Otitis Media and Externa

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to Lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

A child presents with ear pain, fever, and a bulging tympanic membrane. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?

  • Cholesteatoma
  • Eustachian tube dysfunction
  • Acute otitis media (correct)
  • Otitis externa

A patient presents with inflammation of the external ear canal, ear pain, pruritus, discharge, and tenderness upon palpation of the tragus. What is the MOST likely cause?

  • Otitis externa (correct)
  • Eustachian tube dysfunction
  • Otitis media
  • Mastoiditis

Which of the following physical exam findings is MOST indicative of cerumen impaction?

  • Bulging tympanic membrane
  • Redness of the external ear canal
  • Visualized wax blockage on otoscopy (correct)
  • Clear fluid discharge from the ear

A patient presents with vertigo, nausea, and hearing loss following a recent upper respiratory tract infection. Which condition is MOST likely responsible for these symptoms?

<p>Labyrinthitis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with episodic vertigo lasting minutes to hours, fluctuating low-frequency hearing loss, and aural fullness. What is the MOST probable diagnosis?

<p>Meniere's disease (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports facial pain that worsens when bending forward, accompanied by purulent nasal discharge and nasal congestion. Which condition is MOST likely indicated by these symptoms?

<p>Acute sinusitis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with recurrent nosebleeds is being evaluated. From which anatomical location does epistaxis MOST commonly originate?

<p>Kiesselbach's plexus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with white plaques on the oral mucosa that scrape off, leaving an erythematous base. Which organism is MOST likely responsible for this infection?

<p>Candida albicans (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with localized swelling, warmth, tenderness, and reduced movement in the prepatellar region after prolonged kneeling. Which condition is MOST likely?

<p>Bursitis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with progressive loss of shoulder movement and painful stiffness, especially with external rotation. Which condition is MOST likely?

<p>Frozen shoulder (adhesive capsulitis) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports a painful arc of abduction between 60 and 120 degrees, along with weakness and night pain in the shoulder. Which condition is MOST likely?

<p>Rotator cuff injury (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with paresthesia in the thumb, index, and middle fingers, along with thenar muscle weakness. Which condition is MOST likely?

<p>Carpal tunnel syndrome (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient experiences sharp, shooting pain down the leg and a positive straight leg raise test. Which condition is MOST likely indicated by these findings?

<p>Sciatica (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with joint pain that worsens with activity, stiffness, crepitus, and bony swelling. Which condition is MOST likely present?

<p>Osteoarthritis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with symmetrical polyarthritis affecting the small joints of the hands, accompanied by morning stiffness lasting over an hour. Which condition is MOST likely?

<p>Rheumatoid arthritis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient experiences sudden, severe joint pain in the first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint, accompanied by erythema and swelling. Which condition is MOST likely?

<p>Gout (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a hot, swollen, painful joint, fever, and systemic symptoms. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

<p>Septic arthritis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child sustains a fracture in which the bone is partially bent and broken on one side. What type of fracture is MOST likely?

<p>Greenstick (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient experiences loss of smell (anosmia). Which cranial nerve is MOST likely affected?

<p>CN I (Olfactory) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with diplopia, ptosis, and pupil abnormalities. Which cranial nerves are MOST likely involved?

<p>CN III (Oculomotor), CN IV (Trochlear), CN VI (Abducens) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with sudden onset of neurological deficits, including facial droop, arm weakness, and speech difficulty. Which condition should be suspected?

<p>Stroke (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST immediate management step for a patient experiencing status epilepticus?

<p>Lorazepam (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with stroke-like symptoms that resolve completely within 24 hours. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

<p>Transient ischemic attack (TIA) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a headache that is worse in the morning, along with vomiting and papilledema. Which condition is MOST likely?

<p>Increased intracranial pressure (ICP) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has bradykinesia, resting tremor, rigidity, and postural instability. Which condition is MOST likely present?

<p>Parkinson's disease (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with ascending weakness, areflexia, and autonomic dysfunction following a recent infection. Which condition is MOST likely?

<p>Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's lab results show fatigue, pallor, and glossitis and their MCV result is <80 fL. Which type of anemia is MOST likely indicated?

<p>Microcytic anemia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the underlying cause of pernicious anemia?

<p>Lack of intrinsic factor leading to B12 malabsorption (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST common cause of normocytic anemia?

<p>Chronic disease or acute blood loss (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with aplastic anemia, which of the following lab findings would be expected?

<p>Pancytopenia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with fatigue, pallor, pica, and koilonychia is MOST likely suffering from which type of anemia?

<p>Iron deficiency anemia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the underlying genetic defect in sickle cell disease?

<p>Mutation in the beta-globin gene (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following triggers is MOST closely associated with an episode of hemolytic anemia in a patient with G6PD deficiency?

<p>Fava bean ingestion (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with painless lymphadenopathy, fever, weight loss, and night sweats. What condition is MOST likely suspected?

<p>Lymphoma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A young child presents with recurrent ear infections, often following a recent cold. Which of the following is the MOST common bacterial pathogen causing acute otitis media in children?

<p>Streptococcus pneumoniae (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An elderly patient with hearing aids presents with ear pain, itching, and a sensation of fullness in the ear canal. Otoscopy reveals inflammation and purulent discharge. Which bacterium is MOST likely the causative agent of this patient's otitis externa?

<p>Pseudomonas aeruginosa (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of diabetes presents with severe ear pain, purulent discharge, and facial cellulitis extending from the ear canal. Cranial nerve palsies are also noted. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?

<p>Malignant otitis externa (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing chemotherapy presents with a painful oral infection. On examination, there are white, adherent plaques on the tongue and buccal mucosa that bleed when scraped. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate first-line treatment for this condition?

<p>Nystatin oral suspension (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A football player reports unilateral nasal bleeding after being elbowed in the face during a game. Examination reveals a hematoma on the nasal septum. What is the MOST appropriate next step in managing this patient?

<p>Incision and drainage of the hematoma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Otitis Media Definition

Middle ear infection, often following an upper respiratory tract infection (URTI).

Otitis Media Risk Factors

Young children, daycare attendance, smoking exposure, cleft palate.

Otitis Media - Differential Diagnosis

Otitis externa, mastoiditis, cholesteatoma, eustachian tube dysfunction.

Viral Otitis Media Aetiology

RSV, rhinovirus, influenza.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Bacterial Otitis Media Aetiology

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Otitis Media - Clinical Features

Ear pain, fever, conductive hearing loss, bulging tympanic membrane.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Otitis Media - Investigations

Clinical diagnosis, otoscopy (red, bulging TM).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Acute Otitis Media - Management

Supportive care, amoxicillin if bacterial.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chronic Otitis Media - Management

ENT referral, tympanostomy tubes (grommets).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Otitis Externa Definition

Inflammation of the external ear canal, aka "swimmer's ear."

Signup and view all the flashcards

Otitis Externa - Risk Factors

Swimming, trauma (Q-tips, hearing aids), diabetes, eczema.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Otitis Externa - Differential Diagnosis

Otitis media, mastoiditis, fungal otitis externa.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Bacterial Otitis Externa Aetiology

Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Staphylococcus aureus.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fungal Otitis Externa Aetiology

Candida, Aspergillus (black debris in canal).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Otitis Externa - Clinical Features

Ear pain, pruritus, discharge, tragal tenderness.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Otitis Externa - Management

Topical antibiotics (ciprofloxacin/hydrocortisone drops), keep ear dry.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cerumen Impaction Definition

Accumulation of earwax causing conductive hearing loss.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cerumen Impaction - Risk Factors

Overuse of cotton buds, hearing aids, narrow ear canals.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cerumen Impaction - Clinical Features

Hearing loss, ear fullness, tinnitus.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cerumen Impaction - First-line Management

Ear drops (olive oil, sodium bicarbonate).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cerumen Impaction - Second-line Management

Irrigation or microsuction if needed.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Labyrinthitis Definition

Inner ear infection causing vertigo, nausea, and hearing loss.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Labyrinthitis - Risk Factors

Recent viral infection, autoimmune disease.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Labyrinthitis - Viral Aetiology

Viral (most common): Post-URTI, HSV, CMV.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Labyrinthitis - Bacterial Aetiology

Bacterial (rare): Spread from otitis media.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Labyrinthitis - Clinical Features

Vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, nausea, horizontal nystagmus.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Meniere's Disease

Episodic inner ear disorder causing vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Meniere's risks

Family history, autoimmune disorders, migraines.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Meniere's mimics

BPPV, vestibular neuronitis, acoustic neuroma.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Meniere's cause

Define endolymphatic hydrops.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Sinusitis symptoms

Facial pain (worse on bending forward) and purulent nasal discharge.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Sinusitis risks

URTI, smoking, allergies.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Epistaxis defined

Bleeding from Kiesselbach's plexus in the nasal mucosa.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Epistaxis risks

Trauma, anticoagulants, dry air.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Thrush Cause

Fungal infection by candida Albicans.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Define: Bursitis

Inflammation of the bursa.

Signup and view all the flashcards

GBS Pathophysiology Hint

Autoimmune attack on Schwann cells.

Signup and view all the flashcards

G6PD Deficiency Hint

Deficiency in G6PD.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Study Notes

Acute & Chronic Otitis Media

  • Middle ear infection usually follows an upper respiratory tract infection (URTI)
  • Common in young children
  • Daycare attendance and smoking exposure are risk factors
  • Cleft palate increases the chance of infection
  • Otitis externa, mastoiditis, cholesteatoma, and eustachian tube dysfunction are differentials
  • Can be viral, such as RSV, rhinovirus, or influenza
  • Can be bacterial such as, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, or Moraxella catarrhalis
  • Presents with ear pain, fever, conductive hearing loss, and a bulging tympanic membrane
  • Clinical diagnosis involves otoscopy showing a red, bulging tympanic membrane
  • Supportive care and amoxicillin are treatments for bacterial infections
  • Chronic cases require ENT referral for tympanostomy tubes

Otitis Externa

  • Inflammation of the external ear canal, also known as swimmer's ear
  • Common in swimmers
  • Trauma from Q-tips or hearing aids can lead to infection
  • Risk factors include diabetes and eczema
  • Otitis media, mastoiditis, and fungal otitis externa should be considered as alternative possibilities
  • Caused by bacteria, such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Staphylococcus aureus
  • Can also be caused by fungi like Candida and Aspergillus, with black debris visible in the canal
  • Ear pain, itching, discharge, and tenderness of the tragus are clinical signs
  • Diagnosis involves a clinical examination and possibly a swab if severe
  • Topical antibiotics like ciprofloxacin/hydrocortisone drops are used, and keeping the ear dry is important

Cerumen Impaction

  • Earwax accumulation leading to conductive hearing loss
  • Overuse of cotton buds is a risk factor
  • Hearing aids and narrow ear canals can increase occurrences
  • Otitis externa, foreign bodies, and otosclerosis must be ruled out
  • Can occur due to excessive earwax production or issues with natural clearance
  • Presents with hearing loss, ear fullness, and tinnitus
  • Otoscopy shows a visible blockage of wax
  • First-line is ear drops, such as olive oil or sodium bicarbonate
  • Ear irrigation or microsuction are second-line treatments if needed

Labyrinthitis

  • Inner ear infection causing vertigo, nausea, and hearing loss
  • Recent viral infections and autoimmune diseases increase chances
  • Vestibular neuronitis, BPPV, and Ménière's disease are differentials
  • Viral infections are most common caused by post-URTI, HSV, or CMV
  • Bacterial infections are rare and spread from Otitis media
  • Symptoms include vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, nausea, and horizontal nystagmus
  • Clinical diagnosis, with MRI if atypical
  • Viral infections are managed via symptomatically with prochlorperazine and vestibular rehabilitation
  • Bacterial infections are treated with IV antibiotics

Ménière's Disease

  • Episodic inner ear disorder causing vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus
  • Family history, autoimmune disorders, and migraines are risk factors
  • BPPV, vestibular neuronitis, and acoustic neuroma are among differentials
  • Increased endolymphatic fluid pressure (endolymphatic hydrops) is the cause
  • Episodic vertigo, sensorineural hearing loss and tinnitus, and aural fullness characterizes presentation
  • Audiometry detects sensorineural hearing loss
  • MRI rules out acoustic neuroma
  • Acute treatment includes prochlorperazine and vestibular sedatives
  • Long-term management involves a low-salt diet, diuretics, and vestibular rehabilitation

Acute & Chronic Sinusitis

  • Inflammation of the paranasal sinuses due to infection or allergy
  • Risk factors include URTI, smoking, nasal polyps, and allergies
  • Differentiated from allergic rhinitis, nasal polyps, and migraines
  • Viral infections caused by rhinovirus, influenza, and coronavirus are most common
  • Bacterial infections are caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae
  • Diagnosed after >10 days
  • Facial pain, purulent nasal discharge, congestion, and headache are symptoms
  • Clinical evaluation is done, with CT if recurrent or severe
  • Symptomatic treatment for viral infections includes nasal saline and analgesics
  • Bacterial infections treated with amoxicillin-clavulanate

Epistaxis

  • Bleeding from the nasal mucosa, commonly from Kiesselbach's plexus
  • Risk factors include trauma, dry air, anticoagulants, and hypertension
  • Nasal polyps, bleeding disorders, and malignancy are of consideration
  • Caused by trauma, mucosal dryness, and coagulopathy
  • Presents with unilateral nasal bleeding and recurrent episodes
  • Clinical examination is used for diagnosis
  • International Normalized Ratio (INR) is tested if on anticoagulants
  • Pinching the nose, leaning forward, and nasal packing are management techniques

Oral Thrush (Candidiasis)

  • Fungal infection of the oral mucosa caused by Candida albicans
  • Immunosuppression, diabetes, and antibiotic use can be contributing factors
  • Leukoplakia and aphthous ulcers are differential diagnoses
  • Overgrowth of normal oral flora due to impaired immunity
  • White plaques that scrape off, are clinical characteristics
  • Leaves erythema
  • Clinical examination and oral swabs are diagnostic tools
  • Nystatin oral suspension is prescribed, and fluconazole is used if severe

Glossitis & Gingivitis

  • Glossitis is inflammation of the tongue
  • Gingivitis is inflammation of the gums
  • Poor oral hygiene is a risk factor
  • Vitamin B12/iron deficiency and smoking also pose concerns
  • Oral thrush, lichen planus, and herpes stomatitis are included on list of differential diagnoses
  • Nutritional deficiencies, infections, and allergies lead to Glossitis
  • Gingivitis is caused by plaque build-up and bacterial infection
  • Glossitis presents with a red, swollen, smooth tongue
  • Gingivitis includes bleeding gums, erythema, and swelling
  • Clinical examination and checking vitamin B12 levels are needed
  • Treatment involves improved oral hygiene, chlorhexidine mouthwash, and treating nutritional deficiencies

Bursitis

  • Inflammation of the bursa, a fluid-filled sac reducing friction in joints
  • Repetitive motion, trauma, infection, rheumatoid arthritis (RA) are contributing elements
  • Tendinopathy, arthritis, gout, and septic bursitis are alternative diagnoses
  • Traumatic: Overuse (kneeling = prepatellar bursitis)
  • Infectious: Staphylococcus aureus
  • Localized swelling, warmth, tenderness, and reduced movement are signs
  • Clinical diagnosis is based on aspirating fluid for suspected septic bursitis, noting WBC and gram stain

Frozen Shoulder (Adhesive Capsulitis)

  • Progressive loss of shoulder movement due to joint capsule fibrosis
  • Diabetes and immobilization (stroke, post-surgery)
  • Rotator cuff tear, osteoarthritis, and impingement syndrome are differential diagnoses
  • Inflammatory response leads to capsular thickening and fibrosis
  • Symptoms include painful stiffness and loss of active & passive movement
  • Clinical examination and MRI are appropriate diagnostics to rule out other causes
  • Physiotherapy, NSAIDs, steroid injections, and surgical release are appropriate treatments if severe

Rotator Cuff Injury

  • Tear or inflammation of rotator cuff muscles, with supraspinatus most commonly affected
  • Repetitive overhead activity, trauma, and aging are risk factors
  • Frozen shoulder, bursitis, and shoulder impingement considerations
  • Acute: Trauma (fall, heavy lifting)
  • Chronic: Degeneration, repetitive strain
  • A painful arc (60-120° abduction), weakness, and night pain characterize this injury
  • MRI shoulder is the gold standard for diagnosis
  • Physiotherapy, NSAIDs, steroid injections, and surgical repair may be used in complete tears

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

  • Median nerve compression at the wrist
  • Pregnancy, diabetes, hypothyroidism, and repetitive wrist use are causes
  • Differential diagnoses include ulnar neuropathy, cervical radiculopathy, and arthritis
  • Swelling of flexor tendons compressing the median nerve is the cause
  • Paresthesia in thumb, index, and middle fingers, weak grip, positive Tinel's & Phalen's tests are symptoms
  • Diagnosed via nerve conduction studies and ultrasound
  • Treated with wrist splinting, NSAIDs, steroid injections, and surgery if severe

Sciatica

  • Radicular pain from lumbar nerve root compression (L4-S1)
  • Disc herniation, spinal stenosis, and pregnancy are the cause
  • Hip arthritis and sacroiliac joint dysfunction are differentials to consider
  • Herniated disc, spinal stenosis, and spondylolisthesis are potential underlying processes
  • Sharp, shooting leg pain and a positive straight leg raise (SLR) test are important key symptoms
  • MRI of the lumbar spine serves as the gold standard for diagnosis
  • Treatment includes NSAIDs, physiotherapy, epidural steroids, and surgery if severe

Osteoarthritis (OA)

  • Degenerative joint disease due to cartilage breakdown
  • Aging, obesity, and joint trauma are risk factors
  • Rheumatoid arthritis, gout, and septic arthritis are factors to consider
  • Wear & tear leads to cartilage erosion, osteophytes, and pain
  • Symptoms worsens with activity, characterized with stiffness, crepitus, and bony swelling
  • Diagnosed via X-ray to capture joint space narrowing and osteophytes
  • Weight loss, NSAIDs, steroid injections, and joint replacement if severe are management options

Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)

  • Autoimmune inflammatory arthritis affecting small joints symmetrically
  • Female sex, smoking, and HLA-DR4 gene predispositions
  • Differentials to consider are OA, psoriatic arthritis, and lupus
  • Chronic synovial inflammation leads to pannus formation and joint damage
  • Characterized by morning stiffness lasting >1 hour
  • Symmetrical features consist of polyarthritis (PIP, MCP joints)
  • Ulnar deviation and swan-neck deformity can occur
  • Tests should include RF, anti-CCP, and X-ray for joint erosions
  • DMARDs like methotrexate and hydroxychloroquine are prescribed
  • For flares use NSAIDs and steroids

Gout

  • Inflammatory arthritis due to uric acid crystal deposition
  • Male sex, alcohol, red meat consumption, and diuretics are risk factors
  • Pseudogout, septic arthritis, and cellulitis are differentials when considering
  • Hyperuricemia leads to monosodium urate crystal deposition
  • Symptoms consist of severe joint pain (1st MTP joint - podagra), erythema, swelling
  • Synovial fluid tests should include joint aspiration, which is negatively birefringent urate crystals
  • Serum uric acid is also indicated
  • Acute treatment consists of NSAIDs, colchicine, and steroids if severe
  • Long-term management includes allopurinol and lifestyle changes

Septic Arthritis

  • Infection of a joint, often bacterial
  • Risk factors consist of prosthetic joints, diabetes, and immunosuppression
  • Differentials should include gout, pseudogout, and reactive arthritis
  • Most commonly caused by S. aureus, as well as Streptococcus and Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  • The symptomatic profile is comprised of a hot, swollen, painful joint, systemic symptons, and a fever
  • Diagnosis involves joint aspiration (WCC >50,000), blood cultures
  • Managed with IV antibiotics and joint drainage

Fractures (Types & Management)

  • Disruption in bone continuity due to trauma or disease
  • Greenstick: Partial fracture, most common in children
    • Transverse: Straight across the bone
    • Spiral: Twisting force
    • Oblique: Diagonal fracture
    • Compression: Bone crushed, common in vertebrae
    • Comminuted: Bone breaks into multiple pieces
    • Open (compound): Bone pierces skin
  • Risk factors include trauma, osteoporosis, and falls
  • Clinical diagnoses involve pain, swelling, deformity, loss of function
  • Investigations involve X-ray, CT/MRI if needed Non-surgical includes casting and splinting if stable Surgical can include ORIF for displaced fractures

Cranial Nerves

  • The 12 paired cranial nerves (CN I-XII) control sensory and motor functions of the head, neck, and some thoracic organs
  • Risk factors include trauma, stroke, MS, neurodegenerative diseases
  • Brainstem stroke, multiple sclerosis, Guillain-Barré syndrome, myasthenia gravis are of mention
  • The root cause can be congenital, traumatic, neoplastic, inflammatory, or vascular in nature
  • CN I (Olfactory): Loss of smell (anosmia)
    • CN II (Optic): Visual field defects (hemianopia)
    • CN III, IV, VI (Oculomotor, Trochlear, Abducens): Diplopia, ptosis, pupil abnormalities
    • CN V (Trigeminal): Facial numbness, jaw weakness
    • CN VII (Facial): Facial paralysis (Bell's palsy)
    • CN VIII (Vestibulocochlear): Hearing loss, vertigo
    • CN IX, X (Glossopharyngeal, Vagus): Dysphagia, hoarseness
    • CN XI (Accessory): Weak shoulder shrug (trapezius)
    • CN XII (Hypoglossal): Tongue deviation
  • Diagnosis includes clinical exam and MRI brain if pathology is suspected
  • Management involves treating the underlying cause

Types of Seizures

  • Uncontrolled electrical activity in the brain causing abnormal movements, sensations, or consciousness changes
  • Risk factors include epilepsy, stroke, brain tumor, head injury, infection
  • Syncope, migraine, psychogenic seizures, metabolic disturbances are differential diagnosis
  • Focal seizures: Localized cortical disruption
  • Generalized seizures: Widespread cortical involvement For seizures that are Focal, patients retain awareness Generalized seizures are those that cause a loss of consciousness, tonic-clonic movements
  • Diagnosis involves EEG, MRI, and blood testing
  • Acute: Benzodiazepines (lorazepam for status epilepticus)
  • Chronic: Anti-epileptics

Stroke (Haemorrhagic & Ischaemic)

  • Sudden loss of neurological function due to vascular occlusion or bleeding
  • Risk factors include hypertension, atrial fibrillation, diabetes, smoking
  • TIA, migraine, brain tumor, hypoglycemia are differentials
  • Ischaemic strokes arise from Thrombotic causes
  • Haemorraghic strokes have Hypertension and aneurysm rupture as the cause
  • Key features are those of the FAST profile
  • Investigations involve CT, MRI, carotid Doppler, and ECG
  • Ischaemic strikes need Thrombolysis or aspirin

TIA (Transient Ischaemic Attack)

  • Temporary stroke-like symptoms that resolve within 24 hours
  • Risk Factors are those found in a stroke
  • Differential diagnoses may include migraine, seizures, syncope
  • Characterized as a temporary blockage of cerebral blood flow
  • Presents in the FAST model
  • Investigations include carotid Doppler, ECG, MRI, bloods
  • Management focuses on changes to lifestyle in conjunction with Statins and Aspirin

Raised Intracranial Pressure (ICP)

  • Increased pressure inside the skull, leading to brain dysfunction
  • Risk factors include tumors, head trauma, hydrocephalus, stroke
  • Differentiated from brain tumors, meningitis, cerebral edema
  • Obstructive issues are Tumors, hydrocephalus
  • Non-obstructive causes can be trauma, infections, cerebral edema
  • Often presents as a headache
  • Other features include vomiting and papilledema
  • Testing consistes of CT/MRI brain, fundoscopy for papilledema, LP if safe
  • During acute episodes, elevate the head, using mannitol
  • Hyperventilation, and surgical decompression also viable

Parkinson's Disease

  • Progressive neurodegenerative disorder due to dopamine depletion in substantia nigra
  • The older population is affected at greater rates
  • Differentials should include essential tremor and Lewy body dementia
  • Loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra causes the disease
  • Characterized by Bradykinesia with resting tremor, rigidity, postural instability
  • Diagnosis made through examination
  • Management can be conducted by using medicine to deal with carbidopa to replenish dopamine
  • Non-medical practices include therapy and speech

Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS)

  • An immune-mediated demyelinating polyneuropathy affecting peripheral nerves
  • Recent infections and vaccinations increase your potential
  • Differentiated from Myasthenia Gravis or transverse myelitis stroke
  • Autoimmune attack on schwann cells lead to demyelination of peripheral nevers
  • Can trigger ascending weakness, areflexia, autonomic dysfunction for key clinical presentations
  • Testing needs LP, nerve conduction studies
  • Treatment involves immunoglobulin and supportive care

Studying That Suits You

Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

Quiz Team

Related Documents

More Like This

Exploring Otorrhoea
28 questions

Exploring Otorrhoea

PoeticLaboradite4677 avatar
PoeticLaboradite4677
Otitis Media Overview
26 questions

Otitis Media Overview

OptimalEnglishHorn avatar
OptimalEnglishHorn
Use Quizgecko on...
Browser
Browser