OCT Imaging in Retinal Conditions Quiz
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Questions and Answers

Which retinal condition is NOT typically identified using Macular OCT?

  • Macular hole
  • Corneal edema (correct)
  • Retinal detachment
  • Macular pucker
  • What can cause an erroneous RNFL thickness measurement?

  • Vitreous heme
  • Optic nerve edema
  • Glaucoma
  • Tilted discs (correct)
  • What is the main role of the External Limiting Membrane (ELM) in OCT?

  • Facilitates vitreous gel maintenance
  • Ensures photoreceptor integrity (correct)
  • Separates inner and outer retinal layers
  • Regulates blood flow
  • Which condition is associated with falsely high RNFL thickness leading to inaccurate glaucoma evaluations?

    <p>Retinal cysts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which hyperreflective structure is NOT considered essential for maintaining good visual acuity?

    <p>Scleral Band</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which scenario is B-scan ultrasonography particularly useful?

    <p>When internal structures cannot be evaluated due to obstructions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a decenter scan in OCT lead to?

    <p>Erroneous RNFL thickness measurement</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a positive Jones II test indicate?

    <p>Fluorescein is present in the tissue or basin.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the Schirmer I test primarily measure?

    <p>Basal tear secretion without anesthesia.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is indicated by a negative Jones II test?

    <p>No fluorescein was recovered or the saline was not felt.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about Schirmer II test is accurate?

    <p>It assesses reflex tearing under emotional stimuli.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When performing the Schirmer I test, what is crucial to ensure?

    <p>The cornea must be touched with the filter paper strip.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What phase occurs immediately after the pre-arterial phase in fluorescein angiography?

    <p>Arterial Phase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical feature is indicative of a hypo-fluorescent signal during Autofluorescence Analysis (AFA)?

    <p>RPE atrophy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is indicated by a late phase with areas of hyperfluorescence in fluorescein angiography?

    <p>Presence of an abnormality</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure can be affected by differentiating between optic disc edema and optic disc drusens?

    <p>Optic nerve head</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What technique is used to assess the depth of a foreign body in the cornea?

    <p>Optic section</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the conical beam examination, what do floating WBCs in the anterior chamber indicate?

    <p>Presence of infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What duration after fluorescein injection does the venous mid-stage typically occur?

    <p>2-4 minutes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What illumination technique is used to evaluate the vitreous with a slit lamp?

    <p>Parallelepiped</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of the Venous Early Stage in fluorescein angiography?

    <p>Inspect dark lumen of veins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of treatment is recommended after corneal foreign body removal?

    <p>Broad-spectrum antibiotics for 7 days</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following treatments is contraindicated until re-epithelization occurs?

    <p>Steroid therapy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential risk of using broad-spectrum contact lenses after foreign body removal?

    <p>They may contribute to a more infective climate.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of using Homatropine after excessive inflammation due to a foreign body?

    <p>To reduce discomfort and inflammation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which situation could subconjunctival hemorrhages occur?

    <p>After foreign body removal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When monitoring a patient after foreign body removal, when should contact lenses be evaluated for edema and striae?

    <p>In 24 hours</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of injury may be caused by a high-speed projectile in the bulbar conjunctiva?

    <p>Perforating injury</p> Signup and view all the answers

    According to the Imbert-Fick law, what does the pressure inside an ideal sphere depend on?

    <p>The area of the flattened surface</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is most likely to require the use of an amniotic membrane?

    <p>Central or deep corneal foreign bodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which recommendation is appropriate for superficial punctate keratitis occurring after irrigation?

    <p>Reassurance and monitoring</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of using specular reflection in corneal evaluation?

    <p>To assess endothelial cells and corneal dystrophies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended illumination level when conducting a biomicroscope examination?

    <p>High illumination to enhance visibility</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what angle should the microscope be positioned to obtain a sharply focused parallelepiped of the cornea?

    <p>30°-45°</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What visual effect indicates that the examining practitioner is looking at the ghostlike image of the filament?

    <p>One bright image and one ghostlike image</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of reflection allows the evaluation of corneal layers using a high-contrast approach?

    <p>Specular reflection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should a practitioner observe for when advancing the parallelepiped across the cornea?

    <p>A dazzling reflection of filaments</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of sclerotic scatter in corneal examinations?

    <p>To scatter light internally throughout the cornea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which imaging technique is optimal for pre- and post-operative corneal assessments?

    <p>Parallelepiped technique using specular reflection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the appearance noted when the correct focus is achieved on the ghostlike image during examination?

    <p>Orange peel appearance of hexagonal cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the case of Central Corneal Clouding (CCC), how is it typically observed?

    <p>With the naked eye</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Macular OCT

    • Retinal layers are identified by OCT, including the posterior hyaloid membrane, outer nuclear layer (ONL), outer plexiform layer (OPL), etc
    • Common conditions detected with OCT include narrow angles, retinal disease, and corneal pathologies

    Tested Eye Identification

    • OCT images show different layers of the eye allowing identification and diagnosis
    • Structures illustrated include the temporal nerve fiber layer, choroid, blood vessels, etc

    Common Conditions Identified with OCT

    • OCT aids in diagnosing and managing patients with various eye conditions
    • Conditions include narrow angles, retinal disease, corneal pathologies, retinal detachment, vitreus detachment, macular conditions (macular hole, macular pucker, macular edema), and optic nerve abnormalities, etc.

    Causes for Falsely High/Low Results

    • Bifurcation of the superior vascular trunk can create a split bundle, leading to the appearance of RNFL thinning, but this is actually a physiological process
    • Tilted discs may appear to be shifted temporally causing an abnormal presentation
    • Myelinated peripapillary RNFL and other non-glaucomatous conditions may produce thick RNFL, reducing the reliability of glaucoma analysis

    Hyperreflective Bands

    • Four important hyperreflective structures essential for good visual acuity: RPE, interdigitation zone (IZ), ellipsoid zone (EZ), and inner/outer segment (IS/OS)

    ONH OCT

    • Glaucoma is a common condition identified with ONH OCT that can present as asymmetry of the nerve, RNFL thinning, and ON head edema
    • Other conditions, like diabetic retinopathy, which may exhibit the signs mentioned above, should be considered as differential diagnoses

    A-Scan Structures

    • Peak identification on an A-scan indicates different eye structures such as cornea, lens, retina, choroid, and vitreous
    • Reflectivity variations in various structures (cornea, lens, retina, etc.) help assess their integrity
    • Comparing results to normative data aids in identifying abnormal values

    B-Scan Common Conditions Diagnosed

    • B-scan provides a two-dimensional view of ocular structures when internal view is obstructed
    • Detects conditions like dense cataracts, vitreous hemorrhages, opaque corneas, eyelid pathology, anterior chamber opacities, and miosis
    • Aids in diagnosing posterior segment disorders such as ciliary body lesions, ocular tumors, and vitreous pathology and retinal detachments (serous, rhegmatogenous, exudative)

    Pre-Arterial Phase

    • Choroidal circulation is filled with dye, no dye has reached the retinal arteries

    Arterial Phase

    • Dye appears in the retinal arteries following the prearterial phase to fill them fully

    Capillary Phase

    • Arteries and capillaries are complete filled
    • Retinal capillaries are visibly around the optic nerve head (ONH) and fovea

    Venous Phase

    • Venous filling occurs after complete arterial and capillary filling
    • Divided into early (arterio-venous) and mid/late stages based on filling status, and dye concentration

    Conditions Identified with FAN

    • Useful in evaluating retinal and choroidal circulation
    • Used to diagnose anomalies in areas such as RPE changes

    AFA Molecule

    • Lipofuscin is stimulated by a low energy laser
    • A barrier filter isolates the RPE lipofuscin response from other signals
    • Provides a single monochromatic image with high contrast
    • Helps in detecting hypo/hyper lesions

    Gonioscopy

    • Gonioscopy procedure to evaluate the anterior chamber angle
    • Assessing the structures within and around the iris, trabecular meshwork, and scleral spur

    Lacrimal Test (Jones)

    • Procedure to test lacrimal duct patency in cases of excessive tear production
    • Instill fluorescein in the lower conjunctival sac, and examine the tissue for presence of fluorescein post 5 mins
    • Positive result indicates the duct is not obstructed, while negative result indicates an obstruction

    Schirmer I & II Tests

    • Measures lacrimal secretion, to evaluate the integrity of the aqueous production system
    • Assesses aqueous production and tear film secretion
    • Schirmer 1: applying the strip to lower eyelid, measuring the wetted area
    • Schirmer 2: same procedure as Schirmer 1 but done on the conjunctival side and following the Schirmer 1 test (if negative), to test patency

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