Oncology Nursing Points

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Questions and Answers

What is the main purpose of antineoplastic chemotherapy?

  • To promote skin hydration
  • To cure all types of cancer
  • To kill cancer cells and/or stop their growth (correct)
  • To prevent infections in patients

Which of the following precautions should be taken when a patient is undergoing chemotherapy?

  • Administration of antiemetics and antihistamines if necessary (correct)
  • Regular vitamin supplementation
  • Avoiding medical check-ups
  • Encouraging high levels of physical activity

Which adverse effect is commonly associated with chemotherapy that affects blood components?

  • Elevated hemoglobin levels
  • Increased white blood cell count
  • Enhanced immune response
  • Low platelet count (thrombocytopenia) (correct)

What symptom might indicate a need for neutropenic precautions in a chemotherapy patient?

<p>High fever (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common purpose of palliative chemotherapy?

<p>To improve comfort and relieve tumor-related symptoms (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which action is essential for maintaining safety during chemotherapy administration?

<p>Wearing specialized 'chemo' gloves (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of chemotherapy is administered before surgery to shrink tumors?

<p>Neoadjuvant chemotherapy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key nursing concept in caring for a patient receiving chemotherapy?

<p>Comfort (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a recommended patient self-exam that should be performed monthly?

<p>Breast self-exam or testicular self-exam (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of toxic side effect can chemotherapy have on the heart?

<p>Cardiac toxicity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of cancer predominantly affects older women and can result in abdominal metastases?

<p>Ovarian cancer (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which gene mutations are linked to an increased risk for ovarian cancer?

<p>BRCA-1 and BRCA-2 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What initial treatment is often required for ovarian cancer?

<p>Surgery (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which procedure often requires an oophorectomy when diagnosing ovarian cancer?

<p>Ovarian biopsy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary focus of care for advanced stages of ovarian cancer?

<p>Palliative care (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a non-specific symptom of ovarian cancer?

<p>Bloating (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of cervical cancer concerning its prevention?

<p>Direct link to HPV (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about ovarian cancer screening is true?

<p>There is no established routine screening method. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a typical outcome for cervical cancer if diagnosed in stages 3 or 4?

<p>Less than 50% 5-year survival rate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is a common goal of care for patients with advanced ovarian cancer?

<p>To decrease pain (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary goal of the Gardasil vaccination?

<p>To prevent HPV infection (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is NOT typically associated with liver cancer?

<p>Vaginal bleeding (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the surgical intervention commonly performed for early-stage cervical cancer?

<p>Cryosurgery (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main purpose of fractionation in radiation therapy?

<p>To allow healthy cells to recover between treatments (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common sign of liver cancer?

<p>Itching due to bilirubin buildup (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cancer that forms in the liver?

<p>Hepatocellular carcinoma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about acute side effects of radiation treatment is correct?

<p>They occur within about two weeks and typically resolve in less than six months. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes Hodgkin’s Lymphoma from Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

<p>Presence of Reed-Sternberg cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common primary bone cancer found in children and young adults?

<p>Osteosarcoma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What dietary restriction might be necessary for patients with liver cancer?

<p>Decreased sodium intake (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which treatment method is considered ideal for liver cancer but many patients are ineligible due to advanced disease?

<p>Liver resection or transplantation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic tool is essential for confirming a bone cancer diagnosis?

<p>Biopsy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the ALARA principle stand for in radiation therapy?

<p>As Low As Reasonably Achievable (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common symptom of leukemia that differs from lymphoma?

<p>Bone pain (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What symptom might indicate the presence of a bone tumor, particularly if it is worse at night?

<p>Localized sharp pain (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which body's function is NOT related to liver cancer?

<p>Regulating blood pressure (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended action for a patient undergoing chemotherapy in terms of infection control?

<p>Implement strict hand hygiene and limit visitation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be monitored in patients with liver cancer due to altered metabolism?

<p>Pain medication dosage (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which risk factor is associated with an increased likelihood of developing bone cancer?

<p>Previous radiation treatment (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which lab value is typically elevated in the presence of bone tumors, particularly reflecting osteoblast activity?

<p>Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is a significant risk factor for developing lung cancer?

<p>Tobacco use (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which assessment finding is indicative of advanced liver disease?

<p>Decreased albumin levels (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What primarily distinguishes internal radiation therapy from external radiation therapy?

<p>Internal radiation therapy delivers isotopes that release energy as they decay. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical age range for the diagnosis of stomach cancer?

<p>55-80 years old (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What complication might arise from weakened bones due to a bone tumor?

<p>Pathologic fractures (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant non-modifiable risk factor for developing multiple myeloma?

<p>Older age (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which bone cancer is most commonly found in teenagers and has a tendency to spread?

<p>Ewing Sarcoma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic is typical of small cell lung cancer compared to non-small cell lung cancer?

<p>Aggressive growth and early spreading (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What therapy is often used for leukemia patients to assess the involvement of the bone marrow?

<p>Bone marrow biopsy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common treatment strategy for MGUS and SMM?

<p>Watchful waiting (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic method is used to assess for metastasis of bone cancer?

<p>MRI (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which educational point is essential for patients undergoing chemotherapy?

<p>Recognize potential side effects (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of palliation in cancer treatment?

<p>To improve the quality of life and manage symptoms (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of cancer is most commonly associated with the Philadelphia chromosome?

<p>Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does radiation treatment typically affect rapidly dividing cells compared to healthy cells?

<p>Healthy cells have a greater capacity to repair damage. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common late side effect of radiation therapy?

<p>Fibrosis or necrosis in treated areas (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended patient education regarding oral hygiene for those undergoing chemotherapy?

<p>Rinse the mouth with saline and avoid alcohol-based mouthwash. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common type of bladder cancer?

<p>Urothelial Carcinomas (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which risk factor is directly linked to bladder cancer?

<p>Chemical exposure such as diesel fumes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the average age of diagnosis for bladder cancer?

<p>73 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about brain tumors is accurate?

<p>They can lead to increased intracranial pressure. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which treatment option is typically used to deliver medication directly into the brain?

<p>Intrathecal chemotherapy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of a craniotomy in brain tumor treatment?

<p>To completely remove the tumor (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which patient symptom is often the first sign of bladder cancer?

<p>Hematuria (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of brain tumor originates from glial cells?

<p>Glioma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can trigger the growth of bladder cancer cells?

<p>Cigarette smoke (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not a treatment modality for bladder cancer?

<p>Radiofrequency ablation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common side effect of brain tumor treatments such as chemotherapy?

<p>Hair loss (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of bladder cancer is formed from chronic irritation, for example, from catheters or infections?

<p>Squamous Cell Carcinoma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) blockage impact brain tumors?

<p>It may cause an increase in intracranial pressure. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not a sign of bladder cancer spread?

<p>Difficulty breathing (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Antineoplastic Chemotherapy

Drugs used to kill cancer cells or stop their growth.

Chemotherapy Administration

Giving chemotherapy drugs to a patient safely. Includes patient and staff safety.

Neutropenia

Low neutrophil count (a type of white blood cell), causing decreased immunity.

Chemotherapy Precautions

Special safety measures taken to prevent infection, protect the patient & staff from exposure, and manage side effects (like low blood counts).

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Immunocompromise

Weakened immune system due to treatment (such as chemo).

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Bone Marrow Transplant (BMT)

A procedure to cure leukemia by replacing damaged bone marrow with healthy cells, often after high dose chemo to destroy existing marrow.

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Adjuvant Chemotherapy

Chemotherapy given after surgery or radiation to kill any remaining cancer cells.

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Neoadjuvant Chemotherapy

Treatment given before surgery or radiation, to shrink the tumor.

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Hyperthermic intraperitoneal chemotherapy (HIPEC)

A 'hot' chemotherapy wash of the abdomen, to treat cancers of the abdomen or pelvis.

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Patient Safety

Important considerations for both the patient and staff to have safe chemo procedures.

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Radiation Therapy

A cancer treatment that uses high-energy particles, beams, or waves to destroy cancer cells.

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Fractionation

Dividing a total radiation dose into smaller, daily treatments to allow healthy cells to recover.

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Acute Side Effects

Radiation side effects that occur within about two weeks of treatment and generally resolve within 6 months.

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Late Side Effects

Radiation side effects that appear more than 6 months after treatment and possibly last permanently

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Leukemia

A type of cancer that affects blood cells, specifically white blood cells (WBCs).

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Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL)

A type of leukemia most common in children.

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Philadelphia Chromosome

A specific genetic abnormality frequently found in Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML).

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Neutropenic Precautions

Infection control measures taken for patients with low neutrophil counts.

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Lymphoma

Cancer of the lymphatic system, affecting lymphocytes.

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Hodgkin Lymphoma

A type of lymphoma characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells.

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Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma

The most common type of Lymphoma characterized by the absence of Reed-Sternberg cells.

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Lung Cancer

Cancer that starts in the lungs.

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Small Cell Lung Cancer

An aggressive type of lung cancer that spreads quickly.

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Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer

The most common type of lung cancer.

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Ovarian Cancer

Cancer affecting the ovaries or fallopian tubes. It often has non-specific symptoms and frequently involves abdominal metastases. It's more common in older women and is linked to hormone function.

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Ovarian Cancer Types

Three main types: epithelial (most common), germ cell (related to egg production), and stromal (hormone-producing).

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Ovarian Cancer Symptoms

Non-specific symptoms include abdominal pain, fatigue, urination difficulty, bloating, constipation, reflux, and early fullness.

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Ovarian Cancer Diagnosis

Diagnosis often uses radiology (ultrasound, CT scans, mammograms) and an ovarian biopsy. A biopsy may require oophorectomy.

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Ovarian Cancer Treatment

Treatment often involves surgery (radical hysterectomy and oophorectomy in early stage) and chemotherapy. Early diagnosis is important for effective therapies.

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Cervical Cancer

Cancer of the cervix, often linked to HPV (Human Papillomavirus). Preventable with vaccination (recommended for younger women & men).

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Cervical Cancer Treatment

Treatable, cure depending on how far it has spread. Better survival rates if detected early (stage 1 & 2).

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HPV Link to Cancer

Human Papillomavirus (HPV) is linked to cervical cancer risks, making vaccination an essential preventative measure.

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Genetic Risk in Ovarian Cancer

Genes like BRCA-1 and BRCA-2, which are also linked to breast cancer, increase ovarian cancer risk. Genetic counseling may be beneficial.

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CA-125

A tumor marker associated with Female reproductive cancers. However, it doesn't distinguish between types of cancer.

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Primary Bone Cancer

Cancer that originates within bone tissue, affecting any age group.

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Bone Cancer Metastasis

Spread of bone cancer to other parts of the body, most commonly the lungs.

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Sarcoma

A tumor developing within bone or connective tissue.

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Osteosarcoma

A bone cancer arising in osteoblasts, usually affecting children and young adults.

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Chondrosarcoma

A bone cancer originating in cartilage, predominantly seen in adults.

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Ewing Sarcoma

Bone or soft tissue cancer that often spreads, common in teenagers.

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Radiation-induced Bone Cancer

Cancer development after large doses of radiation treatment, due to cell changes.

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Paget's Disease and Bone Cancer

Increased risk of bone cancer with Paget's disease, due to increased osteoblast activity and mutation.

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Liver Cancer

A disease where cancerous cells develop in the liver, impeding its functions and blood flow.

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Liver Functions

The liver performs vital roles like synthesizing clotting factors, metabolizing substances, and producing proteins.

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Hepatocellular Carcinoma (HCC)

The most common type of liver cancer that originates within the liver itself.

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Cirrhosis

Chronic liver disease causing scarring and damage, which greatly raises the risk of liver cancer.

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Pain in Liver Cancer

Pain often felt in the right upper abdomen or radiating to the shoulder due to an enlarged liver.

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Jaundice

Yellowing of the skin and whites of the eyes due to bilirubin buildup from blocked bile flow.

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Fluid Retention in Liver Cancer

Excess fluid buildup in the body due to high pressure in the portal vein, sodium retention, and reduced albumin production.

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Ascites

Fluid accumulation in the abdominal cavity, causing pressure and discomfort.

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Hepatic Encephalopathy

Altered brain function due to built-up toxins from poor liver detoxification.

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Variceal Bleeding

Bleeding from enlarged veins in the esophagus or stomach due to high portal pressure and impaired clotting.

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Liver Resection/Transplantation

Surgical options for treating liver cancer, but many are not eligible due to advanced disease.

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TACE (Transcatheter Arterial Chemoembolization)

A minimally invasive procedure delivering chemotherapy and blockage agents to the tumor via the arteries.

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Palliative Care in Liver Cancer

Focus on improving quality of life and managing symptoms, not necessarily curing the disease.

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Stomach Cancer

Cancer developing in the stomach lining, affecting digestion and nutrient absorption.

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Stomach Anatomy

The stomach consists of different parts (cardia, fundus, body, antrum, pylorus) and layers (mucosa, submucosa, muscle, serosa).

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Bladder Cancer

An overgrowth of abnormal cells in the bladder, often recurring and treated as a chronic condition.

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TNM Staging

A system used to classify bladder cancer based on Tumor size, lymph Node involvement, and Metastasis.

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Urothelial Carcinomas

The most common type of bladder cancer, starting in the cells lining the bladder.

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Squamous Cell Carcinoma

A type of bladder cancer formed from chronic irritation, like from catheters or infections.

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Invasive Bladder Cancer

Cancer that grows into deeper layers of the bladder, making it harder to treat.

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Noninvasive Bladder Cancer

Cancer confined to the inner layer of the bladder, the transitional epithelium.

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Risk Factors for Bladder Cancer

Factors increasing the likelihood of developing bladder cancer, including chemical exposure, genetic mutations, and chronic irritation.

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Hematuria

Blood in the urine, often the first sign of bladder cancer.

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Cystoscopy

A procedure where a camera is inserted through the urethra to visualize the bladder and take biopsies.

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TURBT

Transurethral resection of bladder tumor - a surgical procedure to remove a tumor from the bladder through the urethra.

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Cystectomy

Surgical removal of the bladder.

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Ileal Conduit

A surgical procedure that creates a stoma on the abdomen for constant urine release.

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Neobladder

A new bladder created from intestines, allowing urine to pass through the urethra.

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Intravesical Therapy

Treatment delivered directly into the bladder through a catheter, targeting cancer cells.

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Increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP)

Elevated pressure inside the skull, often caused by brain tumors or blockages in CSF flow.

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Craniotomy

A surgical procedure to access the brain, often to remove a tumor.

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Ommaya Reservoir

A port inserted in the ventricles of the brain to deliver chemotherapy directly.

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Study Notes

Oncology Nursing Points

  • Overview: Warning signs of cancer (CAUTION) include: changes in bowel pattern, a sore that doesn't heal, unusual bleeding, thickening of breast/testicles/skin, indigestion, obvious change in mole, nagging cough, unexplained anemia, and sudden unexplained weight loss.
  • Nursing Points - General: All cancer diagnoses need biopsy/histologic examination (gold standard). Cancer staging uses the TNM system (Tumor, Node, Metastasis) with categories like Tis, NO, MO for localized cancer.
  • TNM Staging: Detailed descriptions of tumor size (T1, T2, T3, T4), lymph node involvement (N0, N1, N2, N3), and metastasis (M0, M1) are used to stage cancer. The different categories of T, N, and M describe the extent of the cancer.
  • Mitosis & Apoptosis: Mitosis is normal cell division for growth and repair, while apoptosis is programmed cell death.
  • Benign vs. Malignant: Benign tumors do not spread to other tissues or organs, while malignant tumors can invade and spread.
  • Assessment - Testicular Cancer: Instruction on monthly testicular self-examination is essential.
  • Assessment - General: Functional status, fatigue, constipation/diarrhea, nausea/vomiting, mucositis needs to be assessed from the patient at every encounter. Assess for weight loss, infection- risk factors, nutritional needs and complications.
  • Other Topics: Detailed information regarding specific cancer types such as cervical, breast, prostate, testicular, and others include risk factors, screening, and therapeutic details were covered in subsequent pages.

Cervical Cancer

  • Overview: Regular gynecological exams with Pap smears are crucial for early detection. Annual exams are recommended if abnormal results occur.
  • Risk Factors: Early menarche and late menopause are risk factors. A breast self-exam needs to be done monthly.
  • Assessment: Mammograms once a year are recommended for individuals over 40.
  • Therapeutic Management: Chemotherapy precautions, neutropenia, and leukopenia are also notable topics.

Prostate Cancer

  • Overview**: Regular prostate exams starting at age 50 are essential.
  • Therapeutic Management: Chemotherapy precautions, neutropenia and leukopenia need to be considered.

Chemotherapy

  • Overview: Agents against abnormal cells aimed at stopping or killing abnormal growth.
  • Nursing Points - General: Chemotherapy can cause several side effects, including myelosuppression (reduced blood counts) which leads to increased risk of infection. Nadir is when blood counts are at their lowest point.

Radiation Therapy

  • Overview: Radiation therapy destroys cancer cells by delivering high-energy particles. This can cause side effects that impact patients' ability or capacity to complete ADLs.
  • Nursing Points - General: Different types of radiation therapy (EBRT and others) and its potential side effects were covered. This treatment causes fatigue, irritation of skin around treatment area, and can cause site-specific side effects due to the treatment area.

Other Cancer Types

  • Specific information was provided in the document for different cancer types. Risk factors, screening, treatment, and assessment strategies are included for each type.

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