OCT Imaging in Retinal Conditions Quiz
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Questions and Answers

Which retinal condition is NOT typically identified using Macular OCT?

  • Macular hole
  • Corneal edema (correct)
  • Retinal detachment
  • Macular pucker

What can cause an erroneous RNFL thickness measurement?

  • Vitreous heme
  • Optic nerve edema
  • Glaucoma
  • Tilted discs (correct)

What is the main role of the External Limiting Membrane (ELM) in OCT?

  • Facilitates vitreous gel maintenance
  • Ensures photoreceptor integrity (correct)
  • Separates inner and outer retinal layers
  • Regulates blood flow

Which condition is associated with falsely high RNFL thickness leading to inaccurate glaucoma evaluations?

<p>Retinal cysts (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which hyperreflective structure is NOT considered essential for maintaining good visual acuity?

<p>Scleral Band (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which scenario is B-scan ultrasonography particularly useful?

<p>When internal structures cannot be evaluated due to obstructions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a decenter scan in OCT lead to?

<p>Erroneous RNFL thickness measurement (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a positive Jones II test indicate?

<p>Fluorescein is present in the tissue or basin. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Schirmer I test primarily measure?

<p>Basal tear secretion without anesthesia. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is indicated by a negative Jones II test?

<p>No fluorescein was recovered or the saline was not felt. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about Schirmer II test is accurate?

<p>It assesses reflex tearing under emotional stimuli. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When performing the Schirmer I test, what is crucial to ensure?

<p>The cornea must be touched with the filter paper strip. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What phase occurs immediately after the pre-arterial phase in fluorescein angiography?

<p>Arterial Phase (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What clinical feature is indicative of a hypo-fluorescent signal during Autofluorescence Analysis (AFA)?

<p>RPE atrophy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition is indicated by a late phase with areas of hyperfluorescence in fluorescein angiography?

<p>Presence of an abnormality (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structure can be affected by differentiating between optic disc edema and optic disc drusens?

<p>Optic nerve head (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What technique is used to assess the depth of a foreign body in the cornea?

<p>Optic section (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the conical beam examination, what do floating WBCs in the anterior chamber indicate?

<p>Presence of infection (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What duration after fluorescein injection does the venous mid-stage typically occur?

<p>2-4 minutes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What illumination technique is used to evaluate the vitreous with a slit lamp?

<p>Parallelepiped (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of the Venous Early Stage in fluorescein angiography?

<p>Inspect dark lumen of veins (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of treatment is recommended after corneal foreign body removal?

<p>Broad-spectrum antibiotics for 7 days (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following treatments is contraindicated until re-epithelization occurs?

<p>Steroid therapy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential risk of using broad-spectrum contact lenses after foreign body removal?

<p>They may contribute to a more infective climate. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main purpose of using Homatropine after excessive inflammation due to a foreign body?

<p>To reduce discomfort and inflammation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which situation could subconjunctival hemorrhages occur?

<p>After foreign body removal (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When monitoring a patient after foreign body removal, when should contact lenses be evaluated for edema and striae?

<p>In 24 hours (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of injury may be caused by a high-speed projectile in the bulbar conjunctiva?

<p>Perforating injury (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the Imbert-Fick law, what does the pressure inside an ideal sphere depend on?

<p>The area of the flattened surface (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition is most likely to require the use of an amniotic membrane?

<p>Central or deep corneal foreign bodies (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which recommendation is appropriate for superficial punctate keratitis occurring after irrigation?

<p>Reassurance and monitoring (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of using specular reflection in corneal evaluation?

<p>To assess endothelial cells and corneal dystrophies (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended illumination level when conducting a biomicroscope examination?

<p>High illumination to enhance visibility (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At what angle should the microscope be positioned to obtain a sharply focused parallelepiped of the cornea?

<p>30°-45° (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What visual effect indicates that the examining practitioner is looking at the ghostlike image of the filament?

<p>One bright image and one ghostlike image (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of reflection allows the evaluation of corneal layers using a high-contrast approach?

<p>Specular reflection (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should a practitioner observe for when advancing the parallelepiped across the cornea?

<p>A dazzling reflection of filaments (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of sclerotic scatter in corneal examinations?

<p>To scatter light internally throughout the cornea (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which imaging technique is optimal for pre- and post-operative corneal assessments?

<p>Parallelepiped technique using specular reflection (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the appearance noted when the correct focus is achieved on the ghostlike image during examination?

<p>Orange peel appearance of hexagonal cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the case of Central Corneal Clouding (CCC), how is it typically observed?

<p>With the naked eye (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Macular OCT

A type of optical coherence tomography (OCT) that provides detailed imaging of the macula – the central part of the retina responsible for sharp, central vision. It allows clinicians to visualize the retinal layers and identify various macular conditions.

RNFL Thinning

A reduction in the thickness of the retinal nerve fiber layer (RNFL), which is a layer of nerve fibers that carry information from the retina to the brain. It can be a sign of glaucoma or other eye conditions.

What are hyperreflective bands?

Four key structures within the retina that reflect light strongly and are essential for good visual acuity. These include the retinal pigment epithelium (RPE), interdigitation zone (IZ), ellipsoid zone (EZ), and external limiting membrane (ELM).

ONH OCT

A type of OCT specifically used to image the optic nerve head (ONH), which is the area where the optic nerve connects to the eye. It helps diagnose and evaluate conditions like glaucoma by analyzing the ONH structure and RNFL thickness.

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A-Scan Ultrasound

A type of ultrasound that sends sound waves into the eye and measures the time it takes for the waves to return. This creates a one-dimensional image of the eye's internal structures, allowing for evaluation of their size, shape, and reflectivity.

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B-Scan Ultrasound

A type of ultrasound that creates a two-dimensional image of the eye's internal structures. It's particularly useful when the interior of the eye can't be seen clearly due to obstructions like cataracts or vitreous hemorrhage.

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Fluorescein Angiography (FA) Stages

FA stages describe the progressive filling and emptying of the retinal and choroidal vasculature with fluorescein dye. Stages include: Pre-arterial, Arterial, Capillary, Venous (early, mid, late), and Late. Each stage provides insights into the blood flow dynamics and potential abnormalities.

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FA Pre-arterial Phase

The first stage of FA where the choroidal circulation is filled with fluorescein dye but the dye hasn't reached the retinal arteries. This phase is very fast, lasting only a fraction of a second.

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FA Arterial Phase

The second stage of FA when dye begins to fill the retinal arteries. The central retinal artery (CRA) appears white due to fluorescein, while the central retinal vein (CRV) remains black.

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FA Capillary Phase

The stage where the retinal arteries and capillaries are completely filled with fluorescein dye. Retinal capillaries become visible, especially around the optic nerve head (ONH) and foveal avascular zone (FAZ).

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FA Venous Phase

The stage where the veins begin to fill with fluorescein dye. This phase is subdivided into early, mid, and late stages. The early venous stage is also called the arterio-venous stage, where the arteries and capillaries are filled and there is lamellar flow in the veins. The mid-stage involves nearly complete vein filling, and the late stage signifies complete vein filling and artery emptying.

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FA Late Phase

The final stage of FA, occurring 7-15 minutes after injection, where fluorescein is gradually eliminated from the retinal and choroidal vasculature. Late staining of the optic disc is normal, while other areas of late hyperfluorescence may indicate pathology.

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Autofluorescence (AF) and its Interpretation

Autofluorescence (AF) imaging uses a low-energy laser to stimulate lipofuscin in the retinal pigment epithelium (RPE). A barrier filter is used to isolate the RPE autofluorescence, resulting in a single monochromatic image with high contrast. Hypo- and hyperfluorescent signals can be analyzed to diagnose various retinal diseases.

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AF Hypofluorescent Signal

Hypofluorescent areas in AF images indicate a lower than normal autofluorescence signal. This can be observed in RPE atrophy, fresh hemorrhages, exudative lesions, dense hyperpigmentation, and hard drusen.

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AF Hyperfluorescent Signal

Hyperfluorescent areas in AF images indicate a stronger than normal autofluorescence signal. This can occur in yellow lesions with high lipofuscin concentration in the RPE, such as Best's and Stargardt's disease, older hemorrhages, and soft drusen.

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Jones II Test

Evaluates the patency of the nasolacrimal duct by assessing the presence of fluorescein in the nasal cavity after instilling saline into the conjunctival sac.

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Positive Jones II

Indicates a patent nasolacrimal duct, as fluorescein is detected in the nasal cavity and/or the patient can feel it going down their throat.

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Negative Jones II

Suggests a blocked nasolacrimal duct, as fluorescein is not recovered and/or the patient doesn't feel saline in their throat.

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Schirmer I Test

Measures tear production by assessing the amount of moisture absorbed by a filter paper strip placed at the lateral canthus of the lower eyelid.

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What does Schirmer I test for?

It primarily evaluates the aqueous portion of the tear film, which is a major component of tear production.

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Foreign Body Removal

The process of removing a foreign object from the eye, typically involving irrigation, tweezers, or specialized instruments.

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Cycloplegia

Paralysis of the ciliary muscle of the eye, leading to dilation of the pupil and relaxation of the lens.

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Secondary Infections

Infections that occur as a complication of a prior injury or condition, like after a corneal foreign body.

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Superficial Punctate Keratitis

A condition characterized by multiple small, superficial lesions on the cornea, often caused by dryness, infection, or irritation.

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Subconjunctival Hemes

Bleeding under the conjunctiva, the thin membrane covering the white part of the eye, often appearing as a red patch.

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Perforating Injury

A wound that penetrates the eye's outer layers, potentially damaging internal structures.

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Broad-spectrum Antibiotics

Antibiotics that target a wide range of bacteria, often used for initial treatment of infections of unknown origin.

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Pressure Patch

A patch applied to the eye to provide pressure, reduce pain, and promote healing after eye surgery or injury.

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Homatropine

A medication that causes cycloplegia and is often used to dilate the pupil and relax the ciliary muscle for eye exams.

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Amniotic Membrane

A thin membrane derived from the amniotic sac, used in ophthalmology to promote healing and reduce scarring after corneal injury or surgery.

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Retro-illumination

A technique that uses backlighting to illuminate structures within the eye, allowing for visualization of details often obscured by direct light.

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Parallelepiped

A prism-shaped structure used in ophthalmological microscopes to direct light and create a specific angle for visualization.

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Specular Reflection

A type of reflection that focuses light off a smooth surface, allowing for the evaluation of endothelial cells in the cornea or epithelial cells on the lens.

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Endothelial Cells

Cells lining the inner surface of the cornea, responsible for maintaining corneal transparency.

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Epithelial Cells

Cells covering the outer surface of the lens, responsible for maintaining lens clarity.

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Sclerotic Scatter

A technique that uses a parallelepiped at the limbus to scatter light internally throughout the cornea, revealing abnormalities.

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Central Corneal Clouding (CCC)

A condition where the central cornea becomes opaque, reducing vision. It can be observed with the naked eye using sclerotic scatter.

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How to evaluate endothelial cells?

Specular reflection is the best technique to evaluate endothelial cells. It uses a parallelepiped angled at 60°-90° with high magnification and illumination.

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How to find ghostlike image?

During specular reflection, slowly advance the parallelepiped across the cornea until a ghostlike image (pale yellow) is seen, along with a bright image of the filament.

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Observation angle for CCC?

To observe a patient with CCC, the oculars (eyepiece) are placed directly opposite the light source, allowing for visual confirmation with sclerotic scatter.

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Study Notes

Macular OCT

  • Retinal layers are identified by OCT, including the posterior hyaloid membrane, outer nuclear layer (ONL), outer plexiform layer (OPL), etc
  • Common conditions detected with OCT include narrow angles, retinal disease, and corneal pathologies

Tested Eye Identification

  • OCT images show different layers of the eye allowing identification and diagnosis
  • Structures illustrated include the temporal nerve fiber layer, choroid, blood vessels, etc

Common Conditions Identified with OCT

  • OCT aids in diagnosing and managing patients with various eye conditions
  • Conditions include narrow angles, retinal disease, corneal pathologies, retinal detachment, vitreus detachment, macular conditions (macular hole, macular pucker, macular edema), and optic nerve abnormalities, etc.

Causes for Falsely High/Low Results

  • Bifurcation of the superior vascular trunk can create a split bundle, leading to the appearance of RNFL thinning, but this is actually a physiological process
  • Tilted discs may appear to be shifted temporally causing an abnormal presentation
  • Myelinated peripapillary RNFL and other non-glaucomatous conditions may produce thick RNFL, reducing the reliability of glaucoma analysis

Hyperreflective Bands

  • Four important hyperreflective structures essential for good visual acuity: RPE, interdigitation zone (IZ), ellipsoid zone (EZ), and inner/outer segment (IS/OS)

ONH OCT

  • Glaucoma is a common condition identified with ONH OCT that can present as asymmetry of the nerve, RNFL thinning, and ON head edema
  • Other conditions, like diabetic retinopathy, which may exhibit the signs mentioned above, should be considered as differential diagnoses

A-Scan Structures

  • Peak identification on an A-scan indicates different eye structures such as cornea, lens, retina, choroid, and vitreous
  • Reflectivity variations in various structures (cornea, lens, retina, etc.) help assess their integrity
  • Comparing results to normative data aids in identifying abnormal values

B-Scan Common Conditions Diagnosed

  • B-scan provides a two-dimensional view of ocular structures when internal view is obstructed
  • Detects conditions like dense cataracts, vitreous hemorrhages, opaque corneas, eyelid pathology, anterior chamber opacities, and miosis
  • Aids in diagnosing posterior segment disorders such as ciliary body lesions, ocular tumors, and vitreous pathology and retinal detachments (serous, rhegmatogenous, exudative)

Pre-Arterial Phase

  • Choroidal circulation is filled with dye, no dye has reached the retinal arteries

Arterial Phase

  • Dye appears in the retinal arteries following the prearterial phase to fill them fully

Capillary Phase

  • Arteries and capillaries are complete filled
  • Retinal capillaries are visibly around the optic nerve head (ONH) and fovea

Venous Phase

  • Venous filling occurs after complete arterial and capillary filling
  • Divided into early (arterio-venous) and mid/late stages based on filling status, and dye concentration

Conditions Identified with FAN

  • Useful in evaluating retinal and choroidal circulation
  • Used to diagnose anomalies in areas such as RPE changes

AFA Molecule

  • Lipofuscin is stimulated by a low energy laser
  • A barrier filter isolates the RPE lipofuscin response from other signals
  • Provides a single monochromatic image with high contrast
  • Helps in detecting hypo/hyper lesions

Gonioscopy

  • Gonioscopy procedure to evaluate the anterior chamber angle
  • Assessing the structures within and around the iris, trabecular meshwork, and scleral spur

Lacrimal Test (Jones)

  • Procedure to test lacrimal duct patency in cases of excessive tear production
  • Instill fluorescein in the lower conjunctival sac, and examine the tissue for presence of fluorescein post 5 mins
  • Positive result indicates the duct is not obstructed, while negative result indicates an obstruction

Schirmer I & II Tests

  • Measures lacrimal secretion, to evaluate the integrity of the aqueous production system
  • Assesses aqueous production and tear film secretion
  • Schirmer 1: applying the strip to lower eyelid, measuring the wetted area
  • Schirmer 2: same procedure as Schirmer 1 but done on the conjunctival side and following the Schirmer 1 test (if negative), to test patency

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Description

Test your knowledge on Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT) and its applications in identifying retinal conditions. This quiz covers key concepts, potential errors in measurement, and the structural importance of various membranes. Ideal for students and professionals in ophthalmology and optometry.

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