Network+ Midterm Study Guide
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Questions and Answers

Layer 6 of the OSI model is also referred to as:

  • Presentation layer (correct)
  • Transport layer
  • Session layer
  • Application layer

Which of the following reside at the physical layer of the OSI model? (Select 2 answers)

  • Hub (correct)
  • Router
  • Switch
  • Network cabling (correct)
  • Bridge

How long is a MAC address?

  • 6 hexadecimal characters
  • 32 bits
  • 6 binary digits
  • 48 bits (correct)

Which layer of the OSI model is the only layer divided into two sublayers?

<p>Data Link (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which layer of the OSI model opens and closes conversations between applications?

<p>Session (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A MAC address is also known as a(n) __________ address:

<p>physical (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

One function of a NIC is to:

<p>utilize network protocols for data transfer between the PC and the network (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Routers function at which layer of the OSI model?

<p>Network (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which OSI model layer resends packets that were not received in good order?

<p>Transport (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the OSI model, physical addressing takes place at the:

<p>Data link layer (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What device connects subnets?

<p>router (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the name of a data unit used at the OSI physical layer?

<p>Bit (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many layers does the OSI model contain?

<p>7 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Frames in most wired networks hold at most __________.

<p>1500 bytes of data (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

OSI layer 7 is also known as:

<p>Application layer (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For a network technician, one benefit of understanding the OSI seven-layer model is using it as a primary tool for __________.

<p>troubleshooting networks (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of cable works best for long-distance transmissions?

<p>fiber-optic (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cable type suffers from electromagnetic interference (EMI)?

<p>unshielded twisted pair (UTP) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of cable is described as a central conductor wire that is surrounded by insulating materials and placed inside a braided metal shield?

<p>coaxial (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which layer in the three-tier hierarchical model network architecture facilitates traffic between end devices and the rest of the network?

<p>Distribution/Aggregation layer (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What layer in three-tier model network architecture is considered the backbone of a network?

<p>Core layer (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Because most networks can run at speeds of up to 1000 Mbps, most new cabling installations use which category of cabling?

<p>Cat 5e (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which connector is currently used in wired networks, but commonly refered to as RJ-45?

<p>8P8C (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum category rating of UTP cabling you would need for a network that runs at 1000 Mbps?

<p>Cat 5e (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary use of coaxial cable in networking today?

<p>connecting a cable modem to an Internet service provider (ISP) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the space between the acoustical tile ceiling in an office building and the actual concrete ceiling above called?

<p>plenum (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the meaning of the “10” in 10BASE-T?

<p>maximum speed of 10 Mbps (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How long is the start frame delimiter?

<p>1 byte (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanism will move a port into a root-inconsistent state if BPDUs coming from a certain direction indicate another switch is trying to become the root bridge?

<p>root guard (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an advantage of fiber-optic cabling?

<p>greater maximum distance (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What kind of cabling did the 10BASE-FL standard specify?

<p>fiber-optic (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best describes the preamble of an Ethernet frame?

<p>It includes a 7-byte series of alternating ones and zeroes followed by a start frame delimiter. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a specification such as 10BASE-T, what does the word “BASE” identify?

<p>signaling type (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many fields does a basic Ethernet frame contain?

<p>nine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum size of an Ethernet frame?

<p>64 bytes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The 802.3 working group defines wired network standards that share the same basic frame type and __________.

<p>network access method (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What information is included in the data portion of an Ethernet frame on an IP network?

<p>IP addresses of the source and destination systems (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many pins does an RJ-45 connector have?

<p>eight (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum cable length on a segment of a 1000BASE-T network?

<p>100 meters (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The “W” in the standard 10GBASE-SW stands for which type of signaling?

<p>SONET/WAN (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which term refers to the 100-Mbps standards, even though there are now much faster versions of Ethernet available?

<p>Fast Ethernet (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which very high-speed fiber network was already in place and being used for wide area networking (WAN) transmissions before the IEEE developed the 10 GbE Ethernet standards?

<p>SONET (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What general type of cabling is a technician most likely to use today when installing Ethernet cabling in areas with high electrical interference?

<p>shielded twisted pair (STP) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the name of the IEEE standard for 10 GbE running on twisted pair cabling?

<p>10GBASE-T (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common connector used in a 1000BASE-SX network?

<p>LC (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The different colors of the laser signals transmitted over fiber-optic cables feature different __________.

<p>wavelengths (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The __________—(technically called the intermediate distribution frame (IDF)—is where all the horizontal runs from all the work areas come together.

<p>telecommunications room</p> Signup and view all the answers

The physical location where connections come in from the outside world is known as the __________.

<p>demarcation point (demarc)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The most commonly used type of patch panel currently in use is the __________.

<p>110 block</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the three essential ingredients for a successful implementation of a basic structured cabling network?

<p>telecommunications room, horizontal cabling, and a work area (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A box with a row of ports in front and permanent connections to horizontal cabling in the back is called a __________?

<p>patch panel</p> Signup and view all the answers

One function of a NIC is to __________.

<p>utilize network protocols for data transfer between the PC and the network (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical maximum size of an Ethernet frame's payload?

<p>1500 bytes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The 802.3 working group defines wired network standards that share the same basic frame type and what other key element?

<p>Network access method (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Within an Ethernet frame used on an IP network, what key information is contained in the data portion of the frame?

<p>The actual IP packet containing source, destination, and the data itself. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What three elements are essential for a successful basic structured cabling network?

<p>Telecommunications room, horizontal cabling, and a work area. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many pins are found on a standard RJ-45 connector?

<p>Eight (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A technician needs to connect horizontal cabling to a central point. Which of the following devices would they use?

<p>Patch Panel (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If cabling runs from the telecommunications room connect directly to end-user computers, what is it referred to as?

<p>Horizontal cabling (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum specified cable length for a segment of 1000BASE-T network?

<p>100 meters (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the 10GBASE-SW standard, what does the 'W' signify regarding the type of signaling used?

<p>SONET/WAN (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a network infrastructure, where does the responsibility of the business owner for maintaining the network typically begin?

<p>Demarcation Point (Demarc) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which term is commonly used to refer to the 100-Mbps Ethernet standards, even though faster Ethernet versions are now prevalent?

<p>Fast Ethernet (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many bits make up an IPv4 address?

<p>32 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Before the IEEE developed 10 Gigabit Ethernet (10 GbE) standards, which high-speed fiber network was already in place and utilized for wide area networking (WAN) transmissions?

<p>SONET (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which well-known port number is typically used by HTTP web servers for unencrypted communication?

<p>80 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the valid range of decimal values for each octet (group of numbers) in a standard IPv4 address?

<p>0 to 255 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which protocol is used by web browsers and web servers for communication on the World Wide Web?

<p>HTTP (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which set of terms best describes common roles within a network system architecture, defining how different components interact?

<p>Master, server, and client (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of network configuration logically divides a physical network into multiple, isolated networks without requiring additional physical hardware?

<p>Virtual local area network (VLAN) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mode of operation allows an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) to examine a duplicate of every network packet?

<p>Promiscuous (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What Cisco tool is used to facilitate DHCP requests across different network segments?

<p>IP helper (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following encryption algorithms is considered a stream cipher?

<p>Rivest Cipher 4 (RC4) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which protocol, standardized by IEEE, is commonly used for link aggregation across different vendors equipment?

<p>Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of encryption in data transmission?

<p>To scramble data, making it unreadable to unauthorized parties. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What name is given to a switch port configured to carry traffic for all VLANs in a Local Area Network (LAN)?

<p>Trunk port (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of identifier is typically appended to the term 'VLAN' to create a unique VLAN name?

<p>A number (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a critical component for establishing a secure HTTPS connection?

<p>Certificate exchange (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A trunk port associates untagged traffic with which VLAN?

<p>Native (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following represents the correct order of a fully qualified domain name (FQDN)?

<p>host.domain.root (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A newer series of protection applications combining features traditionally managed by separate applications is best described as:

<p>Network Access Control (NAC) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which protocol provides a framework for Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) services?

<p>RADIUS (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which one is least likely to be an original top-level domain name?

<p>.html (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the standard UDP port number that DNS servers primarily utilize for responding to queries?

<p>53 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At which layer of the OSI model does IPSec primarily function to provide authentication and encryption?

<p>Network Layer (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the primary use of cryptographic hash functions regarding file management?

<p>Verifying file integrity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of information is stored within the DNS resolver cache to improve the efficiency of future DNS lookups?

<p>IP addresses already resolved (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these terms describes a dedicated file server commonly found within networks, that offers its storage via network?

<p>Network Attached Storage (NAS) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Upon booting up, a computer using NetBIOS broadcasts which piece of information along with its MAC address?

<p>NetBIOS name (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which DNS server software is most commonly used on UNIX/Linux systems for domain name resolution?

<p>BIND (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Windows DNS server is the default resolver and name server for which Microsoft technology, designed for managing enterprise networks?

<p>Active Directory (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a necessary component of a fully qualified domain name (FQDN)?

<p>Host name (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following protocols uses port 25 by default?

<p>SMTP (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the range of port numbers typically assigned to well-known ports?

<p>0-1023 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is unable to access a website. Pinging the IP address of the website is successful, but pinging the domain name fails. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

<p>There is a DNS resolution problem (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the role of top-level domain (TLD) servers in the DNS hierarchy?

<p>To delegate authority to second-level domain servers (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a fully qualified domain name (FQDN) like host.example.com, what does each section of the name represent?

<p>A successively higher level in the DNS hierarchy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which action is performed by DNS root servers?

<p>They delegate resolution requests to the appropriate top-level domain servers (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Your organization's website is www.example.com. Which DNS record type is responsible for mapping this hostname to an IPv4 address?

<p>A record (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When troubleshooting DNS resolution issues, which command is most helpful for querying DNS servers and displaying detailed results including the time it took for the server to respond?

<p><code>nslookup</code> (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Layer 6 of the OSI model is also referred to as:

<p>Presentation Layer (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When data is encapsulated before transmission, which OSI layer is the first to add addressing information?

<p>Network Layer (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A network administrator notices that a large number of packets are being retransmitted. Which OSI layer is MOST likely responsible for this?

<p>Transport Layer (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most accurate description of how the Data Link Layer uses physical addresses (MAC addresses)?

<p>To uniquely identify devices within a local network segment for communication. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A user reports that they can access websites by IP address but not by domain name. Which OSI layer function is most likely affected?

<p>Application Layer name resolution (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the relationship between the Network Layer and the Transport Layer in the OSI model?

<p>The Network Layer routes packets between networks, while the Transport Layer provides reliable or unreliable data delivery between applications. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A technician is troubleshooting a network and wants to capture all traffic to and from a specific computer. At which layer of the OSI model does the technician typically configure a packet sniffer to capture this traffic?

<p>Data Link Layer, to examine MAC address communication (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key distinction between TCP and UDP, in terms of the OSI model?

<p>TCP provides reliable, connection-oriented communication, while UDP provides unreliable, connectionless communication, both at the Transport Layer. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios illustrates a function performed at the Presentation Layer of the OSI model?

<p>Compressing a video file for efficient transmission. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many bytes is the minimum size of an Ethernet frame, including the header and FCS?

<p>64 bytes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The 802.3 working group defines wired network standards that share the same basic frame type and the same __________.?

<p>network access method (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When installing Ethernet cabling in environments susceptible to high electromagnetic interference (EMI), which cabling type is most suitable?

<p>Fiber-Optic (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the formal designation for the IEEE standard that defines 10 Gigabit Ethernet (10GbE) over twisted pair cabling?

<p>10GBASE-T (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a 1000BASE-SX network, which connector type is most commonly used for terminating fiber optic cables?

<p>LC (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The 'R' in the 10GBASE-SR standard corresponds to which type of networking environment?

<p>LAN (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Regarding fiber-optic cables, how do different colors of laser light used for transmission vary from one another?

<p>Wavelengths (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a structured cabling system, which area serves as the central aggregation point for horizontal cabling runs extending from work areas?

<p>Telecommunications Room (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a network infrastructure, what term refers to the physical point where the external communication lines connect with the internal network systems?

<p>Demarcation Point (Demarc) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the valid range of decimal values for an octet in a standard IPv4 address?

<p>0 to 255 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Web browsers and web servers primarily use which protocol to communicate?

<p>HTTP (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which formula calculates the number of usable hosts on a subnet, where 'x' represents the number of zeroes in the subnet mask?

<p>$2x – 2$ (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a Class C network, which octets are commonly used to define the network ID?

<p>First three (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If the first octet of an IP address falls between 128 and 191 (inclusive), to which IP class does it belong?

<p>Class B (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which data transmission protocol establishes a connection before transmitting data, ensuring reliable delivery?

<p>TCP (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of transmission allows a single computer to send a message directly to another specific computer?

<p>Unicast (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of network communication sends data to every device on a local network segment?

<p>Broadcast (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which Transport Layer protocol is used by both DNS (Domain Name System) and DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) for their operations?

<p>UDP (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following IP addresses falls within the reserved private IP address range, as defined by RFC 1918?

<p>10.164.19.5 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What command-line utility can be used to test the basic network configuration of a device by sending packets to its own address?

<p><code>ping 127.0.0.1</code> (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of network transmission allows one host to send data to a defined group of hosts?

<p>Multicast (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary networking protocol suite used by Apple macOS-based systems for network communication?

<p>TCP/IP (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which service automatically assigns IP addresses to devices on a network?

<p>Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Internet Protocol (IP) primarily operates and provides addressing at which layer of the OSI model?

<p>Network (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many layers exist in the OSI model?

<p>7 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum payload size that frames in most wired networks can hold?

<p>1500 bytes of data (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is another name for OSI layer 7?

<p>Application layer (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key benefit of understanding the OSI seven-layer model for a network technician?

<p>Troubleshooting networks (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of cable is most suitable for long-distance data transmissions due to its low attenuation and high bandwidth?

<p>Fiber-optic (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When manufacturers connect two fibers together to meet the demand for two-pair cabling, what type of fiber-optic cabling results?

<p>Duplex (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of cable is most susceptible to electromagnetic interference (EMI)?

<p>Unshielded twisted pair (UTP) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cable type consists of a central conductor surrounded by insulating material and a braided metal shield?

<p>Coaxial (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the three-tier hierarchical network model, which layer provides connectivity and facilitates traffic flow between end devices and other parts of the network?

<p>Access/Edge layer (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Within the three-tier hierarchical network architecture, which layer serves as the high-speed backbone of the network?

<p>Core layer (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For new cabling installations supporting network speeds up to 1000 Mbps, which category of cabling is commonly used?

<p>Cat 5e (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the formal name for the connector commonly referred to as RJ-45, which is used in wired networks?

<p>8P8C (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum UTP cabling category rating required to support a network running at 1000 Mbps?

<p>Cat 5e (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In contemporary networking, what is the typical application of coaxial cable?

<p>Connecting a cable modem to an Internet service provider (ISP) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In building infrastructure, what is the architectural term for the space between a suspended ceiling and the structural floor above?

<p>Plenum (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of Network Address Translation (NAT) hides the internal IP addresses of a network by mapping them to a single public IP address, using different port numbers?

<p>Port Address Translation (PAT) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which routing protocol tends to be favored in large enterprise internal networks due to its vendor-neutral nature and open standard?

<p>OSPF (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What metric is employed to define the largest data packet that a network technology can efficiently transmit without fragmentation?

<p>Maximum Transmission Unit (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What address does a router primarily use to determine the appropriate path for an incoming data packet?

<p>Destination IP addresses (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the general term for the protocols used for communication within an Autonomous System (AS)?

<p>Interior Gateway Protocols (IGPs) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following terms describes each instance when a packet passes through a router?

<p>Hop (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What kind of protocol enables different Autonomous Systems (AS) to exchange routing information with each other across the Internet?

<p>Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What file transfer protocol operates over UDP and listens on port 69?

<p>TFTP (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What term refers to a server storing data related to the current connection with a client?

<p>session (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A port within what numerical range is assigned dynamically by the operating system for client-side communication?

<p>dynamic (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When a port is actively sending and receiving data as part of a working communication channel, what is its state?

<p>established port (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of network communication involves an initial handshake process to establish a connection before data transmission?

<p>connection-oriented (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What term describes any single stream of data exchanged between two computers in a network?

<p>session (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What message does the ping command typically return when a response is not received from the target device within the expected timeframe?

<p>request timed out (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At what layer of the OSI model does the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) operate to transmit connectionless control and information messages?

<p>Layer 3 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following actions is performed by DNS root servers?

<p>Delegating queries to top-level domain (TLD) servers. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which task is handled by top-level domain (TLD) servers?

<p>Delegating name resolution to authoritative name servers for specific domains. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which organization introduced numerous generic TLDs like .biz and .rodeo?

<p>ICANN (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a fundamental requirement for hosts on the Internet regarding IP addresses?

<p>IP addresses must be unique. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which DNS record type identifies the authoritative name server for a domain?

<p>NS record (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which command-line tool is most useful for diagnosing DNS-related issues?

<p>ping (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct order of elements in a fully qualified domain name (FQDN)?

<p>host.domain.root (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is considered an original top-level domain name?

<p>.mil (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the standard UDP port number used by DNS servers for querying and responding to requests?

<p>53 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of information is stored within a DNS resolver cache?

<p>IP addresses already resolved (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When a computer using NetBIOS starts up, what information does it broadcast along with its MAC address?

<p>NetBIOS name (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which Microsoft technology integrates the Windows DNS server for enterprise network management?

<p>Active Directory (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a required component of a fully qualified domain name (FQDN)?

<p>host name (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which protocol is most likely to supersede FTP for secure data transfers?

<p>HTTPS (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an industry standard protocol that provides centralized Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) for network access?

<p>RADIUS (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which term describes a standardized format containing a public key and the digital signature of a trusted certification authority, used to verify the authenticity of a website or application?

<p>Certificate (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which protocol provides a directory service that allows applications to access and manage distributed directory information over an IP network?

<p>LDAP (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What term represents the mathematical process or set of rules used to perform encryption or decryption?

<p>Algorithm (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the term used for combining multiple network connections in parallel to increase throughput beyond what a single connection could sustain?

<p>Port Aggregation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When configuring VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) on a network, which three operational modes can be assigned to network switches to manage VLAN information?

<p>Transparent, Server, and Client (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of network architecture virtually separates a physical network into multiple isolated broadcast domains without requiring additional physical infrastructure?

<p>Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intrusion detection system (IDS) mode operates by analyzing a duplicate of network traffic, ensuring that real-time network performance is not affected?

<p>Promiscuous (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specific Cisco IOS feature is used to forward DHCP broadcast requests from a VLAN to a DHCP server residing on another network?

<p>IP Helper (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which proprietary Cisco protocol is used to negotiate the automatic formation of EtherChannel links?

<p>Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What kind of port on a network switch is configured to carry traffic for multiple VLANs, enabling inter-VLAN communication by tagging frames?

<p>Trunk Port (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When configuring VLANs, what unique identifier is commonly appended to the term 'VLAN' to distinguish between different virtual networks?

<p>A Number (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

On a trunk port, if an Ethernet frame arrives without a VLAN tag, which VLAN does the switch associate the traffic with?

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For remote management of a network switch, which network configuration parameter must be assigned to the switch?

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Which switch feature allows network administrators to duplicate network traffic from one or more ports to a designated monitoring port for analysis?

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Flashcards

Presentation Layer

Layer 6 of the OSI model; responsible for data formatting, encryption, and compression.

Physical Layer Devices

Physical layer devices, such as hubs and cabling, transmit raw data.

MAC Address

A unique hardware address of a network interface card, 48 bits long.

Data Link Layer Sublayers

The Data Link layer is divided into MAC and LLC sublayers.

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Session Layer

The OSI layer that manages connections between applications.

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Physical Address

A unique identifier assigned to a network interface card.

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Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC)

Verifies data integrity of each frame.

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Routers

Operate at the network layer to route data between networks.

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Reliable Transport

The Transport Layer resends lost packets.

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Physical Addressing

Layer 2 addressing using MAC addresses.

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Router

Connects different subnets together.

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Bit

A unit of data at the Physical Layer of the OSI model.

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OSI Model Layers

The OSI model has seven layers.

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Ethernet Frame Size

Typically holds 1500 bytes of data.

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OSI Layer 7

Also known as the Application Layer.

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OSI Model Benefit

Troubleshooting tool for networks using OSI model.

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Fiber-Optic Cable

Cable with the best performance for long distance transmissions.

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Duplex Fiber Cabling

Fiber optic cables.

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Electromagnetic Interference (EMI)

UTP suffers from this; interference with data.

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Coaxial Cable

Cable with a central conductor, insulation, and braided metal shield.

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Access/Edge Layer

Layer in the three tier model that helps manage connections.

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Core Layer

considered the backbone of a three-tier network.

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Cat 5e

Category for cabling used for 1000Mbps.

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8P8C

Connector for wired networks.

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Cat 5e minimum

Category of UTP needed for 1000Mbps

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Primary use for Coaxial Cable

Connecting cable modem to the ISP

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Access/Edge Layer

Facilitates connects between end devices and the rest of the network

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Plenum

space between tile ceiling and concrete ceiling.

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10 in 10BASE-T

speed of base units.

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Start Frame Length

delimiter for a start frame is one byte long.

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Root Guard

Mechanism that moves a port into a root-inconsistent state if another switch is trying to become the root bridge.

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Fiber Optic Advantage

Signals travel further, less interference.

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Ethernet Frame Preamble

It includes a 7-byte series of alternating ones and zeroes followed by a start frame delimiter.

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BASE in Ethernet

Signaling method used for data transmission.

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Ethernet Frame Fields

Includes destination, source, type/length, data and FCS.

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Minimum Ethernet Frame Size

Minimum amount of data to send and receive.

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802.3 Wired Networks

Share the same frame and network access.

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Data in Ethernet Frame

Includes padding information.

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RJ-45 Pins

Connector with eight pins.

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1000BASE-T Max Length

100 meters.

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10GBASE-SW Meaning of 'W'

Signaling for SONET/WAN

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Fast Ethernet

Refers to the 100-Mbps standards.

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Pre-existing High-Speed Fiber Network

SONET

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Ethernet Cabling in High EMI

Shielded Twisted Pair (STP)

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10GBASE-T Standard

IEEE 802.3ba

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1000BASE-SX Connector

LC

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"R" in 10GBASE-SR

Radio

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Fiber Laser Signal Colors

Wavelengths

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Horizontal Runs End

Telecommunications Room

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Physical Connection Point

Demarcation Point (Demarc)

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Most Common Patch Panel

110 Block

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Structured Cabling Ingredients

TCR, Horizontal Cabling, Work Area

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Port Row Box

Patch Panel

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Cables Room to Computers

Horizontal Cabling

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Business Owner Responsibility

Demarcation Point (Demarc)

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IPv4 Address Bits Binary

32

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HTTP Web Server Port

80

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IPv4 Address Range

0 to 255

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Web Communication Protocol

HTTP

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Subnet Hosts Formula

2x – 2

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Port 21

File Transfer Protocol, uses TCP port 21 for control.

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Port 22

Secure Shell, uses TCP port 22 for secure remote access.

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Port 23

Telnet, uses TCP port 23 for unencrypted remote access.

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Port 25

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, uses TCP port 25 for email sending.

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Well-known Ports

Port numbers 0-1023; reserved for common services.

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Port 80

Hypertext Transfer Protocol, enables web browsing.

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TFTP Transport Protocol

User Datagram Protocol; connectionless and faster than TCP.

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Top-Level Domain Servers

DNS servers directly below the root.

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FQDN order

The correct order is host.domain.root.

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Top-Level Domain

An original top-level domain name.

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DNS UDP Port

DNS servers use UDP port 53 for DNS queries.

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DNS Resolver Cache

IP addresses and FQDNs for computers.

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NetBIOS Broadcast

NetBIOS name along with its MAC address.

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Popular DNS Server

BIND is the most popular DNS server for UNIX/Linux.

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Windows DNS Server

The default resolver is Windows DNS server for Active Directory.

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FQDN Component

A fully qualified domain name (FQDN) includes the host name.

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802.3 Network Access

802.3 wired networks share the same basic frame and this.

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Ethernet Frame Data

Part of Ethernet frame containing padding.

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RJ-45 Connector Pins

Connector pins used for ethernet cables.

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1000BASE-T Cable Length

Maximum length of cable on a segment of a 1000Base-T network.

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10GBASE-SW 'W' Meaning

Signaling type represented by the 'W' in the 10GBASE-SW standard.

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Fast Ethernet Definition

100-Mbps Ethernet standards, even with faster versions available.

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SONET

Previously existing high-speed fiber network used for wide area networking before 10 GbE.

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Ethernet Shielding

Cabling recommended for Ethernet installs in high EMI environments.

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Encryption

To scramble data so it's unreadable to unauthorized parties but can be reversed by the intended recipient.

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Certificate

A digital record used to verify the legitimacy of a website or entity.

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Network Access Control (NAC)

A security framework combining multiple protection features traditionally handled by separate apps.

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RADIUS

A standard that provides Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting.

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IPSec

A protocol suite providing secure communication at the Network layer (OSI model).

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File Integrity

Verifying that a file hasn't been altered or corrupted.

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Network Attached Storage (NAS)

Dedicated file server used for centralized storage on a network.

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Algorithm

Underlying mathematical process or formula in a cipher.

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Virtual LAN (VLAN)

Divides a physical network into multiple discreet networks without extra hardware.

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Promiscuous Mode

A mode where an IDS inspects a copy of all network packets.

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IP Helper

A Cisco tool used to implement DHCP relay.

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Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP)

Cisco's protocol for link aggregation.

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Trunk Port

A switch port carrying all traffic regardless of VLAN number.

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VLAN ID

Number that is appended to the word “VLAN” to name the VLAN.

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Native VLAN

The VLAN ID a trunk port associates untagged traffic.

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IP Address

Enables switch configuration through the network.

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Telecommunications Room (IDF)

A dedicated space where horizontal cabling from work areas converges.

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Demarcation Point (Demarc)

The point where the service provider's responsibility ends and the customer's begins.

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110 Block

A type of patch panel used to terminate and manage network cables, known for its ease of use.

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Horizontal Cabling

The cables that connect the telecommunications room to individual workstations or devices.

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Patch Panel

A panel with ports for connecting and managing network cables, simplifying connections.

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IPv4 Decimal Range

Each group ranges from 0 to 255 to represent all numbers.

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Study Notes

OSI Model & Addressing

  • Layer 6 of the OSI model is the Presentation layer.
  • Hub, Switch, and Network cabling reside at the physical layer of the OSI model.
  • A MAC address is 48 bits long.
  • The Data Link layer is the only layer of the OSI model divided into two sublayers.
  • The application layer of the OSI model opens and closes conversations between applications.
  • A MAC address is also known as a physical address.
  • One function of a NIC is to utilize network protocols for data transfer between the PC and the network.
  • Routers function at the Network layer of the OSI model.
  • The Transport layer of the OSI model resends packets that were not received in good order.
  • Physical addressing takes place at the Data Link layer in the OSI model.

Network Devices & Cabling

  • A bridge connects subnets.
  • A bit is the name of a data unit used at the OSI physical layer.
  • The OSI model contains 7 layers.
  • Frames in most wired networks hold at most 1500 bytes of data.
  • OSI layer 7 is also known as the Application layer.
  • Understanding the OSI seven-layer model benefits network technicians by offering it as a primary tool for troubleshooting networks.
  • Fiber-optic cable works best for long-distance transmissions.
  • In response to the demand for two-pair cabling, manufacturers often connect two fibers together to create duplex fiber-optic cabling.
  • Unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cable suffers from electromagnetic interference (EMI).
  • The cable described as a central conductor wire surrounded by insulating materials and placed inside a braided metal shield is coaxial cable.

Network Architecture

  • The Distribution/Aggregation layer facilitates traffic between end devices and the rest of the network in the three-tier hierarchical model network architecture.
  • The core layer is considered the backbone of a network in three-tier model network architecture.
  • Most new cabling installations use Cat 5e or Cat 6 cabling because most networks can run at speeds of up to 1000 Mbps.
  • The 8P8C connector is currently used in wired networks but is commonly referred to as RJ-45.
  • The minimum category rating of UTP cabling for a network that runs at 1000 Mbps is Cat 5e.
  • The primary use of coaxial cable in networking today is connecting a cable modem to an Internet service provider (ISP).
  • The Access/Edge layer facilitates traffic between end devices and traffic to and from the rest of the network in the three-tier hierarchical model.
  • The space between the acoustical tile ceiling in an office building and the actual concrete ceiling above is called the plenum.
  • The "10" in 10BASE-T signifies a maximum speed of 10 Mbps.
  • The start frame delimiter is 1 byte long.
  • Root guard will move a port into a root-inconsistent state if BPDUs coming from a direction indicate another switch is trying to become the root bridge.
  • A key advantage of fiber-optic cabling is the greater maximum distance it can cover.
  • The 10BASE-FL standard specified fiber-optic cabling.
  • The preamble of an Ethernet frame includes a 7-byte series of alternating ones and zeros followed by a start frame delimiter.
  • In a specification such as 10BASE-T, "BASE" identifies signaling type.
  • A basic Ethernet frame contains nine fields.
  • The minimum size of an Ethernet frame is 64 bytes.
  • The 802.3 working group defines wired network standards that share the same basic frame type and network access method.
  • The data portion of an Ethernet frame on an IP network includes padding information.
  • An RJ-45 connector has eight pins.
  • The maximum cable length on a segment of a 1000BASE-T network is 100 meters.
  • In the standard 10GBASE-SW, "W" stands for SONET/WAN signaling.
  • Fast Ethernet refers to the 100-Mbps standards.
  • Very high-speed fiber network was already in place and being used for wide area networking (WAN) transmissions before the IEEE developed the 10 GbE Ethernet standards: SONET.
  • A technician will most likely use shielded twisted pair (STP) cabling when installing Ethernet cabling in areas with high electrical interference.
  • The IEEE standard for 10 GbE running on twisted pair cabling is 10GBASE-T.
  • The most common connector used in a 1000BASE-SX network is LC.
  • A technician is most likely to use shielded twisted pair (STP) when installing Ethernet cabling in areas with high electrical interference.
  • The “R” in the standard 10GBASE-SR stands for LAN signaling.
  • The different colors of the laser signals transmitted over fiber-optic cables feature different wavelengths.
  • Horizontal runs from all work areas come together at the telecommunications room, technically called the intermediate distribution frame (IDF).
  • The physical location where connections come in from the outside world is known as the demarcation point (demarc).
  • The most commonly used type of patch panel is the 110 block.
  • The three essential ingredients for a successful implementation of a basic structured cabling network are: telecommunications room, horizontal cabling, and a work area.
  • A box with a row of ports in front and permanent connections to horizontal cabling in the back is called a patch panel.
  • Cables running from the telecommunication room to the computers are referred to as horizontal cabling.
  • The box where the responsibility of the business owner begins is referred to as the demarcation point (demarc).
  • IPv4 address has 32 binary digits.

Protocols & Addressing

  • HTTP Web servers use port 80.
  • The range of decimal values in each of the four groups of an IPv4 address is 0 to 255.
  • Web servers and Web browsers use HTTP to communicate.
  • The formula to arrive at the number of hosts on a subnet is 2x - 2, where x represents the number of zeroes in the subnet mask.
  • A Class C network block uses the first three octets to define the network ID.
  • If the first decimal value of an IP address is between 128 and 191, the network belongs to Class B.
  • TCP is a connection-oriented protocol.
  • Unicast allows one computer to send a message directly to another.
  • Broadcast allows every computer on the LAN to hear the message.
  • Domain Name System (DNS) and Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) use UDP.
  • 10.164.19.5 is a private IP address.
  • The command to tell a device to send packets to itself is ping 127.0.0.1.
  • Multicast allows a single computer to send a packet to a group of interested computers.
  • Apple systems use TCP/IP network protocol today.
  • Dynamic IP addressing via the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) automatically assigns an IP address whenever a computer connects to the network
  • The Internet Protocol corresponds to the Network layer.
  • 192.168.4.2 is a valid IP address for an individual host expressed in dotted decimal notation.
  • Border Gateway Protocol (BGP-4) is used on the Internet for communication between Autonomous Systems.
  • Traceroute records the route between any two hosts on a network.
  • EIGRP was originally a Cisco proprietary protocol.
  • Cisco IOS is the name of Cisco's proprietary operating system.
  • Static NAT maps a single routable IP address to a single machine, enabling access to that machine from outside the network.
  • RIPv2 was adopted in 1994 and is now considered obsolete except for small, private WANs.
  • A routing table gateway value of 0.0.0.0 indicates that no gateway is needed for a network ID.
  • Bandwidth refers to the ability of one connection to handle more data than others.
  • Network Management Software (NMS) is a tool used by an administrator to manage many routers and provide an overview of all the network.
  • Dynamic NAT allows many computers to share a pool of routable IP addresses that number fewer than the computers.
  • Port address translation (PAT) typically handles one-to-many connections in NAT.
  • OSPF is a choice for routing protocol in most large enterprise internal networks because it has always been vendor neutral.
  • Maximum transmission unit is used to determine the largest frame size a particular technology can handle.
  • A router determines where an incoming packet should go by looking at the packet's destination IP address.
  • Interior Gateway Protocols (IGPs) are used by the network or networks within an AS to communicate with protocols.
  • Hop refers to the passage of a packet through a router.
  • Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) is used by Autonomous Systems to communicate with each other.
  • TFTP uses UDP port 69 for file transfer.
  • Session refers to session information stored by a computer on one side of a session.
  • Registered ports range from 1024 to 49151.
  • Established Port describes the status of a port that is part of an active, working endpoint pair.
  • Connection-oriented describes a communication process where two computers first acknowledge each other before communicating and close the communication afterward.
  • Port is used for any single communication between a computer and another computer.
  • If no echo reply is received before the default time when pinging a device, ping will respond with a "request timed out" message.
  • The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) works at Layer 3 to deliver connectionless packets.
  • TCP involves a three-way handshake.
  • ICMP is popular for moving files across a LAN, where the chances of losing packets are small.
  • A particular multicast called an IGMP group is assigned an address in the Class D range.
  • Telnet runs on TCP port 23.
  • Well-known is the name given to port numbers in the range of 0 to 1023.
  • Web server is the TCP/IP application that uses port 80.
  • Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) uses UDP.
  • A Web client's source port number is classically assigned as a dynamic port, generated pseudo-randomly.
  • Ping works with the IP address but not the name associated with that address confirms a DNS problem.
  • Second-level domain servers refers to the DNS servers just below the DNS root in DNS hierarchy.
  • In DNS naming convention, each name is separated by a period (.).
  • DNS root servers delegate to domain-specific name servers
  • ICANN has added hundreds of generic TLDs, like .biz and .rodeo
  • IP addresses must be unique for hosts on the Internet.
  • The server holding records (zone) for a DNS tree part is pointed to by an NS record.
  • Cache is very helpful when testing DNS.
  • The correct sequence for writing a fully qualified domain name (FQDN) is host.domain.root.
  • .mil is an original top-level domain name.
  • DNS servers primarily use UDP port 53.
  • The DNS resolver cache stores IP addresses that have already been resolved.
  • A computer broadcasts its NetBIOS name along with its MAC address when booted up using NetBIOS.
  • BIND is the most popular DNS server used in UNIX/Linux systems.
  • Active Directory is Microsoft's default DNS server.
  • Host name is part of a fully qualified domain name (FQDN).

Network Security

  • Secure Copy Protocol (SCP) enables secure data transfers between two hosts and might have replaced FTP.
  • Ciphertext refers to the result of running plaintext through a cipher algorithm using a key.
  • Authorization defines what an authenticated person can do with data.
  • Asymmetric-key algorithms use two different keys, one to encrypt and one to decrypt.
  • Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is the most common block cipher.
  • Encryption means to scramble, mix up, or change data so that it is unreadable to unauthorized users but descrambled by the intended recipient.
  • You won't get an HTTPS connection without a good certificate exchange.
  • Network access control (NAC) defines newer protection applications combining features traditionally done separately.
  • RADIUS provides authentication, authorization, and accounting.
  • IPSec is an authentication and encryption protocol suite working at the Network layer of the OSI seven-layer model.
  • Cryptographic hash functions are commonly used for verifying file integrity.
  • Network attached storage (NAS) is a type of dedicated file server used in many networks.
  • A certificate is a standardized file that holds a public key and the digital signature of a trusted third party.
  • LDAP is the tool programs use to query and change a database used by the network.
  • Algorithm refers to a cipher's underlying mathematical formula.
  • Port aggregation is another name for port bonding.
  • Transparent, server, and client are the three states that can be applied to switches using VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP).
  • Virtual local area network (VLAN) enables segmentation of a physical network into discrete networks without additional hardware.
  • Promiscuous mode allows an intrusion detection system (IDS) to inspect a copy of every packet on a network.
  • IP helper is a tool that Cisco uses to implement DHCP relay.
  • Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP) is the Cisco protocol for accomplishing aggregation.

VLANs & Switch Configuration

  • Trunk port describes a port on a switch configured to carry all traffic, regardless of VLAN number, between all switches in a LAN.
  • A number is typically appended to the word “VLAN” in order for a VLAN to get its name.
  • A trunk port associates native VLAN ID untagged traffic with its VLAN.
  • A managed switch needs an IP address to enable configuration through the network.
  • Port mirroring refers to the capability of a switch to copy data from any or all physical ports to a single physical port.
  • Load balancing refers to creating a server cluster.
  • Content switching is possible on Layer 7 of the OSI model.
  • IEEE 802.1Q enables different manufacturers to connect switches.

Subnetting

  • If you borrow 10 bits of Class B network, you can create 1024 subnets
  • 85 in binary is 01010101
  • The following are network IDs: 160.160.160.0/20, 160.160.160.0/28,
  • If you borrow 5 bits of a Class C network, you can create 32 subnets.
  • 10101010 in decimal equals 170.
  • A network with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240 would have the prefix /28.
  • If you needed a network that would provide for 20 hosts, you would have to have 5 host bits.
  • The host range for 192.168.32.32 /30 is 192.168.32.33 -192.168.32.34
  • 192.168.24.26 with a subnet mask 255.255.255.240 is a valid host on network 192.168.24.0/29
  • The increment of a /29 is 8.

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Description

Key concepts of the OSI model, including layer functions and networking components. Explains MAC addresses, the role of the Data Link layer, and the functions of routers and NICs. Covers data transfer protocols and physical addressing within the OSI model.

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