Questions and Answers
What are the correct control surface positions when taxiing northbound with a wind coming from the SE?
Aileron left, elevator down
What are the two conditions needed to form a thunderstorm?
A moist, unstable atmosphere and lifting action
What are the three conditions needed to form clouds?
Moisture in the atmosphere, condensation nuclei, and lifting action
Warm front winds are generally ___ ahead of the front and ___ behind it.
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Cold front winds are generally ___ ahead of the front and ___ behind it.
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What weather conditions can you expect when flying west toward a warm front? (Answer in 4 200-mile intervals)
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What weather conditions can you expect when flying west toward a cold front? (Answer in 4 200-mile intervals)
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How does surface friction affect cyclonic wind?
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What are the standard, wet, and dry temperature lapse rates per 1000'?
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What is responsible for any and all weather?
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What causes high and low pressure centers?
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What is a gust front?
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A microburst blows downward at ___ fpm and is ___ NM wide.
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What is induction ice?
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What are the 4 basic types of NOTAMs?
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The turning aileron is (down/up).
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Why does adverse yaw happen?
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Why does overbanking tendency exist?
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How many feet will be lost in a 360-degree turn at idle power in a C152 at 60 knots?
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TDF is also known as ___ lift.
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The C152 has ___ ___ flaps.
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Induced drag is worse on aircraft that are ___, ___, and ___.
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Explain p-factor in terms of the descending prop blade.
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The spiraling slipstream strikes the ___ side of the vertical stabilizer, forcing the aircraft to yaw to the ___.
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What are the 4 types of parasite drag?
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What is the difference between standard empty weight and basic empty weight?
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An airplane's basic empty weight is 1175 lbs including oil. The pilot-in-command weighs 165 lbs, and he's flying solo with 20 gallons of AVGAS and 15 lbs of baggage. What is this airplane's payload?
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FAR part 43 deals with ___?
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FAR part 71 deals with ___?
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FAR part 61 deals with ___?
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In the C152, alternate air is actuated by using ___ ___.
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The ideal suction level for C152 gyro instruments is ___ inHg.
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Describe the condition of the 3 static instruments if the pitot tube and its drain are blocked but the static port is clear.
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Describe the condition of the 3 static instruments if the pitot tube is blocked but its drain is clear, and the static port is blocked.
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Describe the condition of the 3 static instruments if the pitot tube and its drain are clear, but the static port is blocked.
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The assumed ceiling of class B airspace is ___ feet (AGL/MSL), and the actual ceiling is charted in (MSL/AGL).
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The assumed ceiling of class C airspace is ___ feet (AGL/MSL), and the actual ceiling is charted in (MSL/AGL).
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The assumed ceiling of class D airspace is ___ feet (AGL/MSL), and the actual ceiling is charted in (MSL/AGL).
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The assumed radii of class C and D airspace are ___ and ___ NM.
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What does it mean if a charted class D ceiling altitude is preceded by a minus sign?
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What are SVFR minimums, and in what section of the FAR would they be found?
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What do you need to fly SVFR at night?
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What are class G minimums between 1200 AGL and 10,000 MSL during the day?
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What are class G minimums above 10,000 MSL?
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What are class E minimums below 10,000 MSL?
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What does 'the blue zipper' denote?
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What are the maximum altitude and airspeed for BasicMed operations?
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Assume you are under BasicMed. You must complete a medical education course every ___ calendar months, and a medical exam every ___ calendar months.
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The maximum number of passengers allowed onboard while flying under BasicMed is ___.
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Expand A TOMATO FLAMES.
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Expand FLAPS.
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Expand HASTE.
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Expand IMAIR.
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Expand IMSAFE.
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What are the 4 types of hypoxia?
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What is the most common cause of hypemic hypoxia in aviation?
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Coming in to land on a wider runway than what a given pilot is used to will probably cause him to fly his approach (high/low).
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Coming in to land on a downsloping runway will probably cause a given pilot to fly his approach (high/low).
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If you stare at a single lit object at night from the cockpit for more than a few seconds, what will you likely see?
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How should you scan the outside at night?
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Fog can cause a pilot to think he is pitched too (high/low).
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In the first few lines of the chart supplement, you see '6 E' on the page for Richmond Int'l Airport. What does this mean?
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What are the required supplemental oxygen altitudes?
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What is an aircraft accident?
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What is an aircraft incident?
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How long do you have to notify the NTSB of an accident?
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How long do you have to notify the NTSB of an overdue aircraft?
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NTSB reporting laws are found in NTSB part ___?
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A passenger is hyperventilating. What is the first thing you should advise them to do?
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A passenger has a headache. What is the first thing you should ask them?
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Study Notes
Control Surfaces and Weather Conditions
- Taxiing north with SE wind: position aileron left and elevator down.
- Thunderstorms require a moist, unstable atmosphere and lifting action.
- Clouds form from moisture, condensation nuclei, and lifting action.
Wind Patterns and Weather Phases
- Warm front winds: Southeast ahead of the front and Southwest behind.
- Cold front winds: Southwest ahead of the front and Northwest behind.
- Approaching a warm front from the west leads to cirrus, stratus, nimbostratus clouds, thunderstorms, and moderate turbulence.
- Approaching a cold front from the west leads to moderate turbulence, cumulus clouds, larger cumulus clouds, thunderstorms, and severe turbulence.
Atmospheric Dynamics
- Surface friction causes wind deflection of approximately 30 degrees toward the cyclone center.
- Standard lapse rates for temperature are 2°F/1000' (standard), 1°F/1000' (wet), and 3°F/1000' (dry).
- Weather patterns stem from unequal solar radiation levels on the ground, creating high and low pressure systems.
Thunderstorm Dynamics
- A gust front consists of strong downdrafts ahead of a thunderstorm, forcing wind forward upon hitting the ground.
- Microburst characteristics: blows downward at 6000 feet per minute and has a diameter of 1 nautical mile.
Icing and Flap Types
- Induction ice forms at the air intake of an aircraft.
- Types of NOTAMs include D, Pointer, Military, and FDC.
- The C152 uses slotted Fowler flaps.
Aircraft Performance
- Induced drag is aggravated in aircraft that are heavy, slow, and clean (aerodynamically clean).
- P-factor relates to the descending prop blade creating additional thrust and a left yaw tendency.
Instrument and Airspace Regulations
- Turning aileron moves upwards, generating lift, causing the aircraft to roll.
- FAR part 43 pertains to aircraft maintenance, while part 61 focuses on airman certification.
- An aircraft's basic empty weight includes oil, pilot weight, fuel (20 gallons of AVGAS), and baggage (15lbs).
Airspace Classifications
- Class B assumed ceiling: 8000 feet AGL, charted in AGL.
- Class C assumed ceiling: 4000 feet AGL, charted in AGL.
- Class D assumed ceiling: 2500 feet AGL, charted in MSL.
- Class C airspace radii: 10 NM, and Class D: 4 NM.
- A minus sign before a class D ceiling indicates a non-inclusive ceiling.
Special Visual Flight Rules (SVFR)
- SVFR minimums: 1 statute mile and clear of clouds, found in FAR 91.
- Instrument rating required for night SVFR operations.
- Class G airspace minimums during the day between 1200 AGL and 10,000 MSL: 1 statute mile visibility, 1,500 feet horizontal, and 2,000 feet vertical clearance.
Hypoxia and Night Flight Considerations
- Four types of hypoxia: hypoxic, hypemic, stagnant, histotoxic, with carbon monoxide poisoning being the most common cause of hypemic hypoxia.
- Wide runway approach can lead to a low approach, while a downsloping runway might result in a high approach.
Night Vision and Pilot Techniques
- Staring at a single object at night can make it appear to move due to visual fixation.
- Proper night scanning technique involves segmenting the view to cover 10-30 degrees every 1-2 seconds.
- Fog may cause misperceptions of aircraft pitch.
Airport and Regulatory Knowledge
- "6 E" indicates Richmond International Airport is 6 miles east of Richmond.
- Required oxygen: at or above 12,500' for 30 mins, always above 14,000', and for all passengers at or above 15,000'.
- Definition of aircraft accident: involving fatality, serious injury, fire, major malfunction, structural damage, or ground damage; an incident is any non-accident emergency.
Reporting and Emergency Response
- Notify NTSB of an accident immediately; for overdue aircraft, do so within 7 days.
- NTSB reporting laws are under part 830.
- For a hyperventilating passenger, advise breathing into a bag; for a headache, ask about last food or drink intake.
Studying That Suits You
Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.
Description
Prepare for your P3 oral examination with these flashcards covering essential concepts in aviation, including control surface positions and thunderstorm formation. Test your knowledge on the necessary conditions for cloud formation as well. This quiz is perfect for pilots and aviation students.