Orthopedics Quiz: Hand and Wrist Conditions

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Questions and Answers

Which sign indicates weakness of the adductor pollicis due to ulnar neuropathy?

  • Wartenberg's sign
  • Finkelstein's sign
  • Froment's sign (correct)
  • De Quervain's sign

What is the most commonly fractured carpal bone?

  • Scaphoid (correct)
  • Pisiform
  • Lunate
  • Triquetrum

Which condition is associated with the + Finkelstein test?

  • Cubital tunnel syndrome
  • Dupuytren contractures
  • Guyon canal syndrome
  • De Quervain disease (correct)

Which syndrome is characterized by atrophy of the hypothenar muscles?

<p>Guyon canal syndrome (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What activity is most likely to cause De Quervain disease?

<p>Repetitive abduction and extension of the thumb (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a positive Finkelstein's test indicate?

<p>De Quervain's tenosynovitis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the result of a positive Watson's test?

<p>Indicates carpal instability (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is indicated by tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox?

<p>Scaphoid fracture (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What physical exam finding is associated with Gamekeeper's thumb?

<p>Radial instability at the thumb MCP (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does Tinel's sign test for?

<p>Median nerve compression (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized primarily by chronic symptoms associated with repetitive use?

<p>De Quervain disease (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the clinical presentation of carpal tunnel syndrome?

<p>Tingling in the thumb and first two fingers (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which injury is commonly associated with a 'fall on outstretched hand' (FOOSH)?

<p>Scaphoid fracture (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of the Medial Epicondylitis Test?

<p>To evaluate for medial epicondylitis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What clinical feature is associated with radial head subluxation (Nursemaid’s Elbow)?

<p>Child holding the arm flexed and pronated (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which physical exam finding is characteristic of olecranon bursitis?

<p>Erythema and localized swelling (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What maneuver is typically used in the treatment of radial head subluxation?

<p>Hyperpronation maneuver (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is indicated by pain at the lateral epicondyle during specific physical examination maneuvers?

<p>Lateral epicondylitis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common cause of a radial head fracture?

<p>A fall on an outstretched hand (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes the typical etiology of medial epicondylitis?

<p>Inflammation due to overuse (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of elbow disorders, what does 'hemarthrosis' refer to?

<p>Bleeding into the joint space (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What physical examination test indicates an injury to the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)?

<p>Lachman Test (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which muscle's injury is associated with a positive Hornblower’s sign?

<p>Teres Minor (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Valgus Stress Test assess?

<p>Injury to the MCL (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following tests is used to assess the integrity of the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)?

<p>Posterior Drawer Test (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What clinical sign indicates a potential meniscus tear during a physical examination?

<p>McMurray Test (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which movement is primarily assessed by the Jobe test?

<p>External rotation of the shoulder (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Osgood-Schlatter disease, where is the pain typically localized?

<p>Tibial tuberosity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test indicates a weakness in the shoulder's internal rotation?

<p>Lift Off Test (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What physical exam finding is associated with an increased tibial anterior gliding?

<p>ACL tear (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which knee disorder is characterized as localized necrosis of subchondral bone due to repetitive stress?

<p>Osteochondritis dissecans (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common primary malignant bone tumor in adolescents?

<p>Osteosarcoma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which benign bone tumor is responsive to NSAID therapy?

<p>Osteoid Osteoma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What cell type gives rise to osteosarcoma?

<p>Osteoblasts (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which tumor is characterized by a bony outgrowth next to growth plates?

<p>Osteochondroma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes osteomalacia from other bone conditions?

<p>Defective bone matrix mineralization (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which tumor primarily arises from chondroblasts?

<p>Chondrosarcoma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where is the most common location for Ewing sarcoma?

<p>Diaphysis of long bones (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is osteoblastoma different from osteoid osteoma?

<p>Osteoblastoma is larger than 2 cm. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of giant cell tumors?

<p>Located in the epiphysis or metaphysis of long bones (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary clinical feature of lateral epicondylitis?

<p>Tenderness over the lateral epicondyle (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test is used to assess the integrity of the AC joint?

<p>Scarf Test (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common risk factor for adhesive capsulitis?

<p>Hypothyroidism (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which maneuver is utilized to test for supraspinatus tears?

<p>Jobe Empty Can Test (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What clinical feature indicates a posterior shoulder dislocation?

<p>Arm adducted and internally rotated (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is associated with pain during overhead activities?

<p>Shoulder impingement syndrome (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test is used to assess for labral tears?

<p>Crank Test (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a definitive feature of biceps tendonitis?

<p>Tenderness over the bicipital groove (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test indicates supraspinatus impingement?

<p>Hawkin’s Test (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Sulcus Sign indicate during the physical examination?

<p>Shoulder instability (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following indicates a supraspinatus tear?

<p>Weakness in resisted forward flexion (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What clinical feature is common in shoulder separation?

<p>Gross deformity around the shoulder (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which physical examination finding is characteristic of adhesive capsulitis?

<p>Stiffness with both active and passive range of motion (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which maneuver is performed to assess for subscapularis tears?

<p>Belly Press Test (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary risk factor associated with Dupuytren contractures?

<p>Cigarette smoking (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following clinical signs is associated with ulnar neuropathy?

<p>Froment’s sign (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What activity is most associated with Guyon canal syndrome?

<p>Cycling (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by pain upon applying pressure to the anatomical snuffbox?

<p>Scaphoid fracture (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common clinical feature associated with carpal tunnel syndrome?

<p>Tingling in the fingers (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by localized anterior knee pain that worsens with activity and is most common in active adolescents?

<p>Osgood-Schlatter disease (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary clinical feature associated with an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury?

<p>Immediate hemarthrosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is most commonly associated with the 'unhappy triad' injury?

<p>Anterior cruciate ligament tear (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What physical exam finding is indicative of a medial collateral ligament (MCL) injury?

<p>Widening of medial joint space with valgus stress (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What clinical feature is commonly observed in a posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury?

<p>Dashboard injury (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What anatomical location is notable for a Baker's cyst?

<p>Popliteal fossa (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which clinical finding is most associated with prepatellar bursitis?

<p>Localized anterior knee swelling and pain (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the anatomical alignment seen in genu varum?

<p>Bowleg deformity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a positive FADIR Test indicate?

<p>Hip impingement (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by an antalgic gait and hip pain that may refer to the knee in a child?

<p>Legg-Calve Perthes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What clinical feature suggests trochanteric bursitis during examination?

<p>Tenderness over the greater trochanter (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a positive Spurling's Test indicate?

<p>Cervical radiculopathy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test is used to assess for flexion contracture of the hip?

<p>Thomas Test (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition is characterized by electrical shock sensations running down the spine?

<p>Lhermitte Sign (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is most commonly associated with a slipping of the femoral metaphysis relative to the epiphysis?

<p>Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which spinal disorder involves the anterior slipping of a vertebral body over an adjacent vertebra?

<p>Spondylolisthesis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a positive Ober’s Test imply?

<p>Tightness of the iliotibial band (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which physical examination maneuver is used to assess lumbar nerve root impingement?

<p>Straight Leg Raise (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary pathophysiological feature of Paget's disease?

<p>Increased osteoclast activity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the clinical presentation associated with developmental dysplasia of the hip?

<p>Clunk on hip examination (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary implication of the Trendelenburg Sign?

<p>Weakness of the gluteus medius (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common risk factor for developing spondylolisthesis?

<p>Weightlifting (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test is performed by flexing and abducting the hip and extending it back to assess for IT band tightness?

<p>FABER Test (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition can present with morning stiffness that improves with exercise?

<p>Ankylosing spondylitis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common feature of fractures of the femoral neck?

<p>Avascular necrosis complications (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Straight Leg Raise test primarily assess?

<p>Radicular pain due to disc protrusion (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What angle defines abnormal thoracic kyphosis?

<p>More than 40 degrees (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition involves spontaneous vertebral fractures from minimal trauma due to underlying bone weakness?

<p>Pathologic vertebral fractures (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the abbreviation AROM stand for?

<p>Active range of motion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which abbreviation refers to the anterior cruciate ligament?

<p>ACL (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition is indicated by the abbreviation CTS?

<p>Carpal tunnel syndrome (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which term describes the posterior superior iliac spine?

<p>PSIS (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is associated with knee instability and refers to a ligament?

<p>MCL (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the abbreviation PROM refer to?

<p>Passive range of motion (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term SLAP tear refer to?

<p>Superior labrum from anterior to posterior (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary risk factor for an Achilles’ tendon rupture?

<p>Fluoroquinolone use (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which ligament is most commonly injured in a 'low' ankle sprain?

<p>Anterior talofibular ligament (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the clinical feature of plantar fasciitis?

<p>Sharp heel pain worse during initial steps (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a positive Thompson Squeeze Test indicate?

<p>Achilles tendon rupture (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following tests assesses the integrity of the calcaneofibular ligament?

<p>Inversion Stress Test (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common consequence of Charcot neuropathy?

<p>Joint destruction due to microtrauma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary pathogenesis behind acquired pes planus?

<p>Posterior tibialis tendon dysfunction (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which exam finding is associated with a calcaneofibular ligament injury?

<p>Increased laxity with foot inversion (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the hallmark clinical presentation of achilles tendon rupture?

<p>Patient reports a 'pop' during activity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is commonly observed in a clinical examination of a patient with plantar fasciitis?

<p>Point tenderness at the medial tuberosity of calcaneus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Finkelstein's Test

A test for De Quervain's tenosynovitis; flexing the thumb into the palm and ulnarly deviating the wrist. Pain in the 1st dorsal compartment suggests a positive result.

Watson's Test

A test for scaphoid instability; pushing on the distal scaphoid while moving the wrist. A clunk or click suggests instability.

Snuff Box Tenderness

Pain in the anatomic snuffbox. This area over the scaphoid bone may indicate a scaphoid fracture.

Gamekeeper's Thumb

Injury to the ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb, caused by a forceful radial deviation. Marked radial instability is the physical finding.

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Tinel's Sign

Tapping the volar wrist to assess median nerve compression. Tingling, reproduced symptoms suggest a positive result (carpal tunnel syndrome).

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Phalen's Sign

Holding both wrists in flexion for one minute. Pain or numbness indicates compression, suggestive of carpal tunnel syndrome.

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De Quervain's tenosynovitis

Inflammation of the tendons on the side of the wrist that control thumb movement.

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Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (CTS)

A condition caused by compression of the median nerve in the wrist.

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Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

A peripheral neuropathy caused by median nerve compression by the transverse carpal ligament.

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Dupuytren Contractures

A fibroproliferative disorder of the palmar fascia, most common in the 4th & 5th fingers.

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Scaphoid Fracture

Most common carpal bone fracture, often from falling onto an outstretched hand (FOOSH).

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De Quervain's Disease

Repetitive thumb abduction and extension cause inflammation in the wrist extensor tendons.

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Guyon Canal Syndrome

Ulnar nerve compression in the wrist, causing hypothenar muscle atrophy and numbness.

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What is Medial Epicondylitis?

Also known as "Golfer's Elbow", it's an inflammation of the tendons that attach to the inner bony bump (medial epicondyle) of the elbow. This happens due to overuse or repetitive strain.

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How to test for Medial Epicondylitis

Have the patient supinate their arm (palm up), extend their wrist and elbow, then apply pressure to the wrist while resisting the movement. Pain at the inner elbow bump (medial epicondyle) indicates a positive result.

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What is Lateral Epicondylitis?

Also known as "Tennis Elbow", it's an inflammation of the tendons at the outer bony bump (lateral epicondyle) of the elbow. Overuse or repetitive motions are often the culprits.

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How to test for Lateral Epicondylitis

Have the patient make a fist, pronate their arm (palm down), extend their wrist and fingers, then apply pressure to their extended fingers while resisting the movement. Pain at the outer elbow bump (lateral epicondyle) suggests a positive test.

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Olecranon Bursitis

Inflammation of the fluid-filled sac (bursa) located over the bony point of the elbow (olecranon). This can be caused by overuse, trauma, or infection.

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Radial Head Subluxation

A partial dislocation of the top part of the radius bone (radial head). It often happens in children when they are pulled by the hand or arm.

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Radial Head Fracture

A break in the top part of the radius bone. It usually occurs from a fall on an outstretched arm.

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Distal Biceps Tendon Rupture

A tear of the tendon that connects the biceps muscle to the forearm. This often occurs due to a sudden forceful contraction or injury.

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Anterior Drawer Test

A test for ACL tear. The examiner pulls the tibia forward while the knee is flexed at 90 degrees. Increased anterior gliding of the tibia suggests a positive result.

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Posterior Drawer Test

A test for PCL tear. The examiner pushes the tibia backward while the knee is flexed at 90 degrees. Increased posterior gliding of the tibia suggests a positive result.

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Lachman Test

A test for ACL tear. The examiner stabilizes the femur and pulls the tibia anteriorly while the knee is flexed at 20-30 degrees. Increased anterior gliding of the tibia suggests a positive result.

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Valgus Stress Test

A test for MCL injury. The examiner applies a valgus force (abduction) to the tibia while the knee is extended or flexed at 20-30 degrees. Widening of the medial joint space suggests a positive result.

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Varus Stress Test

A test for LCL injury. The examiner applies a varus force (adduction) to the tibia while the knee is extended or flexed at 20-30 degrees. Widening of the lateral joint space suggests a positive result.

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McMurray Test

A test for meniscus tear. The examiner flexes the knee maximally, then rotates the tibia and applies valgus or varus stress while extending the knee. Pain indicates a positive result.

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Osteochondritis Dissecans

A condition where localized necrosis of the subchondral bone occurs due to repetitive trauma or stress.

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Unhappy Triad Injury

An injury involving damage to the ACL, MCL, and medial meniscus. It often results from a lateral force applied to a planted leg.

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Bulge Sign

An indication of knee effusion (fluid buildup) in the suprapatellar bursa.

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Baker's Cyst

A fluid-filled cyst that forms behind the knee, often associated with arthritis or a torn meniscus.

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What is the etiology of medial epicondylitis?

Repeated wrist flexion and forearm pronation.

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What is the physical exam finding for lateral epicondylitis?

Tenderness to palpation over the lateral epicondyle and pain with resisted wrist extension.

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What is the physical exam finding for medial epicondylitis?

Tenderness to palpation over the medial epicondyle.

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What is the etiology of lateral epicondylitis?

Repeated wrist extension and forearm pronation/supination.

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What is the difference between supraspinatus syndrome and a rotator cuff tear?

Supraspinatus syndrome involves impingement of the supraspinatus tendon, while a rotator cuff tear is a complete or partial tear of the tendon.

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How do you identify and understand Neer's Test?

Neer's test is used to assess for shoulder impingement. It involves forward flexion of the shoulder to greater than 90 degrees causing pain in impingement.

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How do you identify and understand Hawkins-Kennedy Test?

Hawkins-Kennedy test is used to assess for shoulder impingement. It involves forward flexion of the shoulder to 90 degrees followed by internal rotation, causing pain in impingement.

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Describe the Yergason's Test

Yergason's test is used to assess for biceps tendon injury. It involves resisted supination of the forearm with the elbow flexed at 90 degrees. Pain suggests a biceps tendon injury.

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What is Speed's Test?

Speed's test is used to assess biceps tendinitis. It involves resisted flexion of the shoulder in the scapular plane.

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O'Brien's Test

O'Brien's test is used to assess for a SLAP tear or AC joint pathology. It involves forced flexion at 90 degrees, adduction of 10 degrees, followed by resisted flexion with pronation and supination. Pain suggests a SLAP tear or AC joint pathology.

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What is a Crank Test?

The Crank test is used to assess for a labral tear. It involves abduction of 90 degrees, axial load, and internal and external rotation. The presence of pain suggests a labral tear.

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What is a Scarf Test?

The Scarf test is used to assess the integrity of the AC joint. It involves adduction of the arm across the body. Pain at the AC joint suggests AC joint pathology.

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Describe the Sulcus Sign

The Sulcus sign is used to assess inferior shoulder instability. It involves pulling down on the adducted arm. A sulcus under the lateral acromion suggests inferior instability.

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Describe the Posterior Drawer Test

The Posterior Drawer Test is used to assess posterior shoulder instability. It involves increasing posterior translation of the humeral head relative to the glenoid. Increased posterior translation suggests posterior shoulder instability.

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Describe the Anterior Drawer Test

The Anterior Drawer Test is used to assess anterior shoulder instability. It involves increasing anterior translation of the humeral head relative to the glenoid. Increased anterior translation suggests anterior shoulder instability.

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Ewing Sarcoma

A malignant bone tumor originating from neuroectodermal cells, linked to chromosomal translocations of the EWSR1 gene on chromosome 22. Primarily affects the diaphysis of long bones, such as the femur, fibula, tibia, and humerus.

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Osteoid Osteoma

A small, benign bone tumor (<2 cm) located in the cortex of long bones. Responsive to NSAID (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug) treatment.

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Osteoblastoma

A larger benign bone tumor (> 2 cm) located in the cortex of long bones. Unlike Osteoid Osteoma, it doesn't respond to NSAID therapy.

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Osteosarcoma

The most common primary malignant bone tumor in adolescents. Arises from mesenchymal stem cells, specifically osteoblasts. Typically found in the metaphysis of long bones, particularly the distal femur and proximal tibia.

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Osteochondroma

The most common primary benign bone tumor. Characterized by a bony outgrowth (exostosis) with a cartilaginous cap, located near growth plates of long bones.

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Giant Cell Tumor (Osteoclastoma)

A benign bone tumor composed of giant cells derived from the bone marrow. Typically found in the epiphysis or metaphysis of long bones, especially around the knee.

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Osteomalacia

A condition characterized by defective bone matrix mineralization, often due to Vitamin D deficiency. Symptoms include bone pain and tenderness.

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Chondroblastoma

A benign cartilage tumor located in the epiphysis of long bones.

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Chondrosarcoma

The most common bone tumor in adults. A malignant bone tumor arising from mesenchymal stem cells specifically chondroblasts.

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What distinguishes benign bone tumors from malignant bone tumors?

Benign tumors are non-cancerous, typically slow-growing, and don't spread. Malignant tumors, on the other hand, are cancerous, more aggressive, and can spread to other parts of the body.

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Spurling's Test

This test assesses for cervical radiculopathy, or nerve compression in the neck. It involves extending the neck to the side of pain and applying downward pressure to the head. Pain radiating down the limb is a positive result.

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Lhermitte's Sign

This sign is associated with compression of the upper cervical spine or brainstem. It causes an electrical shock sensation down the spine and into the limbs when the neck is flexed, like the sensation you might get from an electric razor or a barber's chair.

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Straight Leg Raise

This test is used to assess for lumbar nerve root impingement. It involves lying supine and raising the leg with the knee extended. Pain radiating below the knee suggests a positive result.

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Thoracic Kyphosis

This refers to an excessive forward rounding of the upper back (thoracic spine). A normal kyphosis is between 20-40 degrees, but anything above 40 degrees is considered abnormal.

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Pathologic Vertebral Fracture

This type of fracture occurs spontaneously, often with minimal or no apparent trauma, and is caused by underlying bone weakness due to a medical condition.

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Disc Herniation

This occurs when the inner core (nucleus pulposus) of an intervertebral disc pushes outwards through the outer ring (annulus fibrosus), often pressing on a nerve root.

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Paget's Disease (Osteitis Deformans)

This disease causes bone pain, fragility, and deformities. It's characterized by increased osteoclast activity, leading to excessive bone breakdown and then chaotic repair.

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Spondylolisthesis

This is a condition where a vertebra slips forward over the one below it. It's caused by various factors, including congenital malformations, trauma, degenerative disease, and repetitive overuse.

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Ankylosing Spondylitis

This condition results in stiffening and fusion of the spine, causing limited movement and pain. A common genetic association is with the HLA-B27 gene.

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Cervical Nerve Radiculopathy

This describes pain, numbness, or weakness in the arm and hand caused by compression of a nerve root in the neck.

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What is Guyon Canal Syndrome?

Compression of the ulnar nerve in the wrist, causing weakness and numbness in the little finger and part of the ring finger.

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Intra-articular Cartilage Fragments

Loose pieces of cartilage within a joint, often causing pain and mechanical symptoms like locking or catching.

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Knee Dislocation

A complete separation of the bones of the knee joint.

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Closed Reduction

Repositioning a dislocated joint without surgery.

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Open Reduction

Repositioning a dislocated joint with surgery.

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Ankle Brachial Index (ABI)

A ratio comparing the blood pressure in the ankle to the blood pressure in the arm.

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Medial Collateral Ligament (MCL) Injury

Damage to the ligament on the inside of the knee.

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Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) Injury

Damage to the ligament in the middle of the knee that prevents the shinbone from sliding forward.

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Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL) Injury

Damage to the ligament in the back of the knee that prevents the shinbone from sliding backward.

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What is the Anterior Drawer Test?

A test for anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL) injury. The examiner stabilizes the tibia, plantarflexes the foot, and applies anterior force on the heel. Increased laxity suggests an ATFL injury.

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What is the Inversion Stress Test?

A test for calcaneofibular ligament (CFL) injury. The examiner stabilizes the tibia, dorsiflexes the foot, and inverts the foot. Increased laxity indicates a CFL injury.

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What is the Thompson Squeeze Test?

A test for Achilles tendon rupture. The patient lies prone while the examiner squeezes the calf. Absence of foot plantarflexion suggests a ruptured Achilles tendon.

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What is Plantar Fasciitis?

Inflammation of the plantar fascia, causing sharp pain at the heel, especially after prolonged weight-bearing or inactivity.

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What is Charcot Neuropathy?

Joint destruction caused by loss of sensation and proprioception, often associated with diabetic neuropathy, leprosy, or alcoholism.

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What is Acquired Pes Planus?

Flat foot caused by tibialis posterior tendon dysfunction.

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What are the risk factors for Achilles tendon rupture?

Fluoroquinolone use, steroid injections, and sudden forceful movements can increase the risk of Achilles tendon rupture.

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What is the clinical presentation of Achilles tendon rupture?

Patients often report a popping sensation during activity, followed by pain and difficulty plantarflexing the foot.

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What is the most common ankle sprain?

Anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL) sprain is the most common ankle sprain, typically occurring with ankle plantarflexion and inversion.

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AC joint

Acromioclavicular joint, the joint between the acromion (shoulder blade) and clavicle (collarbone).

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ACL

Anterior cruciate ligament, a major ligament in the knee that prevents the tibia (shinbone) from sliding forward.

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What is a rotator cuff tear?

A tear in one or more of the muscles that surround the shoulder joint, collectively known as the rotator cuff. These muscles help stabilize the shoulder and allow for a wide range of movement.

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What is a SLAP tear?

A tear in the superior labrum of the glenoid (shoulder joint). The labrum is a ring of cartilage that helps stabilize the joint.

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What is De Quervain's tenosynovitis?

Inflammation of the tendons on the thumb side of the wrist, causing pain and difficulty moving the thumb.

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What is Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (CTS)?

A condition causing numbness, tingling, and pain in the hand and wrist due to compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel.

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Trendelenburg Sign

During a standing physical exam, the pelvis should elevate when one leg is lifted and the hip is flexed. If the pelvis falls, this suggests weakness in the gluteus medius muscle, which is innervated by the superior gluteal nerve.

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FABER Test

A test for sacroiliac (SI) joint pathology. The hip is flexed, abducted, externally rotated, then abducted further. Pain in the hip during this maneuver suggests SI joint involvement.

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What is a Scaphoid fracture?

A fracture of the scaphoid bone, a small bone in the wrist. It is a common injury from falls on an outstretched hand.

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What is Dupuytren's Contracture?

A condition that causes the fingers (usually the ring and pinky fingers) to bend inward and contract, making it difficult to straighten them.

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FADIR Test

Used to assess for hip impingement. The hip is flexed, adducted, internally rotated, then adducted further. Groin pain during this maneuver suggests hip impingement.

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Log Roll Test

A test for arthritis in the hip. With the patient supine and the hip extended, the leg is internally and externally rotated. Pain in the hip during rotation suggests arthritis.

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Trochanteric Bursitis

Inflammation of the trochanteric bursa caused by repeated tracking of the iliotibial band over the greater trochanter.

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Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE)

Slipping of the femoral metaphysis relative to the epiphysis.

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Legg-Calve Perthes

Idiopathic avascular necrosis of the femoral head.

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Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH)

Hip instability, subluxation, or dislocation due to an abnormally developed, shallow acetabulum.

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What causes Trendelenburg Gait?

Trendelenburg gait is caused by weakness in the gluteus medius muscle.

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What test is used to assess for hip impingement?

The FADIR test is used to assess for hip impingement.

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Study Notes

Musculoskeletal (MSK) Course Primer

  • The course is directed by Dr. Kamalpreet Buttar, MD and Dr. Farzana Nuruzzaman, MD.
  • It was created by Jack Scheutzow and Kevin Kashanchi.
  • The document is a primer for MSK topics.
  • It includes a table of contents to go directly to sections on spine, hand/wrist, elbow, shoulder, knee, hip, ankle/foot, bone biology, additional videos, and abbreviations.

Spine

  • Learning Objectives include knowledge of cervical and lumbar spine physical examination components.
  • Understanding implications of Spurling's Test, Lhermitte Sign, and Straight Leg Raise.
  • Identification of clinical presentation, physical examination findings, and basic management for spinal disorders like thoracic kyphosis, vertebral fractures (pathologic), disc herniation, lumbar disc (L4-L5), cervical disc (posterolateral annulus fibrosus), Paget's disease (Osteitis deformans), spondylolisthesis (risk factors), ankylosis/spondyloarthropathies, cervical nerve radiculopathy, and enthesopathy of the spine.

Hand/Wrist

  • Learning Objectives include the components of hand and wrist physical examination.
  • Understanding the implications of Finkelstein's test, Watson's test, Snuff Box Tenderness, Gamekeeper's thumb, Tinel's sign, Phalen's sign, and Wartenberg's sign.
  • Identification of clinical presentation, physical examination findings, and basic management of hand/wrist disorders such as Dupuytren contractures, anatomic snuff box fractures (Scaphoid fracture), De Quervain disease, Acute carpal tunnel syndrome, chronic (associated with conditions like pregnancy, RA, hypothyroidism, DM, dialysis-related amyloidosis, repetitive use), Guyon canal syndrome, and injuries from "fall on outstretched hand".

Elbow

  • Learning Objectives include components of elbow physical examination, tests for medial/lateral epicondylitis (golfer's/tennis elbow), and management of olecranon bursitis, radial head subluxation/fracture, distal biceps tendon rupture, lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow), medial epicondylitis (golfer's elbow), and enthesopathy of the elbow.

Shoulder

  • Learning Objectives include components of shoulder physical examination, tests for labral tears(O'Brien's and Crank Test), AC joint, and shoulder instability (Sulcus, Anterior Drawer, and Posterior Drawer tests). Identify clinical presentation, physical examination findings, and basic management of bicipital tendonitis, adhesive capsulitis (“frozen shoulder syndrome”), shoulder impingement syndromes (supraspinatus syndrome), shoulder separation (injury to coracoclavicular ligament), shoulder dislocation (posterior), injuries to the supraspinatus, subscapularis, infraspinatus, and teres minor.

Knee

  • Learning Objectives include components of knee physical examination, tests for ACL, MCL, LCL, PCL, meniscus, patella injuries (Anterior Drawer Test, Posterior Drawer Test, Bulge Sign, Abnormal Passive Abduction, Abnormal Passive Adduction, Lachman Test, and McMurray Test). Identify clinical presentation, physical examination findings, and basic management of osteochondritis dissecans, knee dislocation, lateral collateral ligament injury, medial collateral ligament injury, anterior cruciate ligament injury, posterior cruciate ligament injury, Osgood-Schlatter disease, chondromalacia patella, genu valgum or varum, prepatellar bursitis, Baker cyst, and “Unhappy triad” injury.

Hip

  • Learning Objectives include the components of hip physical examination, tests for hip disorders (FABER test, FADIR test, LOG roll test, Stinchfield test, Thomas test, and Ober's test.). Identify clinical presentation, physical examination findings, and basic management of trochanteric bursitis, slipped capital femoral epiphysis, Legg-Calve Perthes, developmental dysplasia of hip, fractures of the femur, and fractures of the femoral neck.

Ankle & Foot

  • Learning Objectives include ankle/foot anatomy, physical examination components, tests like Anterior Drawer Test, Inversion Stress Test, Thompson Squeeze Test, and management of ankle fractures (deltoid ligament injury), Achilles' tendon rupture, sprains (anterior talofibular, lateral, tibial collateral ligaments), enthesopathy of the ankle, plantar fasciitis, Charcot joints, pes planus, and varus/valgus deformities of the foot.

Bone Biology & Bone Tumors

  • Learning Objectives include the disruption of ossification, growth, remodeling, and repair leading to neoplasms. Recognizing unregulated growth and stimulation of chondroblasts can lead to chondroblastomas or chondrosarcoma. Differentiation between histology findings of bone tumors. Distinguish between clinical features of benign and malignant bone neoplasms and cartilage tumors (osteosarcoma, chondrosarcoma, Ewing sarcoma) and secondary malignant bone tumors by primary, age demographics, and radiographic findings.

Additional Videos

  • Video links for upper/lower extremities and spine/back are provided.

Abbreviations

  • A list of common abbreviations and their meanings related to the MSK system.

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