Osteology Overview Quiz

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Questions and Answers

What is the primary characteristic of Ewing Sarcoma or PNET?

Commonly associated with chordoma.

Primarily affects older adults.

Characterized by Homer-Wright rosettes. (correct)

Originates only in the axial skeleton.

Which condition is most likely associated with a GNAS mutation?

Ewing Sarcoma

Fibrous Dysplasia (correct)

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Osteoarthritis

In which area are fibrous cortical defects and non-ossifying fibromas typically located?

Pelvis and sacrum

Distal femur and proximal tibia (correct)

Proximal femur and distal tibia

Cervical vertebrae and lumbar region

Which statement correctly differentiates rheumatoid arthritis from osteoarthritis?

Rheumatoid arthritis typically leads to joint fusion. (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is a common feature of osteoarthritis as described in the content?

Is characterized by cartilage degeneration. (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a typical presentation of rheumatoid arthritis?

Eburnation of subchondral bone. (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant complication of pyogenic osteomyelitis?

Segmental bone necrosis (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which bacteria is most frequently associated with pyogenic osteomyelitis?

Staphylococcus aureus (C) Signup and view all the answers

What condition is characterized by necrotic bone embedded in infected granulation tissue?

Sequestrum (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which type of fracture is likely to delay healing and lead to non-union or pseudoarthrosis?

Displaced comminuted fracture (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a factor that disturbs the healing of fractures?

Systemic hypertension (A) Signup and view all the answers

Tuberculous osteomyelitis is most often associated with which infectious agent?

Mycobacterium tuberculosis (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the condition called when the infection of the vertebra leads to neurological deficits?

Pott disease (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary treatment approach for managing extensive polyostotic hypervascularity in patients?

Bisphosphonates (B) Signup and view all the answers

What type of bone tumors are considered most common?

Metastatic tumors (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of involucrum in the context of osteomyelitis?

New bone formation around sequestrum (C) Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes osteoid osteoma from osteoblastoma in terms of size?

Osteoid osteoma is less than 2 cm. (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of osteosarcoma?

First symptom is usually a pathological fracture. (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by benign lesions connected by a bone stalk and cartilage cap?

Osteochondroma (A) Signup and view all the answers

In which age group are chondromas most commonly detected?

20-50 years (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is true regarding osteomas?

Multiple osteomas are associated with Gardner Syndrome. (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary clinical difference in pain presentation between osteoid osteoma and osteoblastoma?

Osteoid osteoma pain worsens at night and is localized. (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which tumor type is associated with the formation of a neoplastic cartilage matrix and often expands within the bone's medullary cavity?

Chondrosarcoma (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about osteosarcoma is incorrect?

Common in those over 70 years old. (D) Signup and view all the answers

Osteochondromas are primarily found in which of the following locations?

Around the growth plates of long tubular bones. (C) Signup and view all the answers

What condition is associated with the IDH-1 mutation and multiple chondromas?

Maffucci syndrome (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of osteoblasts in bone tissue?

To form new bone cells (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which type of bone is characterized by a napthazard arrangement of collagen fibers?

Woven bone (B) Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes intramembranous ossification from endochondral ossification?

It occurs in flat bones only (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of RANKL in osteoclast regulation?

It promotes the interaction with RANK to facilitate osteoclast formation (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following features is characteristic of Osteogenesis Imperfecta type II?

Uniformly lethal in utero or postpartum (D) Signup and view all the answers

Achondroplasia primarily affects which aspect of bone development?

Endochondral ossification (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main genetic mutation involved in Achondroplasia?

Point mutation in FGFR3 (D) Signup and view all the answers

Osteopetrosis is primarily caused by defects in which cellular activity?

Osteoclast-mediated bone resorption (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which type of bone is considered hypocellular and highly mineralized?

Lamellar bone (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the effect of severe osteopenia on the human body?

Increased risk of fractures (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary effect of high turnover in osteoporosis?

Increased susceptibility to fractures (A) Signup and view all the answers

How does hyperparathyroidism primarily affect calcium levels in the blood?

By promoting osteoclastic activity which increases bone resorption (D) Signup and view all the answers

In Paget's disease, what is a hallmark feature of the osteosclerotic phase?

Mosaic pattern of lamellar bone (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which statement regarding the bone loss in hyperparathyroidism is accurate?

Micro fractures and secondary hemorrhages occur in areas most affected. (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of DEXA results showing a value of ≤ 2.5?

Indicates significant osteoporosis risk (A) Signup and view all the answers

What tissue characteristics define a Brown Tumor?

Reactive fibrous tissue with high vascularity and hemosiderin (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which factors are contributing to the development of Paget's disease?

Both genetic and environmental factors (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of PTH in calcium homeostasis?

Increases serum calcium through osteoclastic activation (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential consequence of vertebral fractures resulting from primary osteoporosis?

Compromised respiratory function due to kyphoscoliosis (A) Signup and view all the answers

Study Notes

Osteology

Osteoblasts: Form bone cells
Osteocytes: Mature bone cells
Osteoclasts: Break down bone matrix
Osteogenic cells: Stem cells in periosteum and endosteum forming osteoblasts
Woven bone: Rapidly produced during fetal development and fracture repair
Lamellar bone: Mature bone found in adult skeleton
Hypercellular: but more mineralized
Parallel collagen fibers: Found in lamellar bone
Endochondral ossification: Development of long bones
Intramembranous ossification: Development of flat bones
RANKL: On osteoblasts, binds to RANK on osteoclasts
OPG: Produced by osteoblasts, blocks RANK-RANKL interaction.
Bone resorption/formation ratio: RANK-OPG ratio
Factors affecting bone resorption and turnover: PTH, Vitamin D, sex hormones, glucocorticoids, and BMP
Abnormal bone development: Osteogenesis Imperfecta, brittle bone disease, defective collagen synthesis, numerous extraskeletal manifestations

Hyperparathyroidism

PTH increase: Leads to increased osteoclastic activity, bone resorption, and osteopenia
Secondary Hyperparathyroidism: Chronic renal failure, inadequate vitamin D synthesis, affects GI calcium absorption, increase in PTH levels
Brown Tumor: (osteitis fibrosa cystica) severe hyperparathyroidism, manifestation in untreated hyperparathyroidism, bone loss, micro-fractures

Paget's Disease

Increased bone turnover, but disordered, structurally unsound
Three phases:
- Osteolytic
- Osteoclastic-osteoblastic
- Osteosclerotic
Mosaic pattern of lamellar bone

Osteomyelitis

Suppurative and ischemic injury to the bone, segmental bone necrosis, rupture of periosteum, subperiosteal abscess, draining sinus, epiphyseal infection, spread of suppurative arthritis
Extensive destruction of articular cartilage causing long-term disability.
Tuberculous osteomyelitis: Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes, hematogenous spread to long bones and vertebrae, often solitary or multifocal. Typically has a granuloma-causing inflammatory response, with caseous necrosis.
Other bacterial infections can also cause osteomyelitis.

Bone Tumors

Metastatic tumors are the most common bone tumors
Osteoma: Benign, slow-growing tumor, mostly found in the head, neck, and paranasal sinuses; often looks similar to mature bone, but does not have cartilage cap.
Osteosarcoma: Most common primary malignant bone tumor (other than myeloma and lymphoma), usually in adolescents and young adults, mostly occurs in the metaphysis of long bones
Chondroma: Benign tumor from hyaline cartilage, frequently in tubular bones of the hands or feet.
Chondrosarcoma: Malignant tumor originating from cartilage cells
Ewing sarcoma/PNET: Round cell malignant tumor of bone and soft tissue. May affect long bones.

Other Bone Diseases

Osteochondroma: Benign, slow growing tumors, arising from the growth plate.
Fibrous cortical defect/non-ossifying fibroma: Developmental disorder, appears as a cortical defect in radiographic images, often asymptomatic, sometimes multiple.
Fibrous dysplasia: Benign non-precancerous lesion, often solitary or multiple with café-au-lait pigmentation.
Chordoma: Malignant tumor of notochord derived cells, usually in the sacrococcygeal region.

Joint Diseases

Osteoarthritis: Most common joint disorder, characterized by degeneration of articular cartilage, secondary osteoarthritis can be caused by several other factors. It can affect the hands, knees, and spine, causing pain and morning stiffness. Fusion of joints does not occur.
Rheumatoid arthritis: Systemic autoimmune disease affecting joints and other tissues. Chronic progressive inflammation causes disability and joint destruction.
Seronegative spondyloarthropathies: Unlike other arthritis, starts with ligament and tendon involvement before bone changes occur and is associated with HLA-B27. Includes Ankylosing Spondylitis, Reiter's Syndrome, Psoriatic Arthritis.
Gout: A type of arthritis caused by high levels of uric acid in the blood. Causes inflammation of the joints.
Pseudogout: A type of arthritis caused by calcium pyrophosphate deposition in joints.

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Description

Test your knowledge on osteology, focusing on bone cells, ossification processes, and factors affecting bone health. This quiz covers essential concepts such as osteoblasts, osteocytes, and the RANK-OPG ratio. Perfect for students studying anatomy or related fields.