Pain Assessment and Perception Quiz
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Questions and Answers

What is the definition of pain, according to the American Pain Society?

  • An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage. (correct)
  • The level at which someone experiences discomfort.
  • An unpleasant physical sensation.
  • A conscious experience of discomfort.

At what age do infants typically show a full behavioral response to pain?

  • 3-12 months old (correct)
  • 3-6 months old
  • 1-2 days old
  • 12-24 months old

Which of the following best describes pain tolerance?

  • The maximum intensity or duration of pain a person is willing to endure. (correct)
  • The level at which a person first experiences pain.
  • The point where pain becomes unbearable.
  • A measure of a person's emotional response to pain.

What factor tends to decrease pain tolerance?

<p>Fatigue and anxiety (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common misconception about pain and aging?

<p>Pain is a natural part of aging. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is TRUE about pain perception?

<p>Pain perception varies among children, adults and the elderly. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the information provided, what is the best approach to assessing a patient's pain?

<p>Let the patient describe the nature of their pain and collaborate as a team. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors may increase a person's pain tolerance?

<p>Strong beliefs or faith. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the subjective nature of pain?

<p>Pain is uniquely experienced by each individual and cannot be adequately defined or measured by an observer. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of pain as described in this context?

<p>To serve as a diagnostic indicator for tissue damage or pathology. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT considered a barrier to reporting pain effectively?

<p>High expectations of obtaining relief from pain. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Superficial somatic pain is also referred to as:

<p>Cutaneous pain (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these is typically associated with acute pain?

<p>Observable physical responses such as increased heart rate. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does chronic pain typically differ from acute pain in terms of response to treatment?

<p>Chronic pain often requires an increase in drug therapy and responds poorly to it. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic is commonly associated with patients experiencing chronic pain?

<p>Social withdrawal and life role changes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the term for pain that is perceived in a general area of the body, not necessarily at the site of the anatomical origin?

<p>Referred pain (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The transmission of pain involves several key steps. What is the initial stage called?

<p>Transduction (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nerve fibers are responsible for transmitting acute sharp pain sensations?

<p>A-delta fibers (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which part of the nervous system regulates involuntary functions like the body’s preparation for the 'fight-or-flight' response?

<p>Sympathetic nervous system (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the spinal cord in the context of pain transmission?

<p>To transmit painful stimuli to the brain and motor responses. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following theories suggests that pain results from the excessive stimulation of sensory receptors?

<p>Intensity theory (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to gate control theory, what role do larger, faster nerve fibers play in pain modulation?

<p>They can inhibit the transmission of pain impulses (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is NOT considered to have an affect on an individual's response to pain?

<p>The prevailing weather conditions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT considered a condition that opens the pain gate?

<p>Positive emotions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the provided information, what is the primary goal of a comprehensive pain assessment?

<p>To understand the pain's characteristics and underlying causes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes 'radiating' pain according to the PQRST format?

<p>Pain that follows a peripheral nerve pattern; diffuse (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following pain assessment tools is BEST described as multidimensional, using descriptive words?

<p>McGill Melzack Pain Questionnaire (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a primary goal of pain management?

<p>To reduce pain and promote safe progressive exercises. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of adjuvant drugs in pain management?

<p>To enhance the effects of other analgesics or treat co-existing conditions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common side effect associated with opioid drugs?

<p>Increased alertness (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which scenario would the application of ice be MOST appropriate for pain management?

<p>Acute injury with inflammation and swelling (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the 'Quality' aspect of pain in the PQRST format?

<p>The characteristics of pain, such as aching, burning or sharp. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient describes their pain as a ‘dull ache’ that is ‘deep and constant’. In the PQRST format, this information BEST relates to which category?

<p>Quality (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is considered an example of an Opioid Agonist-antagonist?

<p>Buprenorphine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications is classified as a non-opioid analgesic?

<p>Acetaminophen (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a classification of NSAIDs?

<p>GABA Agonists (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best describes the use of heat therapy, according to the provided text?

<p>Heat is useful for muscle pain or stiffness. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does 'PRN' mean in the context of medication administration for pain?

<p>Pro Re Nata - as needed (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary benefit of active modalities, such as therapeutic exercise, in patient care?

<p>Improving both comfort and stamina (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The discipline of surgery is best described as:

<p>A combination of physiologic management and interventional treatment (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key characteristic of 'excision' as a surgical procedure?

<p>Removing tissue by sharp dissection (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the concept of 'aseptic technique'?

<p>Preventing microorganism contamination (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of 'palliation' in surgical interventions?

<p>Providing relief from obstruction (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'perioperative' encompass in the context of surgery?

<p>The period before and after the surgical procedure (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of an OR nurse?

<p>Ensuring the quality of nursing care during surgery (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does 'surgical conscience' primarily involve?

<p>Strict adherence to principles of aseptic and sterile techniques (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'bacteriostasis' describe in relation to antiseptics?

<p>The prevention of bacterial growth (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How long is a signed informed consent legally considered valid?

<p>For a period of about 6 months, or as long as the patient consents (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In medical terminology, what does the suffix '-ectomy' refer to?

<p>Surgical excision (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an example of a 'congenital' condition that might be treated by surgery?

<p>A heart defect present at birth (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the defining characteristic of an 'urgent' surgical procedure?

<p>A procedure requiring prompt attention within 24 to 30 hours (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the surgical term 'rhaphy' describe?

<p>The surgical repair of an area (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary objective of surgical intervention?

<p>To prolong life, relieve suffering, and correct deformities (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an example of moist heat therapy?

<p>Steamed towels (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When should heat therapy be avoided?

<p>When there is an open wound (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does cold therapy help relieve pain?

<p>By reducing blood flow and nerve activity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential risk associated with cold therapy?

<p>Nerve damage from prolonged use (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (TENS) primarily works by which mechanism?

<p>By delivering electrical stimulation to the skin via electrodes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a main characteristic of Percutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (PENS)?

<p>It uses acupuncture needles as electrodes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main goal of psychological pain control therapy?

<p>To address psychological factors contributing to pain. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy (CBT) in pain management?

<p>It reduces the psychological component of pain through coping skills (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which technique involves the use of imagined pictures, sounds, or sensations for relaxation and pain reduction?

<p>Imagery (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary mechanism through which hypnosis might influence pain perception?

<p>Altering one's perspective and meaning of pain through suggestion (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does biofeedback primarily provide to the patient in the treatment of pain?

<p>Information about bodily processes the patient is unaware of. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key way that prayer may promote healing?

<p>By promoting a broader view of healing and illness. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the key aims of physical therapy in pain management?

<p>To promote safe and structurally correct movements. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following most accurately describes the main difference between dry and moist heat therapy?

<p>Moist heat may be slightly more effective and require less application time (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it recommended that a patient consult a doctor before using cold therapy if they have cardiovascular issues?

<p>Because cold therapy can worsen heart conditions (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a function of the circulating nurse?

<p>Maintaining a sterile field. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A surgeon must possess the following characteristics EXCEPT:

<p>Inability to perform any procedure and relying on the team to do them. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of the scrub nurse during a surgical procedure?

<p>Maintaining safety and efficiency of the sterile field (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a responsibility of the anesthesiologist during surgery?

<p>Overseeing the positioning and movement of patients (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the content, which professional in the operating room is responsible for maintaining a communication link between sterile and non-sterile team members?

<p>The Circulating Nurse (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a clean instrument touches a sterile area, what should be done?

<p>Remove and replace the contaminated instruments and field (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The pre-operative assessment usually includes all of the following EXCEPT:

<p>Administration of general anesthesia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these is part of the informed consent process?

<p>Explanation of potential risks of the procedure (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a focus of pre-operative nurse planning?

<p>Detailed description of the surgeon's background. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What information is typically included in the transfer and endorsement process?

<p>The patient's mode of transfer (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which team member is primarily responsible for maintaining the integrity of the sterile field?

<p>The Scrub Nurse (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who is ultimately responsible for selecting and performing the surgical procedure?

<p>The surgeon (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of the first surgical assistant?

<p>Controlling bleeding and handling tissues (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is least relevant to consider for dietary restrictions during pre-op planning?

<p>A patient's usual meal preferences (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key aspect of post-operative patient education?

<p>What to expect regarding wound healing (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for thoroughly drying hands and arms before donning a sterile gown?

<p>To prevent contamination from wet skin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When putting on the sterile gown, what should the scrub nurse avoid touching with their bare hands?

<p>The sterile outside of the gown (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct method for putting on the sterile gown?

<p>Simultaneously inserting both arms into the armholes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should the gown be secured after it is put on?

<p>Tying or fastening the gown securely at the neck and waist (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the Circulator during the gowning process?

<p>To bring the gown over the shoulder and assist with arms (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary principle in designing an operating room?

<p>Exclusion of contamination from outside the suite (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following air quality control measures is NOT typically found in an operating room?

<p>Negative pressure systems (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of flooring is recommended for operating rooms?

<p>Hard and durable surfaces (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which area of the Operating Room Suite is it acceptable for personnel to wear street clothes?

<p>Unrestricted or Unsterile Area (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a typical requirement for the size of an operating room to accommodate both elective and emergency cases?

<p>At least 20x20 feet (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of OR design allows for a grouping or clustering of operating rooms?

<p>Combination Central Core &amp; Peripheral Corridor (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of the vestibular/exchange area in the OR suite?

<p>To provide access from the hospital corridor (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common feature of operating room lighting?

<p>Must be easily adjustable (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the sub sterile room within the operating room suite?

<p>To perform steam sterilization of supplies (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which table is specifically used for instruments that are in constant use during an operation?

<p>Mayo Table (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is recommended regarding doors in an operating room?

<p>Sliding doors to reduce air currents (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the anesthesia work and storage area in the OR suite?

<p>Storing anesthesia equipment and supplies (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic must the OR air supply system possess for optimal operation?

<p>Positive pressure system to keep contamination out (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the defibrillator in a healthcare setting?

<p>To correct life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of microbe are Rickettsiae classified as?

<p>Bacteria (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is NOT conducive to bacterial growth?

<p>High temperatures (above 170°F) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common mode of transmission for infections in a healthcare setting?

<p>Contact transmission (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes a nosocomial infection?

<p>An infection that develops during hospital stay (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'asepsis' refer to?

<p>Freedom from infection or infectious materials (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a significant factor affecting the infection rate?

<p>Presence of chronic diseases (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is considered a local sign of infection?

<p>Redness of a specific body part (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structure acts as the body's first line of defense against infection?

<p>Skin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of microbe is known for being the smallest infectious agent that grows in living cells?

<p>Virus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which items are considered sterile in a surgical setting?

<p>Sterile gowns from shoulder to table level (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Infection transmission by droplets involves which of the following?

<p>Droplets traveling short distances (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be done if a sterile object is touched by anything unsterile?

<p>Both the sterile and unsterile objects are considered contaminated (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a factor that can favor bacterial growth?

<p>Low moisture (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which method is NOT recommended for disinfection due to practical limitations?

<p>UV radiation (A), Fumigation with chemicals (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which practice is part of Standard Precaution?

<p>Hand washing before patient contact (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the portal of exit refer to in the context of infection transmission?

<p>The means through which pathogens leave a reservoir (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What practice is essential in medical asepsis to maintain a clean environment?

<p>Frequent hand washing (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of sterilization?

<p>To kill all microorganisms, including spores (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be done if an object is out of sight or below the waist level of a nurse?

<p>It is considered unsterile (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which agent is preferred for sterilization when steam sterilization is not possible?

<p>Glutaraldehyde (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After how many days should soaking solutions like glutaraldehyde be changed?

<p>28 days (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key consideration when packing items for sterilization?

<p>Surfaces must be directly exposed to the sterilizing agent (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is flash sterilization appropriate?

<p>For clean, unwrapped instruments only in emergencies (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which personal protective equipment (PPE) is critical for health care workers?

<p>Properly fitted masks and gowns (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a physical method of disinfection?

<p>Boiling of water (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key disadvantage of using steam under pressure for sterilization?

<p>Can cause damage to instruments (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of wearing shoe covers in the OR suite?

<p>To protect the wearer from spills onto shoes during procedures. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of mask is recommended for use in restricted areas?

<p>Disposable masks made of soft, cloth-like material. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should masks not be lowered to hang loosely when not in use?

<p>It promotes the spread of microorganisms. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of eye protection should be worn to protect against blood or body fluid splashes?

<p>Anti-fog goggles. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should NOT be used on hands before donning latex gloves?

<p>Petroleum-based lotions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what scenario should a sterile gown be changed during a procedure?

<p>If it becomes punctured or torn. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an important consideration when removing gloves?

<p>Hands must be washed before donning new gloves. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are sterile gloves primarily used for?

<p>By sterile team members during invasive procedures. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of the surgical hand scrubbing process?

<p>To remove natural skin oils and transient microorganisms. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which gown feature is recommended for a good barrier during surgery?

<p>A wrap-around design for back coverage. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is double masking not recommended?

<p>It leads to discomfort while breathing. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When handling contaminated materials, what type of gloves should be worn?

<p>Non-sterile latex or vinyl gloves. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of a lead apron during procedures?

<p>To protect against radiation exposure. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should used masks be disposed of after removal?

<p>Discarded into a designated receptacle. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of a surgical hand scrub?

<p>To decrease resident microorganisms to an irreducible minimum (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a scrub sink used in surgical hand scrubbing?

<p>Wide enough for cleaning contaminated instruments (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of antiseptic agents in surgical hand scrubbing?

<p>To alter the physical or chemical properties of microbial cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antiseptic agent provides sustained action and is effective for more than 6 hours?

<p>4% Chlorhexidine Gluconate (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be done to fingernails before a surgical scrub?

<p>They should be kept clean and uncut (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the preparation for a surgical scrub, what should be checked for integrity?

<p>Skin and nails (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How long should the complete surgical scrub last approximately?

<p>5-7 minutes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which method of surgical scrubbing focuses on cleaning nails and fingers with specific stroke counts?

<p>Brush Stroke Method (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action should be avoided during the surgical hand scrub to ensure cleanliness?

<p>Interlacing the fingers while scrubbing (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should the sleeves of a scrub suit be adjusted prior to scrubbing?

<p>At least 2 to 3 inches above the elbow (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be done immediately after scrubbing hands and arms?

<p>Allow hands to drip at the scrub sink (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the ideal action regarding fingernail polish during the surgical scrub?

<p>It should not be worn (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antiseptic is approved for use and is known for causing skin irritation?

<p>Iodophors (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of brush is preferred for a surgical scrub to avoid skin abrasion?

<p>Soft reusable scrub brushes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of action should follow after rinsing hands and arms thoroughly?

<p>Let water drip before moving (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key purpose of operating room attire?

<p>To reduce particle count of shedding from the body. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should operating room attire be designed for maximal skin coverage?

<p>To prevent microbial penetration. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a crucial factor when selecting a method of sterilization or disinfection?

<p>Cost containment. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of materials are operating room attire generally made from?

<p>Woven and nonwoven materials. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a requirement for the materials used in operating room attire?

<p>Must allow for maximum static electricity build-up. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should personnel do if they have an acute infection, such as a sore throat, before entering the operating room?

<p>Be excluded from the operating suite. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is required for maintaining personal hygiene before entering the operating room?

<p>Short fingernails and no artificial nails. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a component of operating room attire specifically for head protection?

<p>Cap or turban. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under which condition can operating room attire be reused?

<p>If it is freshly laundered. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should staff do if they need to reenter the operating room suite after leaving?

<p>Put on a clean, fresh scrub suit. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the ideal characteristic of shoes worn in the operating room?

<p>Supportive and comfortable with enclosed toes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of lint in the operating room?

<p>It can increase the particle count of contaminants. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should jewelry be managed before entering the operating room?

<p>All jewelry, including earrings, must be removed. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one reason that head coverings in the operating room should be disposable?

<p>To prevent cross-contamination. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of surgical procedure allows the client to benefit but will not be harmed if the surgery is not performed?

<p>Elective (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a surgical risk factor that increases morbidity and mortality?

<p>Family history of surgery (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which phase of perioperative care begins once the client is positioned on the operating table?

<p>Intraoperative phase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of the 'surgical conscience'?

<p>To guide ethical and professional behavior towards patients (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which expected attribute of a perioperative nurse emphasizes being non-judgmental?

<p>Impartial (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main focus of perioperative nursing practice?

<p>Activities performed during the patient's surgical experience (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of surgical procedures, what does the term 'major' refer to?

<p>Life-threatening surgeries (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key responsibility of a perioperative nurse?

<p>Providing specialized nursing care throughout the surgical experience (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following aspects of surgical care focuses on creating a safe and supportive environment?

<p>Quality assurance (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nursing philosophy emphasizes the holistic support of a patient's needs during surgery?

<p>Comprehensive care philosophy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which attribute of a perioperative nurse is most closely associated with effective communication?

<p>Sensitive and perceptive (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the role of legal liability in surgical nursing?

<p>To protect against hazards in OR (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which phase of perioperative care is the patient's evaluation completed?

<p>Postoperative phase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an example of an elective surgical procedure?

<p>Liposuction (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Pain threshold

The point at which a person begins to feel pain.

Pain Tolerance

The maximum amount of pain a person is willing to endure.

Pain Perception in Children and Elderly.

Pain perception changes with age, babies are less sensitive, while older adults may have a lower pain tolerance.

Factors that decrease pain tolerance

Factors like fatigue, anxiety, and sleep deprivation can lower a person's tolerance to pain.

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Factors that increase pain tolerance

Factors like alcohol, medication, and distracting activities can increase pain tolerance.

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Pain and Aging

Pain is not a natural part of aging, it indicates an underlying problem.

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Pain is Subjective

A person's pain is subjective, and only they can truly understand it.

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Untreated Pain Causes Other Problems

Untreated pain can lead to other problems, like anger, anxiety, and delayed healing.

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What is pain?

A subjective and personal experience that varies greatly from person to person.

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Is pain a disease?

Pain is a symptom, not a disease. It signals an underlying issue or problem.

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Why is pain important?

Pain is a powerful indicator of tissue damage or other medical problems.

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What is transduction in pain?

The initial activation of sensory receptors by a noxious stimulus. This process converts harmful stimuli into electrical signals.

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What is transmission in pain?

The transmission of pain signals from the periphery (where the pain originates) to the central nervous system (spinal cord and brain).

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What is perception in pain?

The process in the brain where the electrical signals are interpreted and perceived as pain.

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What is modulation in pain?

The process by which the pain signal is modified or reduced along the pathway from the periphery to the brain. This involves various mechanisms that inhibit or amplify the pain signal.

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What is nociceptive pain?

Pain that originates from damage or injury to tissues. It is often described as sharp, stabbing, or aching.

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What is somatic pain?

A type of nociceptive pain that originates from the skin, muscles, bones, or joints. It can be either superficial or deep.

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What is visceral pain?

Pain that originates from internal organs, such as the stomach, intestines, or heart.

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What is neuropathic pain?

Pain caused by damage or dysfunction of the nervous system. It's often described as burning, tingling, or shooting pain.

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What is psychogenic pain?

Pain that is believed to be caused by psychological factors, such as stress, anxiety, or depression.

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What is acute pain?

Pain that is usually of short duration (less than 6 months) and often described as sharp, stabbing, or shooting.

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What is chronic pain?

Pain that persists for longer than 6 months and can be debilitating. It is often difficult to treat and can significantly impact quality of life.

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What is referred pain?

Pain that occurs in a different location than the actual source of the pain. It's often referred to as "referred pain".

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What are conditions that open the 'pain gate'?

These conditions can make pain worse, like a 'gate' opening the flow of pain signals in the brain.

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What are conditions that close the 'pain gate'?

These conditions can help lessen pain, like a 'gate' closing the flow of pain signals in the brain.

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What is a comprehensive pain assessment?

A thorough assessment of the patient's pain to understand its nature, severity, and impact on their life.

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What is the McGill Melzack Pain Questionnaire?

The McGill Melzack Pain Questionnaire uses 20 word descriptors grouped into four categories to help describe the patient's pain experience.

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What is the 0-10 Numeric Pain Intensity Scale?

A simple scale used to rate pain from 0 (no pain) to 10 (worst possible pain).

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What is the Wong-Baker FACES Pain Rating Scale?

Using visualization, a pain scale shows faces with different expressions to represent different levels of pain.

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What is the primary goal of pain management?

The primary goal of pain management is to reduce the pain experienced by the patient.

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What is 'blocking brain perception' as a pain management technique?

Interrupting the transmission of pain signals by blocking the perception of pain in the brain.

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What is 'interrupting pain transmitting chemicals' as a pain management technique?

Administering medications that interfere with pain-transmitting chemicals at the injury site.

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What is 'combining analgesics with adjuvant drugs' as a pain management technique?

Combining analgesics with other medications to enhance pain relief.

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What is 'using gate-closing mechanisms' as a pain management technique?

Using techniques that close the 'pain gate' to reduce pain signals from reaching the brain.

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What is 'altering pain transmission at the spinal cord' as a pain management technique?

Altering pain transmission at the level of the spinal cord to interrupt pain signals from reaching the brain.

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What are adjuvant analgesics?

Drugs prescribed for conditions other than pain, but that can reduce pain in certain situations.

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What are non-opioid analgesics?

Medications like acetaminophen and NSAIDs that help relieve pain.

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What are opioid analgesics?

Powerful pain relievers that work on opioid receptors in the nervous system.

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What is heat therapy?

Treatment using heat to improve circulation and blood flow, potentially reducing pain and stiffness.

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What are types of heat therapy?

Types of heat therapy include dry heat sources (heating pads, saunas) and moist heat sources (steamed towels, hot baths).

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When should you NOT use heat therapy?

Heat therapy is not recommended for areas that are bruised, swollen, or have open wounds. It's also not advised for people with certain conditions like diabetes, dermatitis, or vascular diseases.

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What are precautions for using heat therapy?

Treat areas with heat for no more than 20 minutes at a time to avoid burns. Stop immediately if swelling increases. Consult a doctor if pain doesn't improve in a week or gets worse.

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What is cold therapy?

Using cold to reduce inflammation and swelling, potentially relieving pain around joints and tendons.

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What are ways to apply cold therapy?

Methods include applying ice packs, ice massages, ice baths, cryostretching, cryokinetics, and even whole-body cold therapy chambers.

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When should you NOT use cold therapy?

People with sensory disorders or poor circulation should not use cold therapy at home as they may not feel potential damage. Cold therapy should also be avoided for stiff muscles or joints.

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What are precautions for using cold therapy?

Cold therapy applied for too long or too directly can cause skin, tissue, or nerve damage. Consult a doctor before using cold therapy if you have cardiovascular or heart disease. If cold therapy hasn't helped within 48 hours, seek medical advice.

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What is Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (TENS)?

An electrical device that sends different frequencies and intensities of stimulation through electrodes placed on the skin to potentially manage pain.

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What is Acupuncture?

A method that involves inserting needles at specific points on the body, potentially affecting the flow of energy and reducing pain.

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What is Acupressure?

A method that involves applying pressure to specific points on the body, potentially stimulating the body's self-healing mechanisms.

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What is Percutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (PENS)?

Combines electro-acupuncture and TENS using acupuncture-like needle probes as electrodes placed at specific points related to the pain.

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What is Mind/Body Therapy?

A type of therapy that addresses the mind-body connection to help manage pain, improve coping skills, and increase overall well-being.

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What is Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy (CBT)?

Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy (CBT) aims to address the psychological aspects of pain by changing attitudes, feelings, coping mechanisms, and sense of control.

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What is Imagery?

A technique that uses imagined pictures, sounds, or sensations to achieve relaxation or specific therapeutic goals, like pain reduction.

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Planned or Required Surgery

A surgical procedure that is planned for a few weeks or months after the decision is made, and the client requires it at some point. For example, cataract removal.

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Elective Surgery

A surgical procedure that the client will benefit from, but will not be harmed if it is not performed.

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Optional Surgery

A surgical procedure that is based on personal preference and is usually for aesthetic purposes.

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External Surgery

Surgery performed on the outside of the body.

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Internal Surgery

Surgery performed on the inside of the body.

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Major Surgery

A type of surgery that is life-threatening if not performed. Examples include emergency appendicitis or a heart attack.

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Minor Surgery

A type of surgery that is not life-threatening. Examples include removing a mole or a tonsillectomy.

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Perioperative Nursing

The practice that includes care performed by registered nurses before, during, and after a surgical procedure.

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Surgical Golden Rule

"Do Unto The Patient As You Would Have Others Do Unto You."

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Philosophy of Operating Room Nursing

To give comprehensive support, physically, morally, psychologically, spiritually, and socially to a patient undergoing surgery.

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Perioperative Nurse

A nurse who specializes in providing care before, during, and after surgical procedures.

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Preoperative Phase

The stage that begins when the decision to perform surgery is made and continues until the patient reaches the operating room.

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Intraoperative Phase

The stage that begins when the patient is placed on the operating table and continues until transfer to the recovery room.

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Postoperative Phase

The stage that begins when the patient is admitted to the recovery room and continues until they are discharged.

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Surgical Intervention

Surgical procedures are therapeutic processes aimed at restoring or maintaining health, often involving invasive incision or minimally invasive entry into the body.

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Operating room / operating theater

The operating room is a specially designed space where surgeries are performed. It is equipped for preparing patients, surgical procedures, and recovery from anesthesia.

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Perioperative

Perioperative encompasses the entire surgical journey, including the preparation before, the procedure itself, and the recovery afterward.

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OR nurse

A licensed registered nurse is legally responsible for the quality of nursing care patients receive in the operating room.

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Surgical Conscience

Surgical conscience is the awareness that develops through knowledge and understanding of sterile techniques, emphasizing strict adherence to principles of aseptic practices.

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Asepsis

Asepsis is the absence of harmful microorganisms, ensuring a clean and infection-free environment.

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Aseptic Technique

Aseptic techniques are methods used to prevent contamination by microorganisms during surgical procedures.

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Disinfection

Disinfection involves destroying most harmful microorganisms, but not necessarily spores, which are more resistant.

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Sterilization

Sterilization eliminates all microorganisms, including resistant spores, ensuring complete cleanliness for surgical instruments and materials.

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Informed consent

Informed consent is a legal document that proves a patient willingly agrees to a specific procedure.

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Surgical Procedure

A surgical procedure is an invasive intervention into body tissues or a minimally invasive entry into a body cavity for either therapeutic or diagnostic purposes.

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Antiseptic

An antiseptic is a substance that fights infection and inhibits bacteria growth.

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Anesthesia

Anesthesia is a state of insensitivity to pain and trauma, often accompanied by loss of consciousness, used during surgical procedures.

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Conditions treated by Surgery

Conditions treated by surgery can be categorized into congenital, present at birth, or acquired, resulting from trauma or injuries.

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Medical Asepsis

The practice of preventing infection by removing or destroying pathogens.

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Microorganisms

Living things too small to see with the naked eye. Can be beneficial, harmful, or both.

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Bacteria

Single-celled organisms that multiply rapidly. Some are helpful, others cause infection.

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Fungi

Microscopic plants that infect body parts like the mouth, skin, and feet.

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Protozoa

Single-celled creatures that usually live in water and can cause disease.

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Rickettsiae

Found in insects like fleas, lice, and ticks. Spread to humans through bites.

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Virus

The smallest living infectious agents that need living cells to grow.

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Infection

The invasion and growth of disease-causing microorganisms in the body.

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Local Infection

Infection that affects a specific body part.

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Systemic Infection

Infection that affects the entire body.

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Nosocomial Infection

Infection acquired in a healthcare facility.

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Cross Infection

Infection passed from one person to another, including staff and visitors.

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Causative Agent

The pathogen that causes the infection or disease.

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Reservoir

The place where the causative agent lives and multiplies.

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Mode of Transmission

The way the pathogen is transmitted from one reservoir to another.

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Surgical Asepsis

Practices and procedures that keep an area or object totally free from all microorganisms.

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Disinfectant

An agent that kills growing microorganisms.

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Sterilizer

A chamber or equipment used for sterilization.

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Steam Sterilization (autoclave)

The most common and reliable method of sterilization; uses steam under pressure.

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Glutaraldehyde Sterilization

A chemical sterilization method that involves soaking instruments in a solution of glutaraldehyde.

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Standard Precautions

Protecting healthcare workers from contact with blood and body fluids of all patients.

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Hand Washing

Washing hands thoroughly with soap and water.

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Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

Gloves, gowns, masks, and eye protection.

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In-House Packaging Materials

Materials used for in-house packaging and wrapping of sterile supplies should meet specific standards.

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Chemical Indicators

Indicators used to check if items have been exposed to a sterilization process.

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Biological Indicators

Used to monitor the effectiveness of the sterilization process.

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Flash Sterilization

A rapid sterilization method used for emergency situations.

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Sterilization and Disinfection Policies

Policies and procedures for sterilization and disinfection should be written, reviewed, and readily available.

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Who heads the surgical team?

A physician qualified to perform surgical procedures, with knowledge, skills, and judgment for successful completion.

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What are the attributes of a head surgeon?

Compassionate, accountable, skilled in data gathering, good decision-maker, and a critical thinker.

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What are the major responsibilities of the head surgeon?

Diagnosis and pre-op care, selection and performance of the procedure, and post-op management.

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What is the role of an assistant surgeon?

A qualified surgeon or surgical resident, assisting the surgeon in the operating room.

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What are the major responsibilities of an assistant surgeon?

Performing duties under the direct supervision of the surgeon, assisting with visibility, controlling bleeding, closing wounds, applying dressings, handling tissues, and using instruments.

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What is the role of a scrub nurse?

A member of the sterile team, typically an RN, LPN, LVN, or ST, responsible for maintaining the sterile environment.

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What are the major responsibilities of a scrub nurse?

Preparing and arranging sterile instruments and supplies, anticipating surgeon's needs, and having expertise in aseptic techniques.

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Who is the anesthesiologist?

An MD or DO certified by the Philippine Board of Anesthesiology, specializing in anesthesia administration.

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What are the major responsibilities of the anesthesiologist?

Choosing and administering anesthetic agents, monitoring physiological functions, maintaining fluid balance, minimizing hazards, overseeing patient positioning, interpreting monitoring devices, and providing post-operative care.

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What is the role of the circulating nurse?

An RN or ST working under the supervision of an RN, responsible for maintaining a safe and comfortable environment in the OR.

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What are the major responsibilities of the circulating nurse?

Creating and maintaining a safe environment, implementing asepsis principles, demonstrating surgical conscience, identifying environmental dangers, and providing assistance to the OR team.

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What is asepsis?

A set of principles and practices aimed at preventing infections during surgery.

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What is the golden rule of sterile technique?

A set of practices for maintaining sterile fields, ensuring that sterile objects only touch other sterile objects.

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What is the surgical safety checklist?

A list of crucial checks performed before, during, and after surgery to ensure patient safety.

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What is the purpose of informed consent?

A document that outlines the potential risks and benefits of a surgical procedure, requiring the patient's informed consent.

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Why dry hands before gowning?

To prevent contamination from wet skin, hands and arms must be thoroughly dried before putting on a sterile gown. This avoids microorganisms from passing through the gown material.

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How to don sterile gown?

The scrub nurse gently shakes out folds of the sterile gown, then simultaneously slips both arms into the sleeves without touching the sterile outside of the gown with bare hands.

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Circulator's role in gowning?

The circulating nurse helps by reaching inside the gown's shoulder and arm seams to bring it over the scrubbed person's shoulder.

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Why extend sleeves after gowning?

After gowning, the cuffs of the sleeves are left extended over the hands, ensuring the hands remain sterile.

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How to tie sterile gown?

The back of the gown is secured at the neck and waist, avoiding contact with the outer sterile surface to maintain sterility.

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Restricted / Sterile Area

Areas designed for procedures requiring sterile techniques, like surgery. This area includes the operating room itself, scrub sinks, and substerile rooms for sterilizing supplies.

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Unrestricted / Unsterile Area

Designed for preparing patients before surgery, ensuring privacy and security while changing into gowns. Includes pre-op check-in, dressing rooms, and lounges.

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Vestibular / Exchange Areas (Transition Zone)

A transition zone, separating the OR corridors from the main hospital to manage the flow of people and materials. Staff and patients change into scrubs before entering the semi-restricted area.

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PACU (formerly RR)

Located outside the OR suite or adjacent to it, it serves as a recovery room after surgery. The area allows access from both semi-restricted and unrestricted areas.

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Central Administrative control

This area houses the administrative functions related to the OR, including offices for administrative staff and a sterile supply room.

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Central Corridor or Hotel plan

The layout of the OR, with a central corridor, ensures efficient movement of staff and equipment between operating rooms. It's like a hotel's hallway but for surgeries.

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Central Core or Clean core plan

This design prioritizes sterile zones, surrounding them with peripheral corridors. It's like a core of cleanliness surrounded by a buffer.

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Exclusion principle

Operating rooms are designed to prevent contamination from outside. Traffic patterns within the OR suite are carefully planned to maintain cleanliness.

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Separation principle

Separating clean areas (like the OR) from contaminated areas (like the PACU) ensures that equipment and supplies stay sterile. This prevents the spread of infection.

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Combination central core & peripheral corridor or Racetrack plan

This plan features a central corridor with operating rooms lined up along the sides. It's like a racetrack with ORs as pit stops.

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Substerile Room

A compact area for sterilizing equipment and supplies, often with a steam sterilizing room, washer-sterilizer, storage, and a record room.

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Three corridor layout

This type of OR design emphasizes a clear separation between clean and contaminated areas, using three distinct corridors to manage traffic flow.

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Grouping or cluster plan

This design groups operating rooms together, usually with a central core providing access to the ORs and a surrounding peripheral area for support services. It's like a cluster of ORs.

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Post-op holding area

This area is designed for patients to wait within the OR suite, providing privacy through individual cubicles and minimizing exposure to distressing sights and sounds.

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Dressing rooms and Lounges

A designated room provided for patients to change from street clothes to OR scrubs before entering the semi-restricted areas.

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Barrier Technique

The practice of using barriers to prevent the spread of microorganisms.

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OR Attire

A type of body covering worn in the operating room to prevent the spread of microorganisms. Typically includes a pantsuit, head cover, mask, shoe covers, and apron.

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Efficiency of Sterilizing Agent

The ability of a sterilizing agent or disinfectant to effectively kill microorganisms.

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Physical Properties of the Item

The ability of the sterilizing agent or disinfectant to penetrate and reach all surfaces of the item being sterilized or disinfected.

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Urgency of Need

The urgency of the need for a sterile or disinfected item. For example, a critically ill patient needs an item to be sterilized as soon as possible.

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Standards of Practice

The accepted practices and guidelines used in healthcare settings to achieve sterility or disinfection.

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Hazard of Toxic Residue

The risk of leaving a harmful residue from the sterilizing or disinfecting agent on the item being treated.

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Infection Control

The practice of preventing the spread of infection.

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Manufacturer's Recommendation

The manufacturer's recommendation for sterilizing or disinfecting a specific item. This information is essential for ensuring safe and effective cleaning.

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Decontamination Requirements

The requirements for decontamination of an item, which may vary depending on the type of item and its intended use.

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Packaging Requirement

The requirements for packaging a sterile or disinfected item to maintain its sterility or disinfection.

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Ease of Transport and Storage

The ease of transporting and storing the item after sterilization or disinfection.

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Environmental / Disposal Requirements

The impact of the cleaning process on the environment and the disposal requirements for the sterilizing or disinfecting agent.

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Surgical Hand Scrub

A procedure that reduces the number of microorganisms on the skin to a minimum.

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Scrub Sink

A sink used exclusively for surgical handwashing or scrubbing.

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Scrub Brush

A brush used to scrub hands and nails during a surgical hand scrub.

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Antiseptic Agents

Approved by the FDA, these agents disrupt microorganisms' cell membranes, inhibiting or destroying them.

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Chlorhexidine Gluconate

A common antiseptic agent with a long-lasting effect, suppressing both resident and transient bacteria.

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Iodophors

An iodine-based antiseptic agent effective against various bacteria.

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Triclosan

A non-toxic, non-irritating agent with cumulative action, effective when used routinely.

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Alcohol (60-90%)

Not an ideal antiseptic due to its drying effect and lack of residual activity.

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Hexachlorophene

A highly effective agent with cumulative action, only available by prescription.

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Time Method

A designated time period for the surgical hand scrub, typically 5-7 minutes for complete scrub and 3 minutes for a short scrub.

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Brush-stroke Method

A systematic hand scrubbing technique using a specified number of brush strokes.

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Five Minute Time Scrub Method

A 5-minute scrub that includes steps for each nail, finger, and hand.

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15 Strokes Method

A method utilizing 15 strokes per area on each hand and arm.

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Sterile Gown

A sterile gown that protects the patient by creating a barrier between sterile and non-sterile areas.

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Surgical Gloves

Sterile gloves worn by surgical personnel to prevent contamination.

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Shoe Covers

A covering worn over shoes to protect the wearer from contamination and reduce microbial transfer.

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Masks

A disposable mask worn to prevent the spread of respiratory droplets and microbes.

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Eye Wear / Goggles

Eye protection, like goggles or a face shield, to protect the wearer from blood splashes, bone fragments, and laser beams.

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Non-Sterile Gloves

Non-sterile gloves worn when handling contaminated materials.

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Sterile Gloves

Sterile gloves worn during invasive procedures and while operating.

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Decontamination Apron

A waterproof apron worn over the scrub suit to protect from liquids and cleaning agents during procedures.

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Surgical Hand Scrubbing

The process of removing microorganisms from hands and arms through mechanical scrubbing and chemical antisepsis.

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Purposes of Surgical Hand Scrub

To clean away dirt, oils, and microorganisms from the hands and forearms to prevent contamination of surgical wounds.

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Latex Gloves

A polymeric membrane of natural rubber with a highly porous structure, providing a better barrier than vinyl gloves.

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Hydrocarbons and Latex

Hydrocarbons like petroleum-based lotions can penetrate latex, weakening its tear resistance.

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Sterile Gown Zones

The back of the sterile gown is not considered sterile, and any area below table level is also considered contaminated.

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Sterile Vest

A sterile vest worn to cover the back of a sterile gown tied at the back, ensuring full back coverage.

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Sterile Gown - Properties

Gowns should be resistant to fluid penetration and provide comfort and protection.

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Reusable Sterile Gowns

Reusable gowns should be made of densely woven materials and withstand multiple launderings and sterilizing cycles.

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Study Notes

Pain Management

  • Pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience related to actual or potential tissue damage.
  • Pain perception is the conscious experience of discomfort.
  • Infants are less sensitive to pain than adults. Full behavioral response to pain is apparent at 3-12 months.
  • Pain threshold is the level at which a person experiences pain. Pain tolerance is the maximum pain intensity a person can endure.
  • Pain tolerance varies among people and can change over time. It tends to decrease in the elderly. Women appear more tolerant than men.
  • Repeated pain exposure, fatigue, anger, boredom, anxiety, and sleep deprivation decrease pain tolerance. Alcohol consumption, medication, hypnosis, warmth, and distracting activities increase pain tolerance.

Misconceptions About Pain

  • Only the patient knows the level and distress of their pain. Pain management should be collaborative.
  • Pain is not inherent to aging unless caused by a medical condition.
  • Sleep does not mean the absence of pain. Sleep can be an avoidance mechanism for pain.
  • Pain is a symptom, not a disease. Unrelieved pain can lead to anger, anxiety, immobility, and delayed healing.
  • Every pain has a cause but may be obscure.
  • Age does not determine pain levels but can affect expression of pain.

Characteristics of Pain

  • Pain is subjective and personal. Physiologic pain can sometimes overlap with emotional hurt.
  • Pain is a symptom, not a disease. Each person experiences pain uniquely.
  • Pain is a valuable diagnostic sign, usually indicating tissue damage or pathology. Pain is usually reported as severe discomfort or uncomfortable sensation.

Components of Pain

  • Stimuli, perception, response, intensity, threshold, and tolerance are components of pain.

Barriers to Pain Management

  • Reluctance to report pain due to low expectation of relief.
  • Lack of insurance and high cost of medication.
  • The belief that pain is a sign of weakness.
  • Fear of medication side effects.
  • Poor communication between clinicians and patients.

Types of Pain

By Source

  • Nociceptive Pain: Originates from tissue damage.

    • Somatic Pain: (superficial and deep)
      • Cutaneous Pain: Superficial, often sharp.
      • Deep Somatic Pain: Originates from muscles, bones, joints.
    • Visceral Pain: Originates from internal organs.
  • Neuropathic Pain: Damages or dysfunction of the nerves.

  • Psychogenic Pain: Psychological factors are the main cause.

By Characteristics (Onset, Intensity, Duration)

  • Acute Pain: Short-duration pain (less than 6 months). Symptoms include sharpness, stabbing, and shooting sensations, and physical responses such as increased heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure; pallor or flushing, dilated pupils, diaphoresis, increased blood sugar and decreased blood flow to organs.
  • Chronic Pain: Lasting 6 months or more.
    • Chronic Nonmalignant Pain: Low back pain, rheumatoid arthritis.
    • Chronic Intermittent Pain: Migraine, headaches.
    • Chronic Malignant Pain: Cancer related.

Transmission of Pain

  • This is a process with four distinct stages: transduction, transmission, perception, and modulation.

Factors Affecting Response to Pain

  • Physiological factors (age, genetics)
  • Affective factors (mood, fear)
  • Psychosocial factors (family beliefs, culture)
  • Cognitive factors (past experience, expectations)

Pain Control Theories

  • Intensity Theory: Pain is linked to excessive sensory receptor stimulation.
  • Pattern Theory: Pain and non-pain sensations follow common pathways to specific brain regions.
  • Specificity Theory: Pain, touch, warmth, and cold are distinct sensations with direct links to stimuli.
  • Gate Control Theory: Explains how pain transmission through the spinal cord can be modulated by impulses from touch & pain fibers.

Pain Assessment

  • Effective pain management begins with comprehensive assessment. This includes a detailed description of pain, determining if it fits known syndromes, examining for structural diseases, understanding mechanisms behind pain, examining the effects of pain on function, and identifying co-existing medical or psychiatric issues to treat simultaneously.

Pain Assessment Tools

  • McGill Melzack Pain Questionnaire
  • Simple Descriptive Pain Intensity Scale
  • 0-10 Numeric Pain Intensity Scale
  • Visual Analog Scale (VAS)
  • Wong-Baker FACES Pain Rating Scale

Pain Management Methods

  • Pharmacological Interventions:
    • Adjuvant Drug Therapy: Drugs not primarily used for pain but can have analgesic effects. (e.g., antidepressants, anticonvulsants, local anesthetics, GABA agonists, NMDA antagonists, corticosteroids)
    • Non-opioid Analgesics: (e.g., acetaminophen, NSAIDs (aspirin, ibuprofen))
    • Opioid Analgesics: Most effective analgesics. (e.g, morphine, oxycodone)
  • Non-drug Interventions:
    • Heat and Cold Therapy:
      • Heat: Improves circulation, reduces muscle pain. Avoid on bruises, swelling, open wounds, or those with specific conditions.
      • Cold: Reduces blood flow to reduce inflammation and swelling. Avoid on stiff muscles, poor circulation, or certain sensory disorders.
    • Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (TENS): Electrical stimulation to relieve pain.
    • Acupuncture: Traditional technique thought to release endorphins and reduce anxiety.
    • Acupressure: Similar to acupuncture but uses pressure instead of needles.
    • Mind/Body Therapy: Addresses the psychological aspects of pain.
    • Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT): Helps patients adjust perspective on pain.
    • Imagery: Relaxation techniques to alter perceptions of pain.
    • Relaxation Techniques (systematic relaxation): Reduces muscle tension and stress.
    • Biofeedback: Provides feedback on bodily responses to pain.
    • Hypnosis: Relaxation, suggestion, distraction to alter perceptions of pain.
    • Prayer/Spiritual Support.
    • Physical Therapy: Improves function and comfort, including exercise, range of motion, strength.

Surgery

  • Definition: Operative procedures for illnesses or injuries.
  • Objectives: Correct defects, repair injuries, diagnose, cure, relieve suffering, and prolong life.
  • Categories of procedures: Invasive, minimally invasive, non-invasive.
  • Classifications by Purpose: Diagnostic, restorative, palliative, cosmetic.
  • Safeguard patients during surgery, protect surgical personnel, and maintain quality assurance.

Perioperative Nursing

  • Definition: The care of surgical patients throughout the pre, intra, and post-operative phases.

  • Key elements: Caring, conscience, technique, discipline.

  • Goals: Safe, supportive, comprehensive care, surgical teammates, to enable the patient to return to ideal physical and mental state as soon as possible

Surgical Team

  • Surgeon: Performs procedure.
  • Surgical Assistants: Assist the surgeon.
  • Scrub Nurse: Maintains sterile field, manages instruments.
  • Circulating Nurse: Coordinates care, maintains environment.
  • Anesthesiologist: Administers anesthesia.
  • Nurse Anesthetist: Administer anesthetics.

Perioperative Environment

  • Physical Facilities: Location, ventilation, lighting, doors, floor, sterilization protocols.

Operating Room Attire

  • Purpose is to prevent contamination. Protects personnel and patients from infectious and hazardous materials.
  • Essential Criteria for attire include barrier properties, fabric characteristics, and comfort. Strict dress code should be strictly enforced (street clothes not allowed beyond unrestricted/unsterile area).

Surgical Hand Scrubbing

  • Procedure removes microorganisms before surgery by mechanical and chemical means. A sterile gown is donned after the scrub, and sterile gloves are put on afterward.
  • Key materials include scrub sinks, brush, and antiseptic agents (chlorhexidine gluconate, iodophors, alcohol).

Infection Control

  • Definition: Practices to prevent infection transmission and promote health.
  • Chain of Infection: Causative agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, susceptible host.
  • Infection Types: Community-acquired, hospital-acquired (nosocomial), cross-infection
  • Methods of Sterilization/Disinfection: Physical (steam under pressure, radiation); Chemical (soaking in glutaraldehyde). Correct use of disinfectants/sterilizers is important.

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Test your knowledge on the definition of pain, behavioral responses in infants, pain tolerance, and misconceptions about aging. This quiz covers key concepts of pain assessment and the subjective nature of pain as defined by the American Pain Society.

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