Podcast
Questions and Answers
A child presents with ear pain, fever, and a bulging tympanic membrane. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?
A child presents with ear pain, fever, and a bulging tympanic membrane. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?
- Cholesteatoma
- Eustachian tube dysfunction
- Acute otitis media (correct)
- Otitis externa
A patient presents with inflammation of the external ear canal, ear pain, pruritus, discharge, and tenderness upon palpation of the tragus. What is the MOST likely cause?
A patient presents with inflammation of the external ear canal, ear pain, pruritus, discharge, and tenderness upon palpation of the tragus. What is the MOST likely cause?
- Otitis externa (correct)
- Eustachian tube dysfunction
- Otitis media
- Mastoiditis
Which of the following physical exam findings is MOST indicative of cerumen impaction?
Which of the following physical exam findings is MOST indicative of cerumen impaction?
- Bulging tympanic membrane
- Redness of the external ear canal
- Visualized wax blockage on otoscopy (correct)
- Clear fluid discharge from the ear
A patient presents with vertigo, nausea, and hearing loss following a recent upper respiratory tract infection. Which condition is MOST likely responsible for these symptoms?
A patient presents with vertigo, nausea, and hearing loss following a recent upper respiratory tract infection. Which condition is MOST likely responsible for these symptoms?
A patient presents with episodic vertigo lasting minutes to hours, fluctuating low-frequency hearing loss, and aural fullness. What is the MOST probable diagnosis?
A patient presents with episodic vertigo lasting minutes to hours, fluctuating low-frequency hearing loss, and aural fullness. What is the MOST probable diagnosis?
A patient reports facial pain that worsens when bending forward, accompanied by purulent nasal discharge and nasal congestion. Which condition is MOST likely indicated by these symptoms?
A patient reports facial pain that worsens when bending forward, accompanied by purulent nasal discharge and nasal congestion. Which condition is MOST likely indicated by these symptoms?
A patient with recurrent nosebleeds is being evaluated. From which anatomical location does epistaxis MOST commonly originate?
A patient with recurrent nosebleeds is being evaluated. From which anatomical location does epistaxis MOST commonly originate?
A patient presents with white plaques on the oral mucosa that scrape off, leaving an erythematous base. Which organism is MOST likely responsible for this infection?
A patient presents with white plaques on the oral mucosa that scrape off, leaving an erythematous base. Which organism is MOST likely responsible for this infection?
A patient presents with localized swelling, warmth, tenderness, and reduced movement in the prepatellar region after prolonged kneeling. Which condition is MOST likely?
A patient presents with localized swelling, warmth, tenderness, and reduced movement in the prepatellar region after prolonged kneeling. Which condition is MOST likely?
A patient presents with progressive loss of shoulder movement and painful stiffness, especially with external rotation. Which condition is MOST likely?
A patient presents with progressive loss of shoulder movement and painful stiffness, especially with external rotation. Which condition is MOST likely?
A patient reports a painful arc of abduction between 60 and 120 degrees, along with weakness and night pain in the shoulder. Which condition is MOST likely?
A patient reports a painful arc of abduction between 60 and 120 degrees, along with weakness and night pain in the shoulder. Which condition is MOST likely?
A patient presents with paresthesia in the thumb, index, and middle fingers, along with thenar muscle weakness. Which condition is MOST likely?
A patient presents with paresthesia in the thumb, index, and middle fingers, along with thenar muscle weakness. Which condition is MOST likely?
A patient experiences sharp, shooting pain down the leg and a positive straight leg raise test. Which condition is MOST likely indicated by these findings?
A patient experiences sharp, shooting pain down the leg and a positive straight leg raise test. Which condition is MOST likely indicated by these findings?
A patient presents with joint pain that worsens with activity, stiffness, crepitus, and bony swelling. Which condition is MOST likely present?
A patient presents with joint pain that worsens with activity, stiffness, crepitus, and bony swelling. Which condition is MOST likely present?
A patient presents with symmetrical polyarthritis affecting the small joints of the hands, accompanied by morning stiffness lasting over an hour. Which condition is MOST likely?
A patient presents with symmetrical polyarthritis affecting the small joints of the hands, accompanied by morning stiffness lasting over an hour. Which condition is MOST likely?
A patient experiences sudden, severe joint pain in the first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint, accompanied by erythema and swelling. Which condition is MOST likely?
A patient experiences sudden, severe joint pain in the first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint, accompanied by erythema and swelling. Which condition is MOST likely?
A patient presents with a hot, swollen, painful joint, fever, and systemic symptoms. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
A patient presents with a hot, swollen, painful joint, fever, and systemic symptoms. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
A child sustains a fracture in which the bone is partially bent and broken on one side. What type of fracture is MOST likely?
A child sustains a fracture in which the bone is partially bent and broken on one side. What type of fracture is MOST likely?
A patient experiences loss of smell (anosmia). Which cranial nerve is MOST likely affected?
A patient experiences loss of smell (anosmia). Which cranial nerve is MOST likely affected?
A patient presents with diplopia, ptosis, and pupil abnormalities. Which cranial nerves are MOST likely involved?
A patient presents with diplopia, ptosis, and pupil abnormalities. Which cranial nerves are MOST likely involved?
A patient presents with sudden onset of neurological deficits, including facial droop, arm weakness, and speech difficulty. Which condition should be suspected?
A patient presents with sudden onset of neurological deficits, including facial droop, arm weakness, and speech difficulty. Which condition should be suspected?
What is the MOST immediate management step for a patient experiencing status epilepticus?
What is the MOST immediate management step for a patient experiencing status epilepticus?
A patient presents with stroke-like symptoms that resolve completely within 24 hours. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
A patient presents with stroke-like symptoms that resolve completely within 24 hours. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
A patient has a headache that is worse in the morning, along with vomiting and papilledema. Which condition is MOST likely?
A patient has a headache that is worse in the morning, along with vomiting and papilledema. Which condition is MOST likely?
A patient has bradykinesia, resting tremor, rigidity, and postural instability. Which condition is MOST likely present?
A patient has bradykinesia, resting tremor, rigidity, and postural instability. Which condition is MOST likely present?
A patient presents with ascending weakness, areflexia, and autonomic dysfunction following a recent infection. Which condition is MOST likely?
A patient presents with ascending weakness, areflexia, and autonomic dysfunction following a recent infection. Which condition is MOST likely?
A patient's lab results show fatigue, pallor, and glossitis and their MCV result is <80 fL. Which type of anemia is MOST likely indicated?
A patient's lab results show fatigue, pallor, and glossitis and their MCV result is <80 fL. Which type of anemia is MOST likely indicated?
Which of the following is the underlying cause of pernicious anemia?
Which of the following is the underlying cause of pernicious anemia?
What is the MOST common cause of normocytic anemia?
What is the MOST common cause of normocytic anemia?
In a patient with aplastic anemia, which of the following lab findings would be expected?
In a patient with aplastic anemia, which of the following lab findings would be expected?
A patient with fatigue, pallor, pica, and koilonychia is MOST likely suffering from which type of anemia?
A patient with fatigue, pallor, pica, and koilonychia is MOST likely suffering from which type of anemia?
What is the underlying genetic defect in sickle cell disease?
What is the underlying genetic defect in sickle cell disease?
Which of the following triggers is MOST closely associated with an episode of hemolytic anemia in a patient with G6PD deficiency?
Which of the following triggers is MOST closely associated with an episode of hemolytic anemia in a patient with G6PD deficiency?
A patient presents with painless lymphadenopathy, fever, weight loss, and night sweats. What condition is MOST likely suspected?
A patient presents with painless lymphadenopathy, fever, weight loss, and night sweats. What condition is MOST likely suspected?
A young child presents with recurrent ear infections, often following a recent cold. Which of the following is the MOST common bacterial pathogen causing acute otitis media in children?
A young child presents with recurrent ear infections, often following a recent cold. Which of the following is the MOST common bacterial pathogen causing acute otitis media in children?
An elderly patient with hearing aids presents with ear pain, itching, and a sensation of fullness in the ear canal. Otoscopy reveals inflammation and purulent discharge. Which bacterium is MOST likely the causative agent of this patient's otitis externa?
An elderly patient with hearing aids presents with ear pain, itching, and a sensation of fullness in the ear canal. Otoscopy reveals inflammation and purulent discharge. Which bacterium is MOST likely the causative agent of this patient's otitis externa?
A patient with a history of diabetes presents with severe ear pain, purulent discharge, and facial cellulitis extending from the ear canal. Cranial nerve palsies are also noted. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?
A patient with a history of diabetes presents with severe ear pain, purulent discharge, and facial cellulitis extending from the ear canal. Cranial nerve palsies are also noted. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?
A patient undergoing chemotherapy presents with a painful oral infection. On examination, there are white, adherent plaques on the tongue and buccal mucosa that bleed when scraped. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate first-line treatment for this condition?
A patient undergoing chemotherapy presents with a painful oral infection. On examination, there are white, adherent plaques on the tongue and buccal mucosa that bleed when scraped. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate first-line treatment for this condition?
A football player reports unilateral nasal bleeding after being elbowed in the face during a game. Examination reveals a hematoma on the nasal septum. What is the MOST appropriate next step in managing this patient?
A football player reports unilateral nasal bleeding after being elbowed in the face during a game. Examination reveals a hematoma on the nasal septum. What is the MOST appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Flashcards
Otitis Media Definition
Otitis Media Definition
Middle ear infection, often following an upper respiratory tract infection (URTI).
Otitis Media Risk Factors
Otitis Media Risk Factors
Young children, daycare attendance, smoking exposure, cleft palate.
Otitis Media - Differential Diagnosis
Otitis Media - Differential Diagnosis
Otitis externa, mastoiditis, cholesteatoma, eustachian tube dysfunction.
Viral Otitis Media Aetiology
Viral Otitis Media Aetiology
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Bacterial Otitis Media Aetiology
Bacterial Otitis Media Aetiology
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Otitis Media - Clinical Features
Otitis Media - Clinical Features
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Otitis Media - Investigations
Otitis Media - Investigations
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Acute Otitis Media - Management
Acute Otitis Media - Management
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Chronic Otitis Media - Management
Chronic Otitis Media - Management
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Otitis Externa Definition
Otitis Externa Definition
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Otitis Externa - Risk Factors
Otitis Externa - Risk Factors
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Otitis Externa - Differential Diagnosis
Otitis Externa - Differential Diagnosis
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Bacterial Otitis Externa Aetiology
Bacterial Otitis Externa Aetiology
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Fungal Otitis Externa Aetiology
Fungal Otitis Externa Aetiology
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Otitis Externa - Clinical Features
Otitis Externa - Clinical Features
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Otitis Externa - Management
Otitis Externa - Management
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Cerumen Impaction Definition
Cerumen Impaction Definition
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Cerumen Impaction - Risk Factors
Cerumen Impaction - Risk Factors
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Cerumen Impaction - Clinical Features
Cerumen Impaction - Clinical Features
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Cerumen Impaction - First-line Management
Cerumen Impaction - First-line Management
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Cerumen Impaction - Second-line Management
Cerumen Impaction - Second-line Management
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Labyrinthitis Definition
Labyrinthitis Definition
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Labyrinthitis - Risk Factors
Labyrinthitis - Risk Factors
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Labyrinthitis - Viral Aetiology
Labyrinthitis - Viral Aetiology
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Labyrinthitis - Bacterial Aetiology
Labyrinthitis - Bacterial Aetiology
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Labyrinthitis - Clinical Features
Labyrinthitis - Clinical Features
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Meniere's Disease
Meniere's Disease
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Meniere's risks
Meniere's risks
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Meniere's mimics
Meniere's mimics
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Meniere's cause
Meniere's cause
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Sinusitis symptoms
Sinusitis symptoms
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Sinusitis risks
Sinusitis risks
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Epistaxis defined
Epistaxis defined
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Epistaxis risks
Epistaxis risks
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Thrush Cause
Thrush Cause
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Define: Bursitis
Define: Bursitis
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GBS Pathophysiology Hint
GBS Pathophysiology Hint
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G6PD Deficiency Hint
G6PD Deficiency Hint
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Study Notes
Acute & Chronic Otitis Media
- Middle ear infection usually follows an upper respiratory tract infection (URTI)
- Common in young children
- Daycare attendance and smoking exposure are risk factors
- Cleft palate increases the chance of infection
- Otitis externa, mastoiditis, cholesteatoma, and eustachian tube dysfunction are differentials
- Can be viral, such as RSV, rhinovirus, or influenza
- Can be bacterial such as, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, or Moraxella catarrhalis
- Presents with ear pain, fever, conductive hearing loss, and a bulging tympanic membrane
- Clinical diagnosis involves otoscopy showing a red, bulging tympanic membrane
- Supportive care and amoxicillin are treatments for bacterial infections
- Chronic cases require ENT referral for tympanostomy tubes
Otitis Externa
- Inflammation of the external ear canal, also known as swimmer's ear
- Common in swimmers
- Trauma from Q-tips or hearing aids can lead to infection
- Risk factors include diabetes and eczema
- Otitis media, mastoiditis, and fungal otitis externa should be considered as alternative possibilities
- Caused by bacteria, such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Staphylococcus aureus
- Can also be caused by fungi like Candida and Aspergillus, with black debris visible in the canal
- Ear pain, itching, discharge, and tenderness of the tragus are clinical signs
- Diagnosis involves a clinical examination and possibly a swab if severe
- Topical antibiotics like ciprofloxacin/hydrocortisone drops are used, and keeping the ear dry is important
Cerumen Impaction
- Earwax accumulation leading to conductive hearing loss
- Overuse of cotton buds is a risk factor
- Hearing aids and narrow ear canals can increase occurrences
- Otitis externa, foreign bodies, and otosclerosis must be ruled out
- Can occur due to excessive earwax production or issues with natural clearance
- Presents with hearing loss, ear fullness, and tinnitus
- Otoscopy shows a visible blockage of wax
- First-line is ear drops, such as olive oil or sodium bicarbonate
- Ear irrigation or microsuction are second-line treatments if needed
Labyrinthitis
- Inner ear infection causing vertigo, nausea, and hearing loss
- Recent viral infections and autoimmune diseases increase chances
- Vestibular neuronitis, BPPV, and Ménière's disease are differentials
- Viral infections are most common caused by post-URTI, HSV, or CMV
- Bacterial infections are rare and spread from Otitis media
- Symptoms include vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, nausea, and horizontal nystagmus
- Clinical diagnosis, with MRI if atypical
- Viral infections are managed via symptomatically with prochlorperazine and vestibular rehabilitation
- Bacterial infections are treated with IV antibiotics
Ménière's Disease
- Episodic inner ear disorder causing vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus
- Family history, autoimmune disorders, and migraines are risk factors
- BPPV, vestibular neuronitis, and acoustic neuroma are among differentials
- Increased endolymphatic fluid pressure (endolymphatic hydrops) is the cause
- Episodic vertigo, sensorineural hearing loss and tinnitus, and aural fullness characterizes presentation
- Audiometry detects sensorineural hearing loss
- MRI rules out acoustic neuroma
- Acute treatment includes prochlorperazine and vestibular sedatives
- Long-term management involves a low-salt diet, diuretics, and vestibular rehabilitation
Acute & Chronic Sinusitis
- Inflammation of the paranasal sinuses due to infection or allergy
- Risk factors include URTI, smoking, nasal polyps, and allergies
- Differentiated from allergic rhinitis, nasal polyps, and migraines
- Viral infections caused by rhinovirus, influenza, and coronavirus are most common
- Bacterial infections are caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae
- Diagnosed after >10 days
- Facial pain, purulent nasal discharge, congestion, and headache are symptoms
- Clinical evaluation is done, with CT if recurrent or severe
- Symptomatic treatment for viral infections includes nasal saline and analgesics
- Bacterial infections treated with amoxicillin-clavulanate
Epistaxis
- Bleeding from the nasal mucosa, commonly from Kiesselbach's plexus
- Risk factors include trauma, dry air, anticoagulants, and hypertension
- Nasal polyps, bleeding disorders, and malignancy are of consideration
- Caused by trauma, mucosal dryness, and coagulopathy
- Presents with unilateral nasal bleeding and recurrent episodes
- Clinical examination is used for diagnosis
- International Normalized Ratio (INR) is tested if on anticoagulants
- Pinching the nose, leaning forward, and nasal packing are management techniques
Oral Thrush (Candidiasis)
- Fungal infection of the oral mucosa caused by Candida albicans
- Immunosuppression, diabetes, and antibiotic use can be contributing factors
- Leukoplakia and aphthous ulcers are differential diagnoses
- Overgrowth of normal oral flora due to impaired immunity
- White plaques that scrape off, are clinical characteristics
- Leaves erythema
- Clinical examination and oral swabs are diagnostic tools
- Nystatin oral suspension is prescribed, and fluconazole is used if severe
Glossitis & Gingivitis
- Glossitis is inflammation of the tongue
- Gingivitis is inflammation of the gums
- Poor oral hygiene is a risk factor
- Vitamin B12/iron deficiency and smoking also pose concerns
- Oral thrush, lichen planus, and herpes stomatitis are included on list of differential diagnoses
- Nutritional deficiencies, infections, and allergies lead to Glossitis
- Gingivitis is caused by plaque build-up and bacterial infection
- Glossitis presents with a red, swollen, smooth tongue
- Gingivitis includes bleeding gums, erythema, and swelling
- Clinical examination and checking vitamin B12 levels are needed
- Treatment involves improved oral hygiene, chlorhexidine mouthwash, and treating nutritional deficiencies
Bursitis
- Inflammation of the bursa, a fluid-filled sac reducing friction in joints
- Repetitive motion, trauma, infection, rheumatoid arthritis (RA) are contributing elements
- Tendinopathy, arthritis, gout, and septic bursitis are alternative diagnoses
- Traumatic: Overuse (kneeling = prepatellar bursitis)
- Infectious: Staphylococcus aureus
- Localized swelling, warmth, tenderness, and reduced movement are signs
- Clinical diagnosis is based on aspirating fluid for suspected septic bursitis, noting WBC and gram stain
Frozen Shoulder (Adhesive Capsulitis)
- Progressive loss of shoulder movement due to joint capsule fibrosis
- Diabetes and immobilization (stroke, post-surgery)
- Rotator cuff tear, osteoarthritis, and impingement syndrome are differential diagnoses
- Inflammatory response leads to capsular thickening and fibrosis
- Symptoms include painful stiffness and loss of active & passive movement
- Clinical examination and MRI are appropriate diagnostics to rule out other causes
- Physiotherapy, NSAIDs, steroid injections, and surgical release are appropriate treatments if severe
Rotator Cuff Injury
- Tear or inflammation of rotator cuff muscles, with supraspinatus most commonly affected
- Repetitive overhead activity, trauma, and aging are risk factors
- Frozen shoulder, bursitis, and shoulder impingement considerations
- Acute: Trauma (fall, heavy lifting)
- Chronic: Degeneration, repetitive strain
- A painful arc (60-120° abduction), weakness, and night pain characterize this injury
- MRI shoulder is the gold standard for diagnosis
- Physiotherapy, NSAIDs, steroid injections, and surgical repair may be used in complete tears
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
- Median nerve compression at the wrist
- Pregnancy, diabetes, hypothyroidism, and repetitive wrist use are causes
- Differential diagnoses include ulnar neuropathy, cervical radiculopathy, and arthritis
- Swelling of flexor tendons compressing the median nerve is the cause
- Paresthesia in thumb, index, and middle fingers, weak grip, positive Tinel's & Phalen's tests are symptoms
- Diagnosed via nerve conduction studies and ultrasound
- Treated with wrist splinting, NSAIDs, steroid injections, and surgery if severe
Sciatica
- Radicular pain from lumbar nerve root compression (L4-S1)
- Disc herniation, spinal stenosis, and pregnancy are the cause
- Hip arthritis and sacroiliac joint dysfunction are differentials to consider
- Herniated disc, spinal stenosis, and spondylolisthesis are potential underlying processes
- Sharp, shooting leg pain and a positive straight leg raise (SLR) test are important key symptoms
- MRI of the lumbar spine serves as the gold standard for diagnosis
- Treatment includes NSAIDs, physiotherapy, epidural steroids, and surgery if severe
Osteoarthritis (OA)
- Degenerative joint disease due to cartilage breakdown
- Aging, obesity, and joint trauma are risk factors
- Rheumatoid arthritis, gout, and septic arthritis are factors to consider
- Wear & tear leads to cartilage erosion, osteophytes, and pain
- Symptoms worsens with activity, characterized with stiffness, crepitus, and bony swelling
- Diagnosed via X-ray to capture joint space narrowing and osteophytes
- Weight loss, NSAIDs, steroid injections, and joint replacement if severe are management options
Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)
- Autoimmune inflammatory arthritis affecting small joints symmetrically
- Female sex, smoking, and HLA-DR4 gene predispositions
- Differentials to consider are OA, psoriatic arthritis, and lupus
- Chronic synovial inflammation leads to pannus formation and joint damage
- Characterized by morning stiffness lasting >1 hour
- Symmetrical features consist of polyarthritis (PIP, MCP joints)
- Ulnar deviation and swan-neck deformity can occur
- Tests should include RF, anti-CCP, and X-ray for joint erosions
- DMARDs like methotrexate and hydroxychloroquine are prescribed
- For flares use NSAIDs and steroids
Gout
- Inflammatory arthritis due to uric acid crystal deposition
- Male sex, alcohol, red meat consumption, and diuretics are risk factors
- Pseudogout, septic arthritis, and cellulitis are differentials when considering
- Hyperuricemia leads to monosodium urate crystal deposition
- Symptoms consist of severe joint pain (1st MTP joint - podagra), erythema, swelling
- Synovial fluid tests should include joint aspiration, which is negatively birefringent urate crystals
- Serum uric acid is also indicated
- Acute treatment consists of NSAIDs, colchicine, and steroids if severe
- Long-term management includes allopurinol and lifestyle changes
Septic Arthritis
- Infection of a joint, often bacterial
- Risk factors consist of prosthetic joints, diabetes, and immunosuppression
- Differentials should include gout, pseudogout, and reactive arthritis
- Most commonly caused by S. aureus, as well as Streptococcus and Neisseria gonorrhoeae
- The symptomatic profile is comprised of a hot, swollen, painful joint, systemic symptons, and a fever
- Diagnosis involves joint aspiration (WCC >50,000), blood cultures
- Managed with IV antibiotics and joint drainage
Fractures (Types & Management)
- Disruption in bone continuity due to trauma or disease
- Greenstick: Partial fracture, most common in children
- Transverse: Straight across the bone
- Spiral: Twisting force
- Oblique: Diagonal fracture
- Compression: Bone crushed, common in vertebrae
- Comminuted: Bone breaks into multiple pieces
- Open (compound): Bone pierces skin
- Risk factors include trauma, osteoporosis, and falls
- Clinical diagnoses involve pain, swelling, deformity, loss of function
- Investigations involve X-ray, CT/MRI if needed Non-surgical includes casting and splinting if stable Surgical can include ORIF for displaced fractures
Cranial Nerves
- The 12 paired cranial nerves (CN I-XII) control sensory and motor functions of the head, neck, and some thoracic organs
- Risk factors include trauma, stroke, MS, neurodegenerative diseases
- Brainstem stroke, multiple sclerosis, Guillain-Barré syndrome, myasthenia gravis are of mention
- The root cause can be congenital, traumatic, neoplastic, inflammatory, or vascular in nature
- CN I (Olfactory): Loss of smell (anosmia)
- CN II (Optic): Visual field defects (hemianopia)
- CN III, IV, VI (Oculomotor, Trochlear, Abducens): Diplopia, ptosis, pupil abnormalities
- CN V (Trigeminal): Facial numbness, jaw weakness
- CN VII (Facial): Facial paralysis (Bell's palsy)
- CN VIII (Vestibulocochlear): Hearing loss, vertigo
- CN IX, X (Glossopharyngeal, Vagus): Dysphagia, hoarseness
- CN XI (Accessory): Weak shoulder shrug (trapezius)
- CN XII (Hypoglossal): Tongue deviation
- Diagnosis includes clinical exam and MRI brain if pathology is suspected
- Management involves treating the underlying cause
Types of Seizures
- Uncontrolled electrical activity in the brain causing abnormal movements, sensations, or consciousness changes
- Risk factors include epilepsy, stroke, brain tumor, head injury, infection
- Syncope, migraine, psychogenic seizures, metabolic disturbances are differential diagnosis
- Focal seizures: Localized cortical disruption
- Generalized seizures: Widespread cortical involvement For seizures that are Focal, patients retain awareness Generalized seizures are those that cause a loss of consciousness, tonic-clonic movements
- Diagnosis involves EEG, MRI, and blood testing
- Acute: Benzodiazepines (lorazepam for status epilepticus)
- Chronic: Anti-epileptics
Stroke (Haemorrhagic & Ischaemic)
- Sudden loss of neurological function due to vascular occlusion or bleeding
- Risk factors include hypertension, atrial fibrillation, diabetes, smoking
- TIA, migraine, brain tumor, hypoglycemia are differentials
- Ischaemic strokes arise from Thrombotic causes
- Haemorraghic strokes have Hypertension and aneurysm rupture as the cause
- Key features are those of the FAST profile
- Investigations involve CT, MRI, carotid Doppler, and ECG
- Ischaemic strikes need Thrombolysis or aspirin
TIA (Transient Ischaemic Attack)
- Temporary stroke-like symptoms that resolve within 24 hours
- Risk Factors are those found in a stroke
- Differential diagnoses may include migraine, seizures, syncope
- Characterized as a temporary blockage of cerebral blood flow
- Presents in the FAST model
- Investigations include carotid Doppler, ECG, MRI, bloods
- Management focuses on changes to lifestyle in conjunction with Statins and Aspirin
Raised Intracranial Pressure (ICP)
- Increased pressure inside the skull, leading to brain dysfunction
- Risk factors include tumors, head trauma, hydrocephalus, stroke
- Differentiated from brain tumors, meningitis, cerebral edema
- Obstructive issues are Tumors, hydrocephalus
- Non-obstructive causes can be trauma, infections, cerebral edema
- Often presents as a headache
- Other features include vomiting and papilledema
- Testing consistes of CT/MRI brain, fundoscopy for papilledema, LP if safe
- During acute episodes, elevate the head, using mannitol
- Hyperventilation, and surgical decompression also viable
Parkinson's Disease
- Progressive neurodegenerative disorder due to dopamine depletion in substantia nigra
- The older population is affected at greater rates
- Differentials should include essential tremor and Lewy body dementia
- Loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra causes the disease
- Characterized by Bradykinesia with resting tremor, rigidity, postural instability
- Diagnosis made through examination
- Management can be conducted by using medicine to deal with carbidopa to replenish dopamine
- Non-medical practices include therapy and speech
Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS)
- An immune-mediated demyelinating polyneuropathy affecting peripheral nerves
- Recent infections and vaccinations increase your potential
- Differentiated from Myasthenia Gravis or transverse myelitis stroke
- Autoimmune attack on schwann cells lead to demyelination of peripheral nevers
- Can trigger ascending weakness, areflexia, autonomic dysfunction for key clinical presentations
- Testing needs LP, nerve conduction studies
- Treatment involves immunoglobulin and supportive care
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