75 Questions
Which type of seizure involves a loss of consciousness?
Focal impaired awareness seizures
What is the initial treatment for status epilepticus (SE) within the first 5-20 minutes?
Intravenous lorazepam (Ativan)
Which test is often used to accurately diagnose epilepsy?
Electroencephalogram (EEG) test
What is the term for seizures that originate from one side of the brain and may spread to other areas?
Focal seizures
What is the term for seizures that simultaneously involve both sides of the brain?
Generalized seizures
What is the term for seizures characterized by 'staring spells'?
Absence seizures
What is the term for a seizure that lasts for an extended period, exceeding five minutes?
Status epilepticus (SE)
Which drug is classified as a calcium blocker that increases the activity of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain?
Levetiracetam
Which drug works by blocking sodium channels in the brain?
Lamotrigine
Which drug aims to maintain therapeutic levels between 4-12 mcg/mL?
Carbamazepine
Which drug is a potent cytochrome P450 inducer and can decrease the levels of other drugs, including itself?
Carbamazepine
Which drug is a sodium and calcium blocker?
Oxcarbazepine
Which drug has formulations such as chewable tablets, orally disintegrating tablets (ODT), and regular tablets?
Lamotrigine
Which drug has black box warnings that include psychiatric reactions such as psychotic symptoms, somnolence, and fatigue?
Levetiracetam
Which of the following medications has a black box warning for Habit Forming, Respiratory Depression, Fetal Harm, and SJS/TEN?
Phenobarbital
Which medication should be monitored for sodium levels due to the risk of hyponatremia?
Oxcarbazepine
Which medication has a narrow therapeutic window with goal trough levels of 10 - 20 mcg/mL and free trough levels of 1 - 2.5 mcg/mL?
Phenytoin
Which medication is contraindicated with HLA-B*1502 Test (Asians), Fetal Harm, and Blood Dyscrasias?
Phenytoin
Which medication has a black box warning for metabolic acidosis, oligohydrosis, nephrolithiasis, and fetal harm?
Topiramate
Which medication has a goal therapeutic level between 50-100 mcg/mL?
Valproic acid
Which medication has common side effects of weight gain, CNS effects, and edema?
Valproic acid
Which anti-epileptic drug (AED) is specifically used for absence seizures?
Ethosuximide
Which AED is a pro-drug of phenobarbital and is used to manage partial and generalized seizures?
Pregabalin
Which AED carries a black box warning (BBW) for the risk of hepatic failure and aplastic anemia?
Felbamate
Which AED is primarily used in the treatment of infantile spasms and refractory partial seizures?
Vigabatrin
Which AED works by blocking sodium channels in the brain?
Eslicarbazepine
Which AED is used to treat seizures associated with Lennox-Gastaut syndrome (LGS)?
Clobazam
Which AED is indicated for the treatment of partial-onset seizures and primary generalized tonic-clonic seizures?
Perampanel
Which AED is approved for the treatment of partial seizures?
Tiagabine
Which AED is prescribed for the treatment of refractory epilepsy and carries a black box warning (BBW) for the risk of permanent vision loss?
Vigabatrin
True or false: Focal aware seizures involve a loss of consciousness.
False
True or false: Generalized seizures involve both sides of the brain.
True
True or false: Status epilepticus is a medical emergency that lasts for less than five minutes.
False
True or false: Levetiracetam, sold under the brand name Keppra, is classified as a sodium blocker.
False
True or false: Lamotrigine works by blocking calcium channels in the brain.
False
True or false: Carbamazepine is contraindicated with MAOis, nefazodone, and NNRTIs.
True
True or false: Oxcarbazepine is primarily used in the treatment of infantile spasms and refractory partial seizures.
False
True or false: Clobazam is an AED used to treat seizures associated with Lennox-Gastaut syndrome (LGS).
True
True or false: Brivaracetam has shown efficacy in reducing partial-onset seizures.
True
True or false: Perampanel is indicated for the treatment of primary generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
False
True or false: Rufinamide is primarily used to manage seizures associated with Lennox-Gastaut syndrome.
True
True or false: Lacosamide is a sodium blocker.
False
True or false: Topiramate has a black box warning for metabolic acidosis, oligohydrosis, nephrolithiasis, and fetal harm.
True
True or false: Valproic acid and divalproex are contraindicated with hyperammonemia, thrombocytopenia, and lamotrigine.
True
True or false: Oxcarbazepine can cause hyponatremia and should be monitored for sodium levels.
True
What is the term for a seizure that lasts for an extended period, exceeding five minutes?
status epilepticus
Which drug is commonly used for the initial treatment of status epilepticus within the first 5-20 minutes?
intravenous lorazepam (Ativan)
What is the name of the test often used to accurately diagnose epilepsy?
electroencephalogram (EEG)
Which two anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) are sodium blockers?
Phenytoin and fosphenytoin.
Which AED carries a black box warning for the risk of hepatic failure, fetal harm, and neural tube defects in pregnancy?
Valproic acid and divalproex.
What are the common side effects of lacosamide?
Nausea, diplopia (double vision), and blurred vision.
What is the goal therapeutic level for phenobarbital in adults and children?
20-40 mcg/mL in adults and 15-40 mcg/mL in children.
What is the mechanism of action of eslicarbazepine?
Eslicarbazepine works by blocking sodium channels in the brain.
What are the potential side effects of ethosuximide?
Common adverse reactions of ethosuximide include nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, weight loss, and hiccups.
Which AED is approved for the treatment of refractory epilepsy?
Felbamate, available as Felbatol, is an AED approved for the treatment of refractory epilepsy.
What are the potential side effects of zonisamide?
Adverse effects of zonisamide include risk of sulfonamide allergy, oligohydrosis (decreased sweating), hyperthermia (elevated body temperature), and nephrolithiasis (kidney stones).
What are some drugs and medical conditions that can lower the seizure threshold?
Antipsychotics, antivirals, bupropion, carbapenems (esp. imipenem), cephalosporins, alcohol withdrawal, lithium, lindane, mefloquine, meperidine, metoclopramide, Penicillins, fluoroquinolones, infections and fever, theophylline, tramadol, and varenicline.
What factors should be taken into account when selecting an anti-epileptic drug (AED)?
Seizure type, age, pregnancy, and potential side effects.
What are some potential side effects of levetiracetam?
Irritability, dizziness, weakness, and asthenia.
How does lamotrigine work?
By blocking sodium channels in the brain.
Match the following types of seizures with their correct descriptions:
Focal aware seizures = Seizures that do not involve a loss of consciousness Focal impaired awareness seizures = Seizures that are characterized by a loss of consciousness Generalized seizures = Seizures that simultaneously involve both sides of the brain Absence seizures = Seizures that are often characterized by 'staring spells'
Match the following drugs with their correct classification:
Levetiracetam = Not a sodium blocker Lacosamide = Not a sodium blocker Eslicarbazepine = Not a sodium blocker Rufinamide = Not a sodium blocker
Match the following drugs with their correct potential side effects:
Oxcarbazepine = Can cause hyponatremia and should be monitored for sodium levels Lacosamide = Common side effects include weight gain, CNS effects, and edema Topiramate = Has a black box warning for metabolic acidosis, oligohydrosis, nephrolithiasis, and fetal harm Zonisamide = Potential side effects include weight loss, kidney stones, and cognitive issues
Match the following anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) with their mechanisms of action:
Levetiracetam = Calcium blocker that increases the activity of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain Lamotrigine = Blocks sodium channels in the brain Carbamazepine = Sodium blocker Oxcarbazepine = Sodium and calcium blocker
Match the following anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) with their common side effects:
Levetiracetam = Irritability, dizziness, weakness, and asthenia Lamotrigine = Rash, nausea, somnolence, and dizziness Carbamazepine = Nausea, dry mouth, rash, photosensitivity, and blurred vision Oxcarbazepine = No significant drug interactions
Match the following anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) with their black box warnings:
Levetiracetam = Psychiatric reactions such as psychotic symptoms, somnolence, and fatigue Lamotrigine = Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) and toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) Carbamazepine = Aplastic anemia, agranulocytosis, SJS/TEN (Asian HLA-B*1502 testing) Oxcarbazepine = No significant drug interactions
Match the following anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) with their key characteristics:
Clobazam = Used to treat seizures associated with Lennox-Gastaut syndrome (LGS) Brivaracetam = Has shown efficacy in reducing partial-onset seizures Eslicarbazepine = Marketed as Aptiom, it is an active metabolite of oxcarbazepine and works by blocking sodium channels in the brain Vigabatrin = Marketed as Sabril, it has a black box warning (BBW) for the risk of permanent vision loss
Match the following anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) with their potential drug interactions:
Levetiracetam = No significant drug interactions Lamotrigine = Increased by valproic acid Carbamazepine = Potent cytochrome P450 inducer and can decrease the levels of other drugs, including itself Oxcarbazepine = No significant drug interactions
Match the following AEDs with their potential side effects:
Gabapentin = Peripheral edema, weight gain, and mild euphoria Zonisamide = Risk of sulfonamide allergy, oligohydrosis, hyperthermia, and nephrolithiasis Ethosuximide = Nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, weight loss, and hiccups Pregabalin = Peripheral edema, weight gain, and mild euphoria
Match the following AEDs with their specific usage:
Primidone = Used in the treatment of various types of seizures, and is a pro-drug of phenobarbital Felbamate = Approved for the treatment of refractory epilepsy, but carries a black box warning (BBW) for the risk of hepatic failure and aplastic anemia Tiagabine = Approved for the treatment of partial seizures Rufinamide = Commonly used to manage seizures associated with Lennox-Gastaut syndrome
Match the following AEDs with their brand names:
Perampanel = Fycompa Gabapentin = Neurontin Clobazam = Onfi Eslicarbazepine = Aptiom
Match the following anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) with their potential side effects:
Oxcarbazepine = Nausea, somnolence, dizziness, and visual disturbances Phenobarbital = Physiological dependence, tolerance, hangover-like symptoms, and CNS effects Phenytoin and Fosphenytoin = Nystagmus, ataxia, diplopia, blurred vision, gingival hyperplasia, hair growth, and hepatotoxicity Lacosamide = Nausea, diplopia (double vision), and blurred vision
Match the following anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) with their black box warnings:
Phenobarbital = Habit Forming, Respiratory Depression, Fetal Harm, and SJS/TEN Phenytoin and Fosphenytoin = HLA-B*1502 Test (Asians), Fetal Harm, Blood Dyscrasias Valproic Acid and Divalproex = Hepatic failure, fetal harm, and neural tube defects in pregnancy Topiramate = Metabolic acidosis, oligohydrosis (reduced sweating), nephrolithiasis, hyperammonemia, and fetal harm
Match the following anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) with their contraindications:
Phenytoin and Fosphenytoin = HLA-B1502 Test (Asians), Fetal Harm, Blood Dyscrasias Valproic Acid and Divalproex = Hyperammonemia (elevated ammonia levels), thrombocytopenia (low platelet count), and lamotrigine due risk of serious rash Lacosamide = Potential to prolong the PR-interval and increase the risk of arrhythmias Oxcarbazepine = HLA-B1502 Test (Asians) and hyponatremia
Match the following anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) with their goal therapeutic levels:
Phenobarbital = 20-40 mcg/ml in adults and 15-40 mcg/ml in children Phenytoin and Fosphenytoin = 10 - 20 mcg/mL (trough levels) and 1 - 2.5 mcg/mL (free trough levels) Valproic Acid and Divalproex = 50-100 mcg/mL Lacosamide = Not mentioned in the text
Test your knowledge about epilepsy and seizures by answering questions about different types of seizures, their initial treatment, diagnostic tests, and characteristics. Find out more about focal seizures, generalized seizures, status epilepticus, and more.
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