior pharynx, tonsillar pillars, uvula easily visible
- Dentition, dental appliances/prosthetics/caps - inform of possibility of damage
- C-spine stability, neck flexion/extension
- Tracheal deviation
- Nasal passage patency (if planning nasotracheal intubation)
- Mallampati classification of airways
- Class 1: able to visualize soft palate, fauces, uvula, ant and post tonsillar pillars
- Class 2: able to visualize all of the above, except anterior andposterior tonsillar pillars are hidden by the tongue
- Class 3: only the soft palate and base of the uvula are visible
- Class 4: only the soft palate can be seen (uvula not visualized)
- For emergency operations, add the letter E after classification
Anesthesia Patient Optimization
- From the history, physical exam, and labs/investigations, the anesthetist can determine whether or not the patient is in OPTIMAL condition for the proposed surgical procedure
- Goal is to optimize the non-surgical disease states prior to surgery
- In emergency cases, it is not always possible to optimize coexistent or chronic disease states; goal is then to accomplish what is possible in the time available
Postoperative Management
- Usually begins in O.R. with discontinuation of anesthetic drugs and extubation (exception - if going to intensive care unit (ICU))
- Patient can be transported to post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) when ABC's stable
- Patient can be released from the unit when the PACU discharge criteria for ventilation, circulation, consciousness, motor function, and colour have been met
- Potential complications:
- CNS: agitation, delirium, somnolence
- Respiratory: aspiration, upper airway obstruction, hypoxemia, alveolar hypoventilation, upper airway trauma (intubation/extubation)
- CVS: hypothermia (rewarm patient), shivering (due to hypothermia or postanesthetic effect), hypotension, hypertension, dysrhythmias
- GI: nausea and vomiting
Regional Anesthesia Definition
- Local anesthetic applied around a peripheral nerve at any point along the length of the nerve (from spinal cord up to, but not including, the nerve endings) for the purposes of reducing or preventing impulse transmission
- No CNS depression (unless overdose (OD) of local anesthetic); patient conscious
- Regional anesthetic techniques categorized as follows:
- Epidural and spinal anesthesia
- Peripheral nerve blockades
- IV regional anesthesia
Regional Anesthesia Preparation
- Patient Preparation:
- Thorough pre-op evaluation and assessment of patient
- Technique explained to patient
- IV sedation may be indicated before block
- Monitoring should be as extensive as for general anesthesia
- Nerve Localization:
- Anatomical landmarks, local anatomy (e.g. line joining iliac crests crosses L3-L4 interspace; axillary artery as guide to brachial plexus)
- Paresthesias and peripheral nerve stimulation used as a guide to proper needle placement
Relative Indications for Regional Anesthesia
- Avoidance of some of the dangers of general anesthesia (e.g., known difficult intubation, severe respiratory failure, etc.)
- Patient specifically requests regional anesthesia
- For high quality post-op pain relief
- General anesthesia not available
Contraindications to Regional Anesthesia
- Allergy to local anesthetic
- Patient refusal, lack of cooperation
- Lack of resuscitation equipment
- Lack of IV access
- Coagulopathy
- Certain types of preexisting neurological dysfunction
- Local infection at block site
Complications of Regional Anesthesia
- Failure of technique
- Systemic drug toxicity due to overdose or intravascular injection
- Peripheral neuropathy due to intraneural injection
- Pain or hematoma at injection site
- Infection
Nerve Fibres
- Different types categorized as follows:
- ...
Inspired Oxygen Dilution
- Inspired oxygen (O2) can be diluted by room air
- Facial masks with an O2 reservoir deliver O2 concentrations greater than 60%
- An O2 flow rate of 6L/min provides 60% O2, and each increase of 1L/min O2 concentration by 10%
High Flow Oxygen Systems
- Venturi masks provide consistent and predictable inspired O2 concentrations (FIO2)
- Venturi masks allow for the control of gas humidity
Total Body Water (TBW)
- In a 70kg adult, TBW accounts for 60% of total body weight
- TBW is divided into intracellular fluid (ICF, 2/3) and extracellular fluid (ECF, 1/3)
- ECF further comprises interstitial fluid (3/4) and intravascular fluid (1/4)
- Starling's forces maintain the balance of intravascular fluid
Fluid Balance and ECF Volume
- ECF excess leads to pulmonary edema, dependent edema, S3 heart sound, and increased jugular venous pressure (JVP)
- ECF deficit causes decreased JVP, hypotension, tachycardia, dry mucous membranes, decreased skin turgor, lethargy, weight loss, sunken eyes, decreased urine output, and depressed fontanelle in infants
- Hematocrit decreases with ECF expansion and increases with ECF deficit
- Fluid intake and output determine total body fluid balance, which is influenced by renal function, syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH), diabetes insipidus (DI), osmoles, and drugs (diuretics)
IV Fluid Therapy
- Total fluid requirement is calculated by adding maintenance, deficit, and ongoing losses, and subtracting oral intake, total parenteral nutrition (TPN), and medication solutions
- Dehydration is classified into mild (less than 5% TBW loss), moderate (5-10% TBW loss), and severe (greater than 10% TBW loss)
- Total sodium content controls ECF volume, while sodium concentration determines ICF volume
Anaphylactic Shock
- A rare but potentially lethal reaction in IgA deficient patients with anti-IgA antibodies
- Immune complexes activate mast cells, basophils, eosinophils, and the complement system, causing symptoms after transfusion of blood products containing IgA
- Symptoms include apprehension, urticarial eruptions, dyspnea, hypotension, laryngeal and airway edema, wheezing, chest pain, shock, and sudden death
- Management involves circulatory support with fluids, catecholamines, bronchodilators, and respiratory assistance as indicated
Transfusion-Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI)
- A form of noncardiogenic pulmonary edema occurring 2-4 hours after transfusion
- An immunologic cause, unrelated to fluid overload or cardiac failure
- Respiratory distress ranging from mild dyspnea to severe hypoxia
- Chest x-ray shows acute pulmonary edema, but pulmonary artery and wedge pressures are not elevated
- Usually resolves within 48 hours with O2, mechanical ventilation, and supportive treatment
Immunosuppression
- Studies associate perioperative transfusion with postoperative infection, earlier cancer recurrence, and poorer outcome
Immune-Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions
- The most serious and life-threatening transfusion reaction
- Caused by donor incompatibility with recipient blood
Non-Immune Transfusion Reactions
- Infectious risks include HIV, hepatitis, Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), cytomegalovirus (CMV), brucellosis, malaria, salmonellosis, measles, and syphilis
- Hypervolemia and electrolyte changes, particularly increased potassium in stored blood
- Coagulopathy, hypothermia, citrate toxicity, and hypocalcemia
Shock
- Remember that hypotension is not synonymous with shock
- Shock refers to inadequate organ perfusion
- General approach involves:
- ABCs first
- Identification of the cause
- General management includes O2, fluids, inotropes, and monitoring urine output, vital signs, central venous pressure (CVP), and potentially pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP)
- Beware of complications, such as hypovolemic shock leading to cardiac ischemia and cardiogenic shock
Types of Shock
- S: Septic/Spinal
- H: Hemorrhage/Hypovolemia
- O: Obstructive
- C: Cardiogenic
- K: Anaphylactic
Septic Shock
- Caused by bacterial (often Gram-negative), viral, or fungal infections
- Endotoxins and mediators cause blood pooling in veins and capillaries
- Associated with contamination of open wounds, intestinal injury, or penetrating trauma, and can occur with minimal history.
- Clinical features include warm skin (fever), decreased JVP, wide pulse pressure, increased cardiac output (CO), decreased systemic vascular resistance, and increased heart rate (HR)
- Initial treatment includes antibiotics and volume expansion
Spinal/Neurogenic Shock
- Decreased sympathetic tone
- Hypotension without tachycardia or peripheral vasoconstriction, resulting in warm skin
Preoperative Optimization
- Diuretics, oral hypoglycemics, anticoagulants, steroids, monamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI), and drugs with central nervous system (CNS) side effects can influence anesthetic procedures
- Optimize medical treatment preoperatively to reduce peri- and postoperative complications:
- Diabetes mellitus (DM): optimize glycemic control
- Nutritional status: correct malnourished states
- Smoking: encourage cessation
- Obesity: encourage weight loss
- Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD): optimize respiratory status, teach postoperative exercises (e.g., incentive spirometry)
History
- Gather information regarding:
- Previous anesthetic experience and complications
- Previous intubations
- Medications
- Drug allergies
- Allergies to topical preparations
- Conduct a focused review of systems:
- CNS: seizures, transient ischemic attack (TIA), cerebrovascular accident (CVA), raised intracranial pressure (ICP), spinal disease, arteriovenous malformation (AVM)/aneurysm, neuromuscular disease
- Resp: smoker, asthma, COPD, upper respiratory tract infection (URTI), dyspnea, stridor.
- Cardiovascular (CVS): angina/coronary artery disease (CAD), MI, HTN, congestive heart failure (CHF), valvular disease, conditions requiring endocarditis prophylaxis, arrhythmia, peripheral vascular disease
- GI: liver disease, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), vomiting, diarrhea, last meal
- Renal: insufficiency, dialysis
- Hematologic: anemia, coagulation disorders, sickle cell
- Musculoskeletal (MSK): arthritis (risk of C-spine subluxation during intubation)
- Endocrine: diabetes, thyroid, adrenal
- Other: morbid obesity, pregnancy, ethanol, and drug use
Family History
- Inquire about family history of malignant hyperthermia, atypical cholinesterase (pseudocholinesterase), or other abnormal drug reactions
Oropharynx and Airway Assessment
- Assess oropharynx and airway to determine the likelihood of difficult intubation
- Multiple factors can affect intubation difficulty:
- Degree of mouth opening and temporomandibular joint (TMJ) subluxation
- Jaw size (micro/retrognathia)
- "Thyromental distance"
- Tongue size
- Visibility of posterior pharynx, tonsillar pillars, and uvula
- Dentition, dental appliances/prosthetics/caps
- C-spine stability, neck flexion/extension
- Tracheal deviation
- Nasal passage patency (if planning nasotracheal intubation)
Mallampati Classification of Airways
- A classification system used to assess airway visibility:
- Class 1: Visible soft palate, fauces, uvula, anterior and posterior tonsillar pillars
- Class 2: Visible soft palate, fauces, uvula, but anterior and posterior tonsillar pillars are hidden by the tongue
- Class 3: Only the soft palate and base of the uvula are visible
- Class 4: Only the soft palate is visible (uvula not visualized)
Local Anesthetics (LA)
- LA provide sensory blockade while relatively preserving motor function
- Used for both pain management and surgical procedures
- Potential for toxicity
Maximum Doses for Local Anesthetics
- Always be aware of the maximum dose for the LA being used
- Maximum dose is usually expressed as mg of LA per kg of lean body weight and as a total maximum dose
- Maximum doses vary based on the specific LA:
- Lidocaine: maximum dose 5 mg/kg (with epinephrine: 7 mg/kg)
- Chlorprocaine: maximum dose 11 mg/kg (with epinephrine: 14 mg/kg)
- Bupivacaine: maximum dose 2.5 mg/kg (with epinephrine: 3 mg/kg)
Systemic Toxicity
- Occurs due to accidental intravascular injection, LA overdose, or rapid absorption
- Manifests primarily in the central nervous system (CNS) and cardiovascular system (CVS)
- Initial CNS effects are excitatory due to blockade of inhibitory fibers, followed by blockade of excitatory fibers
- CNS effects in approximate order of appearance:
- Numbness of tongue, perioral tingling
- Disorientation, drowsiness
- Tinnitus
- Visual disturbances
- Muscle twitching, tremors
- Convulsions, seizures
- Generalized CNS depression, coma, respiratory arrest
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Description
This quiz explores the importance of pain control and monitoring during surgical procedures. It discusses various pain management techniques, including preemptive analgesia and patient-controlled analgesia, alongside the significance of monitoring for patient safety. Test your knowledge on these critical aspects of surgical care.