Obstetrics and Pregnancy Quiz
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Obstetrics and Pregnancy Quiz

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Questions and Answers

What is the primary aim of exercise during pregnancy?

To stay fit.

How can pelvic floor exercises affect women during and after pregnancy?

They may reduce the risk of urinary and fecal incontinence.

What are the recommended breastfeeding practices for infants in the first two years?

Start within an hour of birth, exclusively for the first 6 months, and continue up to 2 years.

What urine components are screened during antenatal urine tests?

<p>Protein, persistent glycosuria, and nitrites.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the benefit of assessing blood pressure during pregnancy?

<p>It allows the detection of previously unrecognized chronic hypertension.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of anti-D immunoglobulin prophylaxis in pregnant women?

<p>To prevent Rh sensitization in Rh-negative women.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What screening is offered to pregnant women in the UK at their booking visit?

<p>Screening for thalassaemia.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the accuracy of ultrasound in estimating gestational age in the first trimester?

<p>± 1 week.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the signs of placental separation during delivery?

<p>Signs include apparent lengthening of the cord, a small gush of blood from the placental bed, rising of the uterine fundus above the umbilicus, and firm globular feel on palpation due to uterine contraction.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define 'presenting part' in the context of labor.

<p>The presenting part is the lower part of the fetus that is palpable during vaginal examination.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'vertex' refer to in fetal presentation?

<p>Vertex refers to the area of the fetal skull bounded by the two parietal eminences and the anterior and posterior fontanelles when the head is flexed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is 'station' defined in obstetrics?

<p>Station is the level of descent of the presenting part assessed on vaginal examination, with 0 station indicating that the lowest part of the presenting part has reached the ischial spine.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is caput succedaneum and when is it typically observed?

<p>Caput succedaneum is edema over the presenting part of the head, commonly observed in prolonged labor.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the importance of engagement during delivery?

<p>Engagement occurs when the widest diameter of the biparietal diameter (BPD) passes the pelvic brim, which is essential for proceeding with labor.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does molding of the fetal skull occur during childbirth?

<p>Molding occurs as the fetal skull changes shape to adapt to the maternal pelvis during its passage through the birth canal.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'dystocia' signify in labor?

<p>Dystocia refers to abnormal, prolonged, obstructed, difficult, or dysfunctional labor, indicating poor progress in the first or second stage.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the three main factors that influence the progress of labor?

<p>The three main factors are Power, Passage, and Passenger.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is considered an adequate strength of contractions measured by Montevideo units (MVU)?

<p>An adequate strength of contractions is greater than 200 MVU in 10 minutes.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the four types of pelvis, and which one is considered normal?

<p>The four types are gynecoid, android, anthropoid, and platypelloid; gynecoid is considered normal.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of intrauterine pressure catheters (IUPC) during labor?

<p>IUPC measures the strength or pressure of uterine contractions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

List two maternal conditions that may warrant consideration for preterm delivery.

<p>Hypertensive disorders and deteriorating maternal illness are two conditions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of assessing contraction frequency and duration during labor?

<p>Assessing contraction frequency and duration helps determine uterine efficiency and progress of labor.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are some contraindications for labor induction?

<p>Contraindications include placenta previa, severe fetal compromise, and major antepartum hemorrhage.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What treatment options are available for managing inefficient uterine action during labor?

<p>Treatment options include rehydration, artificial rupture of membranes (ARM), and IV oxytocin.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is considered a prolonged deceleration in fetal heart rate monitoring?

<p>A prolonged deceleration is defined as a deceleration that lasts more than 2 minutes.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What heart rate range denotes a reassuring overall impression in fetal monitoring?

<p>A reassuring overall impression is indicated by a baseline heart rate of 110 to 160 bpm.</p> Signup and view all the answers

List two potential causes of fetal tachycardia.

<p>Maternal fever and fetal hypoxia are two potential causes of fetal tachycardia.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What baseline variability indicates a non-reassuring fetal status?

<p>Baseline variability of less than 5 bpm for 30 to 50 minutes indicates a non-reassuring fetal status.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What complication can result from fetal heart rate bradycardia?

<p>Bradycardia can indicate serious fetal compromise or hypoxia.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a baseline heart rate over 180 bpm signify?

<p>A baseline heart rate over 180 bpm is classified as abnormal.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Name one risk factor associated with decreased baseline variability.

<p>Fetal metabolic acidosis is a risk factor associated with decreased baseline variability.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are two maternal conditions that can contribute to fetal compromise?

<p>Maternal hypotension and placental insufficiency can contribute to fetal compromise.</p> Signup and view all the answers

At what gestational age should uncomplicated monochorionic twin pregnancies be offered elective delivery?

<p>36 weeks gestation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the increased risk of continuing uncomplicated twin pregnancies beyond 38 weeks gestation?

<p>The increased risk is intrauterine fetal death.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What causes Rh incompatibility in a pregnant woman?

<p>Rh incompatibility occurs when a Rh-negative mother is exposed to Rh-positive fetal blood, leading to anti-D antibody production.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the clinical presentation of Rh isoimmunization.

<p>The presentation can vary from mild to severe fetal anemia and hyperbilirubinemia, with risks of kernicterus.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the procedure for preventing Rh incompatibility in unsensitized Rh-negative mothers?

<p>Administer Anti-D immunoglobulin at 28-32 weeks and again within 72 hours of delivery if the newborn is Rh-positive.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be conducted during a pregnant woman's first visit regarding Rh compatibility?

<p>Determine the blood group and Rh type of the mother and check the father's blood type if she is Rh-negative.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are some situations in which Rh immunoprophylaxis is indicated?

<p>Indications include early pregnancy bleeding, invasive procedures, and abdominal trauma.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can the father’s Rh status influence the risk of Rh incompatibility for the fetus?

<p>If the father is Rh-positive, there is a 50% risk of Rh-positive offspring if he is heterozygous and 100% if homozygous.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential long-term benefit of breastfeeding for children?

<p>Breastfeeding is associated with a reduced risk of obesity later in life.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is urine screening conducted during antenatal visits?

<p>Urine screening is conducted to detect renal disease, diabetes, and urinary tract infections.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the implications of dating ultrasound for pregnancies with irregular cycles?

<p>Dating ultrasound helps establish accurate gestational age, crucial for proper prenatal care.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended timeframe for exclusive breastfeeding?

<p>Exclusive breastfeeding is recommended for the first 6 months of life.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is chronic hypertension managed during pregnancy?

<p>Low-dose aspirin is recommended to reduce risks associated with chronic hypertension.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Family Origin Questionnaire (FOQ) screen for in pregnant women?

<p>The FOQ screens for thalassaemia during the booking visit.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines normal vaginal delivery (NVD)?

<p>NVD is defined as a Single, Spontaneous, Term, Viable, Vertex delivery without the use of instruments.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the accuracy of ultrasound in estimating gestational age during the second trimester?

<p>The accuracy of gestational age by ultrasound in the second trimester is ± 2 weeks.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'gravidity' refer to in obstetrics?

<p>Gravidity refers to the number of pregnancies a woman has experienced, irrespective of the outcome.</p> Signup and view all the answers

At what gestational week does fetal quickening typically occur for a primigravida?

<p>Fetal quickening typically occurs at 18-20 weeks for a primigravida.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the two methods for administering anti-D immunoglobulin to Rh-negative mothers?

<p>A single large dose at 28 weeks or two doses at 28 and 34 weeks.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the indications for performing a pelvic examination during pregnancy?

<p>Indications include excessive or offensive discharge, vaginal bleeding, cervical smear, and rupture of membranes.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does smoking affect fetal development?

<p>Smoking leads to reduced birthweight and increases the risk of miscarriage, stillbirth, and neonatal death.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does 'multiparous' mean in terms of childbirth?

<p>'Multiparous' refers to a woman who has given birth more than one time.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the term 'nullipara'?

<p>Nullipara refers to a woman who has never carried a pregnancy beyond 24 weeks.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Explain the effect of alcohol consumption during pregnancy.

<p>Alcohol consumption can lead to fetal alcohol syndrome, which causes brain damage and growth problems.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the average delivery time for triplets and quadruplets in terms of weeks?

<p>Triplets typically deliver at around 32 weeks, while quadruplets deliver at about 28 weeks.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can polyhydramnios be managed to reduce the risk of preterm labor?

<p>Management options for polyhydramnios include amnio-drainage and the use of indomethacin, which reduces fetal urine production.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are some potential outcomes of Mullerian anomalies in pregnant women?

<p>Mullerian anomalies can lead to miscarriages, preterm labor, IUGR, and breech presentations.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of testing for cervicovaginal fetal fibronectin in cases of threatened preterm labor?

<p>A negative result (⊖) allows for discharge, while a positive result (⊕) indicates admission and initiation of treatments.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the potential risks of using indomethacin for managing preterm labor?

<p>Indomethacin may cause premature closure of the ductus arteriosus, renal dysfunction, and oligohydramnios.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is magnesium sulfate used in the context of preterm labor?

<p>Magnesium sulfate is neuroprotective and decreases the risk of cerebral palsy when administered to preterm infants.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are tocolytics and what is their purpose in managing preterm labor?

<p>Tocolytics are medications that delay delivery to allow time for corticosteroids to improve neonatal outcomes.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What complications can arise from the use of beta-agonists in managing preterm labor?

<p>Beta-agonists can lead to maternal pulmonary edema and do not improve neonatal outcomes.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are three methods to investigate the causes of fetal demise?

<p>CBC, ToRCH screen, and postmortem examination can help identify the causes of fetal demise.</p> Signup and view all the answers

List two conditions requiring a cesarean section in the case of fetal demise.

<p>High risk of uterine rupture and major placenta previa are two conditions justifying a cesarean section.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the risks associated with prolonged follow-up after fetal demise?

<p>Delayed delivery can increase the risk of DIC and other complications for the mother.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can one diagnose Intrauterine Growth Restriction (IUGR)?

<p>IUGR can be diagnosed by measuring the SFH and conducting an ultrasound for fetal measurements.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What psychological support measures are recommended after delivery in cases of fetal demise?

<p>Psychological support and counseling are recommended to help parents cope with loss.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the Spalding sign in examining a fetal demise?

<p>The Spalding sign indicates overlapping of skull bones and suggests intrauterine fetal demise.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are two long-term risks associated with neonates recovering from IUGR?

<p>Neonates with IUGR have an increased risk for type 2 diabetes and hypertension later in life.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Explain the relevance of serial biometry and liquor assessments in managing IUGR.

<p>Serial biometry and liquor assessments help track fetal growth and well-being over time.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What conditions in women with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) increase their risk during pregnancy?

<p>Women with SLE who have antiphospholipid antibodies or proliferative lupus nephritis are at higher risk during pregnancy.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can lupus nephritis and preeclampsia be differentiated during pregnancy?

<p>Lupus nephritis presents with RBC casts, low C3 and C4 levels, and low leukocyte counts, while preeclampsia is associated with abnormal liver function tests.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended timing for conception post-renal transplant in women on immunosuppressive agents?

<p>Conception can be safely considered as early as 1 year post-transplant for women on stable, low doses of immunosuppressive agents.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What physiological changes occur in thyroid function during pregnancy?

<p>hCG increases fT4 levels and decreases TSH, while estrogen raises TBG, tT3, and tT4 levels.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in pregnancy?

<p>Hashimoto's thyroiditis, characterized by the presence of antithyroid peroxidase antibodies, is the most common cause of hypothyroidism during pregnancy.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What complications are associated with untreated hypothyroidism in pregnancy?

<p>Untreated hypothyroidism can lead to miscarriage, stillbirth, gestational hypertension, preeclampsia, and developmental delays.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the protocol for managing newborns of mothers with high hepatitis B infectivity?

<p>Newborns should receive passive immunoglobulin within the first 24 hours after birth and active hepatitis B vaccine if the mother has low infectivity.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the primary antihypertensive agents recommended during pregnancy?

<p>Methyldopa, labetalol, and calcium channel blockers are the preferred antihypertensive agents during pregnancy.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the difference between gravidity and parity in pregnancy terminology?

<p>Gravidity refers to the number of pregnancies a woman has had, while parity refers to the number of deliveries after 24 weeks gestation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Explain fetal quickening and its significance in pregnancy.

<p>Fetal quickening is the first movement of the fetus sensed by the mother, occurring at 18-20 weeks for primigravida and 16-18 weeks for multipara. It helps in dating the pregnancy.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are some indications and contraindications for pelvic examinations during pregnancy?

<p>Indications include excessive discharge, vaginal bleeding, and cervical smears; contraindications include known placenta previa and undetermined vaginal bleeding.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Discuss the impacts of alcohol consumption during pregnancy.

<p>Alcohol can lead to fetal alcohol syndrome, resulting in brain damage and growth problems in the child.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes a normal vaginal delivery (NVD) according to SSTVV?

<p>NVD is characterized by being Single, Spontaneous, Term, Viable, and Vertex.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define the terms nulligravida and grand multipara in obstetrics.

<p>Nulligravida is a woman who has never been pregnant, while grand multipara refers to a woman who has given birth three or more times.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect does smoking have on fetal health during pregnancy?

<p>Smoking causes a reduction in birthweight and increases the risks of miscarriage, stillbirth, and neonatal death.</p> Signup and view all the answers

At what point in gestation is the fetus typically evaluated for viability through ultrasound?

<p>Viability is often evaluated through ultrasound typically around 24 weeks gestation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one immediate benefit of initiating breastfeeding within the first hour after birth?

<p>It protects against diarrhoea and common childhood illnesses.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is monitoring blood pressure crucial for pregnant women with chronic hypertension?

<p>It helps in detecting pre-eclampsia and reduces perinatal mortality.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of conducting a glucose tolerance test in women with a history of gestational diabetes?

<p>It allows for early detection and management of diabetes in the first trimester.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary rationale for performing routine urine tests during antenatal care?

<p>To screen for conditions like renal disease, diabetes, and urinary tract infections.</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what scenario might dating ultrasound provide greater benefits than relying solely on the last menstrual period (LMP)?

<p>In cases of irregular cycles or uncertain LMP dates.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the accuracy of ultrasound in determining gestational age change throughout pregnancy?

<p>It is ± 1 week in the first trimester, ± 2 weeks in the second, and ± 3 weeks in the third.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does antenatal anti-D immunoglobulin prophylaxis play for Rh-negative mothers?

<p>It prevents Rh isoimmunization in future pregnancies.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the implications of screening for thalassaemia using the Family Origin Questionnaire?

<p>It identifies women at risk of carrying thalassaemia, leading to informed reproductive choices.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the distinguishing feature of a 'threatened' miscarriage compared to 'inevitable' miscarriage?

<p>'Threatened' miscarriage involves bleeding and possibly pain, but the cervix remains closed and the fetus may still survive. In contrast, 'inevitable' miscarriage is characterized by a dilated cervix, indicating that the pregnancy cannot continue.</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which situation might a therapeutic abortion be legally justified?

<p>A therapeutic abortion may be legally justified in cases where the mother's health is at risk, such as with valvular heart disease or when the fetus is incompatible with life.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What clinical sign may indicate a missed miscarriage during a follow-up ultrasound?

<p>The absence of fetal heart sounds on ultrasound may indicate a missed miscarriage.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key management step for a patient diagnosed with a threatened miscarriage?

<p>Key management for a threatened miscarriage includes providing analgesia, rest, and possibly progesterone supplementation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What differentiates 'incomplete' miscarriage from 'complete' miscarriage?

<p>'Incomplete' miscarriage involves some fetal or placental tissue being expelled, while 'complete' miscarriage means that the uterus is empty after all contents have been expelled.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the leading causes of maternal deaths in developing countries?

<p>PPH, eclampsia, and sepsis are the leading causes of maternal deaths in developing countries.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What symptoms characterize a septic miscarriage, and what may this condition lead to?

<p>Septic miscarriage symptoms include abdominal pain, fever, and a toxic appearance, indicating an infection from retained products. It can lead to severe systemic complications requiring urgent medical intervention.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of serum β-hCG levels in monitoring a threatened miscarriage?

<p>Falling serum β-hCG levels are a significant indicator of unfavorable outcomes in threatened miscarriages, suggesting that the pregnancy may not be viable.</p> Signup and view all the answers

List two major causes of perinatal and neonatal mortality.

<p>Placental insufficiency and respiratory distress syndrome are two major causes of perinatal and neonatal mortality.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can a missed miscarriage be diagnosed during initial antenatal assessments?

<p>A missed miscarriage may be diagnosed accidentally during an ultrasound if a patient is unaware of any pregnancy loss.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is antepartum hemorrhage (APH), and what are its potential causes?

<p>Antepartum hemorrhage (APH) is bleeding from the genital tract after 24 weeks of gestation. Causes can include placenta previa, abruption placenta, and local causes like cervical dysplasia.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Explain the classification of placenta previa based on its proximity to the internal os.

<p>Placenta previa is classified into four grades: Grade I (low lying), Grade II (marginal), Grade III (partial), and Grade IV (complete).</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does maternal age and parity relate to the risk of maternal death?

<p>Maternal death rates rise with increasing maternal age and parity.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Identify one fetal condition and one preterm condition that can lead to neonatal mortality.

<p>Fetal condition: severe congenital malformations; Preterm condition: respiratory distress syndrome.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What impact does cervical erosion have in the context of antepartum hemorrhage?

<p>Cervical erosion can be a local cause of antepartum hemorrhage, leading to complications that may require intervention.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Mention one risk factor for placenta previa and its relevance.

<p>Multiparity is a risk factor for placenta previa, making it relevant in assessing patient history for prenatal care.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the normal hemoglobin (Hb) level during the 1st trimester of pregnancy?

<blockquote> <p>11</p> </blockquote> Signup and view all the answers

What two most common factors cause anemia during pregnancy and puerperium?

<p>Iron deficiency and acute blood loss</p> Signup and view all the answers

List two symptoms of iron deficiency anemia (IDA).

<p>Difficulty concentrating and Pica</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the acceptable hemoglobin levels for postpartum women, immediately after and after puerperium?

<blockquote> <p>10 the first postpartum week and &gt; 11 after puerperium</p> </blockquote> Signup and view all the answers

When should a pregnant patient ideally have a complete blood count (CBC) test done during gestation?

<p>At booking visit (9-12 weeks) and at 28 weeks</p> Signup and view all the answers

What two management options are available for correcting iron deficiency anemia (IDA)?

<p>Iron supplements (oral and parenteral) and blood transfusion</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the indication for a blood transfusion concerning hemoglobin (Hb) levels during pregnancy?

<p>Hb of 2.5 (&gt;70% preterm labour and &gt;40% experience preeclampsia)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most effective form of contraception recommended during the postpartum period?

<p>Copper IUD</p> Signup and view all the answers

Study Notes

General Exercise Advice

  • Aim of exercise: Staying fit during pregnancy
  • Pelvic floor exercises: Help reduce urinary and fecal incontinence during pregnancy and after birth

Breastfeeding Advice

  • Benefits:
    • Protects against diarrhea and common childhood illnesses
    • Reduces the risk of obesity later in life
    • Associated with higher IQ in children
  • Recommended Schedule:
    • Start breastfeeding within one hour of birth
    • Exclusive breastfeeding for the first six months
    • Continue breastfeeding beyond six months, ideally up to two years

Antenatal Urine Tests

  • Screening for:
    • Protein: Detects renal disease or pre-eclampsia
    • Persistent glycosuria: Detects pre-existing diabetes or gestational diabetes (GDM)
    • Nitrites: Detects urinary tract infections

Blood Pressure Assessment

  • Purpose: Detect unrecognized chronic hypertension
  • Low-dose aspirin: Recommended for women with chronic hypertension to reduce pre-eclampsia and perinatal mortality

Antenatal Anti-D Immunoglobulin Prophylaxis

  • Administration: Single large dose at 28 weeks or two doses at 28 and 34 weeks

GDM Follow-Up

  • Women with previous GDM: Offered a glucose tolerance test or random blood glucose test in the first trimester

Thalassaemia Screening

  • Offered to all pregnant women during the booking visit
  • Screening method: Family Origin Questionnaire (FOQ) and/or FBC results

Dating Ultrasound (US)

  • Purpose: Define gestational age (GA) and estimated delivery date (EDD)
  • Accuracy:
    • T1 (11+3 - 13+6 weeks): ± 1 week, based on crown-rump length (CRL)
    • T2 (14 - 20 weeks): ± 2 weeks, based on head circumference (HC)
    • 20 weeks: ± 3 weeks, based on femoral length (FL)

  • Benefits:
    • Accurate dating for irregular cycles or uncertain last menstrual period (LMP)
    • Decreased incidence of induction of labor (IOL) for prolonged pregnancy
    • Optimizes serum screening for fetal abnormalities
    • Detection of multiple pregnancies and chorionicity

Placental Separation

  • Signs:
    • Apparent lengthening of the cord
    • Small gush of blood from the placental bed
    • Rising of uterine fundus above the umbilicus
    • Uterine contraction resulting in a firm globular feel on palpation

Presentation and Lie

  • Presenting part: The lower part of the fetus palpable on vaginal examination
  • Vertex presentation: Normal presentation in cephalic presentation
  • Mal-presentation: Any other presentation besides vertex, including breech, cord, brow, face, or compound presentation
  • Lie: Relationship between the longitudinal axis of the fetus and the mother's uterus, described as longitudinal, oblique, or transverse

Station

  • Level of descent of the presenting part during vaginal examination
  • 0 station: When the lowest part of the presenting part reaches the ischial spine
  • Measured in centimeters above or below the ischial spine

Engagement

  • Widest diameter of the presenting part passing the pelvic brim
  • Assessed on abdominal examination

Amniotomy

  • Artificial rupture of membranes
  • May occur after spontaneous labor or as part of labor augmentation

Attitude

  • Relationship of different fetal parts to each other
  • Usually flexion

Caput Succedaneum

  • Edema over the presenting part of the head
  • Common in prolonged labor

Moulding

  • Change in fetal skull shape to adapt to the maternal pelvis during passage
  • Sutures allow movement between bones, enabling parietal bones to slide over frontal and occipital bones
  • Severe molding may indicate cephalo-pelvic disproportion (CPD)

Position

  • Refers to the position of the fetal occiput in relation to the maternal pelvis
  • Dominator: Occiput for cephalic presentation, mentum for face presentation, and sacrum for breech presentation
  • OA (occipito-anterior): Considered "normal"

Abnormal Labour

  • Synonyms: Abnormal, Prolonged, Obstructed, Difficult, Dysfunctional labour, Dystocia
  • Characterized by:
    • Poor progress in the first or second stage of labor
    • Fetal compromise
    • Malpresentation or malposition
    • Uterine scar
    • Induced or precipitate labor
  • Indicates a problem in one of the "3 Ps":
    • Power (uterine contractions)
    • Passage (uterus, cervix, and bony pelvis)
    • Passenger (fetus)

Power

  • Inefficient Uterine Action: Common cause of poor labor progress, more frequent in primiparas and older women
  • Characterized by: Weak and infrequent contractions
  • Assessment:
    • Subjective: History
    • Objective:
      • Examination (Palpation)
      • External uterine tocography (Tocodynamometer): Measures frequency and duration of contractions
      • Intrauterine pressure catheters (IUPC): Measures strength or pressure but rarely used
  • Normal contractions: 4-5 contractions, with moderate strength (20-40 mmHg) and sufficient duration
  • Montevideo Units (MVU)
    • Measure collective peak strength of contractions (mmHg) over 10 minutes
    • Adequate MVU: >200
    • Optimal strength for cervical dilation: 50-60 mmHg

Treatment of Inefficient Uterine Action

  • Rehydration
  • Artificial rupture of membranes (ARM)
  • Intravenous oxytocin (also treats irregular contractions in multiple pregnancies)

Passage

  • Abnormal Pelvis: Only gynecoid is normal
    • Pelvic types: Gynecoid, android, anthropoid, platypelloid
    • Gynecoid: Normal type
    • Other types: Can lead to obstructed labor
  • Abnormal pelvis shape caused by: Rickets, osteomalacia, tuberculosis, tumors of bones, childhood poliomyelitis, previous accidents, developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH), congenital deformity of the sacrum or coccyx, kyphosis, and scoliosis
  • Contracted inlet: AP diameter < 41 cm, or twins greater than 38 weeks

Indications for Induction of Labor (IOL)

  • Premature rupture of membranes (PROM) at term, or at 34-37 weeks with additional factors
  • Hypertensive disorders, especially pre-eclampsia (PET)
  • Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
  • Intrauterine fetal demise (IUFD) or history of IUFD
  • Diabetes mellitus and macrosomia
  • Deteriorating maternal illness
  • Unexplained antepartum hemorrhage (APH)
  • Cholestasis
  • Maternal isoimmunization
  • Social reasons

Contraindications for IOL

  • Placenta previa
  • Severe fetal compromise
  • Deteriorating maternal condition with major APH
  • PET or cardiac disease may favor Cesarean section (C/S)
  • Breech presentation (relative contraindication)
  • Previous C/S (inform patient about risk of uterine rupture)
  • Preterm pregnancy is not an absolute contraindication

Methods for IOL

  • Membrane sweep: Weekly from 40 weeks, excluding placenta previa
  • Prostaglandin analogues
  • Oxytocin

Fetal Distress

  • Definition:
    • Fetuses experience stress during labor due to uterine contractions reducing fetal perfusion.
    • Pathological fetal distress: Significant reduction in fetal well-being
  • Prolonged deceleration: Deceleration lasting longer than 2 minutes
    • Non-reassuring: 2-3 minutes
    • Abnormal: Longer than 3 minutes
  • Overall impression: Based on assessment of all CTG aspects, categorized as reassuring, suspicious or abnormal
    • Reassuring: Normal baseline heart rate, variability, and decelerations
    • Non-reassuring: Abnormal baseline heart rate, variability, or decelerations, but not severe enough to be considered abnormal
    • Abnormal: Severe abnormalities in baseline heart rate, variability, or decelerations

Causes of Fetal Compromise

  • Placental insufficiency
  • Placental abruption
  • Uterine hyperstimulation
  • Maternal hypotension
  • Cord compression

Causes of Fetal Tachycardia (>160 bpm)

  • Maternal fever
  • Fetal hypoxia
  • Fetal anemia
  • Amnionitis
  • Fetal tachyarrhythmia (supraventricular tachycardia, SVT, 200-240 bpm)
  • Fetal heart failure
  • Drugs (beta-sympathomimetic)

Causes of Fetal Bradycardia (< 110 bpm)

  • Heart block (little or no variability)
  • Occiput posterior or transverse position
  • Serious fetal compromise
  • Hypoxia

Causes of Decreased Baseline Variability

  • Fetal metabolic acidosis
  • Pre-existing neurologic abnormality
  • CNS depressants
  • Fetal sleep cycles

Causes of Preterm Labor (PTL)

  • Chromosomal abnormalities (trisomies), congenital anomalies
  • Infections: Including non-recurring E coli, Group B streptococcus (GBS), both of which can induce preterm labor
  • Diabetes mellitus, extreme maternal age (over 40), obesity, obstetric cholestasis
  • Nuchal cord, abnormal insertion of cord to placenta
  • Thrombophilias: Increased risk of pre-eclampsia, IUGR
  • Maternal BMI > 30
  • Placental complications
  • Obstetric cholestasis: Pruritis (itching) without rash after 24 weeks, plus abnormal liver function tests that improve after delivery

Time of Delivery

  • Uncomplicated monochorionic twin pregnancies: Elective delivery at 36 weeks after a course of antenatal corticosteroids
  • Dichorionic twin pregnancies: Delivery at 37 weeks
  • Continuing uncomplicated twin pregnancies beyond 38 weeks: Increased risk of intrauterine fetal death

Rh Incompatibility and Hydrops

  • Pathophysiology:
    • Rh-negative mother exposed to Rh+ fetal blood (D antigen)
    • Immune system perceives D antigen as foreign
    • Production of anti-D antibodies
    • Antibodies cross the placenta, bind to fetal erythrocytes, and cause hemolysis
  • Clinical presentation of Rh isoimmunization:
    • Varies from mild to severe hemolysis
    • In utero: Bilirubin removed by placenta, fetal anemia, risk of heart failure (hydrops fetalis)
    • After delivery: Varying degrees of anemia and hyperbilirubinemia, risk of kernicterus

Prevention of Rh Incompatibility

  • Identify blood group and Rh status in the first antenatal visit:
    • Rh+ mother: No concern
    • Rh- mother: Assess partner's Rh status
      • Rh- partner: No concern
      • Rh+ partner: Potential for Rh+ fetus
  • If mother is unsensitized (negative indirect Coombs test):
    • Anti-D (Rh immunoglobulin) at 28-32 weeks or two low doses at 28 and 34 weeks
    • If neonate is Rh+, administer another dose of anti-D to the mother within 72 hours of delivery (up to 9 days)
  • Rh Ig immunoprophylaxis: Administered if there is a risk of feto-maternal hemorrhage:
    • Early pregnancy bleeding (miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, gestational trophoblastic disease)
    • APH
    • External cephalic version (ECV)
    • Invasive procedures (chorionic villus sampling, CVS)
    • Abdominal trauma
  • For miscarriages: Give anti-D if GA is > 9-12 weeks. Even at 8 weeks if severe or recurrent bleeding occurs.

Pregnancy Terms

  • Normal pregnancy delivery occurs between 37 and 42 weeks.
  • Pre-term delivery occurs before 37 weeks.
  • Pregnancy is typically calculated from the last menstrual period (LMP) which totals 40 weeks.
  • From the point of conception, pregnancy is only 38 weeks.

Parity and Gravidity

  • Gravidity refers to the number of pregnancies a woman has had regardless of the outcome.
  • A woman is considered multigravida if she has been pregnant more than once.
  • Parity refers to the number of deliveries after 24 weeks gestation, regardless of whether the baby was born alive or dead.
  • Nullipara refers to a woman who has never carried a pregnancy beyond 24 weeks.
  • Primipara refers to a woman who has given birth once before.
  • Multiparous refers to a woman who has given birth more than once.
  • Grand multipara refers to a woman who has given birth 3 or more times.

Fetal Development

  • Fetal quickening refers to the first movement of the fetus sensed by the mother.
  • Fetal quickening typically occurs at 18-20 weeks in a first-time pregnancy, and 16-18 weeks in subsequent pregnancies.

Normal Vaginal Delivery

  • NVD (Normal Vaginal Delivery) refers to a vaginal delivery that is single, spontaneous, term, viable in a vertex presentation.
  • Episiotomy can be considered part of a NVD.

Pelvic Examinations

  • Indications for pelvic examinations include:
    • Excessive or offensive discharge
    • Vaginal bleeding
    • Cervical smear
    • Rupture of membranes (ROM)
  • Contraindications to digital examination include:
    • Known case of placenta praevia
    • Vaginal bleeding when the placental site is unknown and the presenting part unengaged
    • PROM
    • Virgin females

Effects of Alcohol & Smoking

  • Smoking causes a reduction in birthweight and increases the risk of miscarriage, stillbirth, and neonatal death.
  • Alcohol can lead to fetal alcohol syndrome, causing brain damage and growth problems.

Antenatal Care

  • Antenatal care typically includes:
    • Controlling weight gain in pregnancy
    • General exercise advice, focusing on pelvic floor exercises
    • Breastfeeding advice, encouraging early breastfeeding, and exclusive breastfeeding for the first 6 months.
    • Antenatal urine tests, including checking for protein, glucose, nitrites.
    • Blood pressure assessment.
    • Anti-D immunoglobulin prophylaxis for Rh-negative women.
    • Glucose tolerance tests for women with a history of GDM.
    • Screening for thalassaemia using the Family Origin Questionnaire (FOQ)

Benefits of Dating Ultrasound

  • Dating ultrasound is used to determine gestational age (GA) and estimated due date (EDD).
  • There should not be a difference of more than 2 weeks between the calculated GA and the ultrasound GA.
  • Ultrasound is accurate within:
    • ± 1 week in the first trimester (11+3 - 13+6 weeks)
    • ± 2 weeks in the second trimester (14 - 20 weeks)
    • ± 3 weeks in the third trimester (after 20 weeks)

Ultrasound Applications

  • Ultrasound can:
    • Provide an accurate estimate of GA
    • Detect multiple pregnancies and chorionicity
    • Detect fetal abnormalities.

Multiple Pregnancies

  • The risk of premature delivery increases with each additional fetus.
  • Triplets typically deliver around 32 weeks.
  • Quadruplets typically deliver around 28 weeks.

Polyhydramnios

  • Can be managed with amnio-drainage, but this can lead to premature labor and rupture of membranes.
  • Indomethacin can be used to reduce fetal urine production.
  • Monitor ductus arteriosus flow as indomethacin may cause premature closure.

Mullerian Anomalies

  • Result from abnormal embryonic fusion and canalization of müllerian ducts.
  • Can lead to abnormal uterine cavity shapes.
  • May increase the risk of miscarriage, premature rupture of membranes, preterm labor, intrauterine growth restriction, breech presentation, and cesarean section.

Placenta Abruption

  • Placenta abruption can cause bleeding, which releases thrombin and stimulates myometrial contractions leading to premature labor.

Preterm Labor (PTL)

  • Management of threatened preterm labor includes:
    • Testing for cervicovaginal fetal fibronectin (fFN):
      • Negative: discharge home.
      • Positive: admission and start treatments
    • Treatments:
      • Progesterone
      • Corticosteroids
      • Tocolytics
      • Antibiotics (erythromycin)

Tocolytic Agents

  • Tocolytic agents delay delivery and include:
    • OTR-A (Atosiban)
    • MgSO4
    • CCB (Nifedipine)
    • NSAID (Indomethacin)
    • β2 agonists (Ritodrine, Salbutamol, Terbutaline)

Side Effects of Tocolytic Agents

  • Atosiban has the fewest side effects and best neonatal outcomes.
  • β2 agonists have the most side effects and worst neonatal outcomes.
  • CCB have intermediate side effects and neonatal outcomes.

Fetal Death

  • Fetal death can be confirmed by:
    • Decreased fetal movement
    • Lack of pregnancy progression
    • Absent fetal heart rate
    • US confirmation
    • Physical signs of fetal death (skin edema, hydrops, Spalding sign)

Fetal Death Investigation

  • Investigations include:
    • Excluding pulmonary embolism, abruption, DIC
    • CBC, BG/Rh, Kleihauer & Coombs test
    • ANA, APA screen
    • ToRCH screen
    • RBS, A1C, Bile salt
    • Baby examination
    • Postmortem exam

Treatment of Stillbirth

  • Up to 90% of stillbirths deliver spontaneously within 2 weeks.
  • Vaginal delivery with adequate analgesia is the preferred option.
  • Cesarean section is appropriate in high risk scenarios.

Intrauterine Growth Restriction (IUGR)

  • Diagnosis:
    • Determine GA early
    • Monitor SFH
    • Ultrasound to evaluate fetal growth and amniotic fluid volume
    • Biophysical profile (BPP)
    • Doppler umbilical blood flow

Complications of IUGR

  • IUGR can lead to:
    • Fetal and neonatal death
    • Prematurity
    • Fetal compromise in labor
    • Neonatal morbidity
    • Induce labor
    • Cesarean section

Neonatal Complications of IUGR

  • IUGR can result in:
    • Meconium aspiration
    • Asphyxia
    • Polycythemia
    • Hypoglycemia
    • Mental retardation
    • Increased risk of perinatal morbidity and mortality

IUGR and Long-Term Health

  • Infants with IUGR are at increased risk of:
    • Impaired neurodevelopment
    • Type 2 diabetes
    • Hypertension in adulthood.

Lupus Nephritis

  • Women with SLE are at high risk of lupus nephritis, particularly women with antiphospholipid antibodies and proliferative lupus nephritis.
  • Immunosuppressive therapy is used to manage lupus flares.

Renal Transplant and Pregnancy

  • Women with a renal transplant are at increased risk of:
    • Low birth weight
    • Preterm delivery
    • Ectopic pregnancy

Thyroid in Pregnancy

  • Physiological changes include:
    • Increased hCG leading to increased fT4 and decreased TSH.
    • Increased E2 leading to increased TBG.
    • Thyroid hormone is transferred to the fetus.

Hypothyroidism

  • Most common cause: Hashimoto's thyroiditis.
  • Complications:
    • Pregnancy loss
    • Abruption
    • Gestational hypertension/preeclampsia
    • Preterm labor
    • Developmental delay

Hepatitis B in Pregnancy

  • Management:
    • Passive immunoglobulin for newborns of mothers with high infectivity.
    • Active hepatitis B vaccine for newborns of mothers with low infectivity.

Pregnancy Dates

  • Normal delivery occurs between 37 and 42 weeks
  • Pregnancy is considered full-term at 40 weeks, which is calculated from the last menstrual period (LMP)
  • Pregnancy from the point of conception is 38 weeks

Gravidity and Parity

  • Gravidity refers to the number of pregnancies a woman has had, regardless of outcome
  • Parity refers to the number of deliveries after 24 weeks gestation, regardless of whether the baby was born alive or dead
  • Abortion refers to pregnancies that ended before 24 weeks, including ectopic and molar pregnancies
  • A nulligravida is a woman who has never been pregnant
  • A primigravida is a woman pregnant for the first time
  • A multigravida is a woman pregnant more than once
  • A nullipara is a woman who has never carried a pregnancy beyond 24 weeks
  • A primipara is a woman who has given birth once before
  • A multiparous woman has given birth more than once
  • A grand multipara is a woman who has given birth 3 or more times

Fetal Quickening

  • Fetal quickening is the first fetal movement felt by the mother
  • It occurs around 18-20 weeks in primigravidas and 16-18 weeks in multiparas

Normal Vaginal Delivery (NVD)

  • NVD refers to a single, spontaneous, term, viable, and vertex delivery without the use of instruments
  • Episiotomy is considered normal vaginal delivery but perineal tears are not

Pelvic Examinations

  • Indications for pelvic examinations include excessive or offensive discharge, vaginal bleeding in the absence of placenta praevia, cervical smear, and rupture of membranes
  • Contraindications to digital examination include known placenta praevia, vaginal bleeding when the placental site is unknown and the presenting part unengaged, pre-mature rupture of membranes, and virgin females

Alcohol and Smoking Effects on the Fetus

  • Smoking during pregnancy can reduce birth weight, increase the risk of miscarriage, stillbirth and neonatal death
  • Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can cause fetal alcohol syndrome, leading to brain damage and growth problems

Antenatal Care

  • Antenatal care is the medical care provided to pregnant women during pregnancy
  • It includes regular checkups, monitoring weight gain, and screening for potential complications
  • The goals of exercise during pregnancy include staying fit and reducing the risk of urinary and fecal incontinence
  • Breastfeeding offers protection against diarrhea, common childhood illnesses like pneumonia, and reduces the risk of obesity later in life
  • Breastfeeding is associated with higher intelligence quotient (IQ) in children
  • Start breastfeeding within an hour of birth, exclusively breastfeed for the first 6 months and continue breastfeeding for at least 2 years
  • Antenatal urine tests screen for protein, persistent glycosuria, nitrites
  • Blood pressure assessment during antenatal care allows detection of chronic hypertension
  • Antenatal anti-D immunoglobulin prophylaxis is given at 28 and 34 weeks to prevent Rh incompatibility
  • Women with previous gestational diabetes should be offered a glucose tolerance test in the first trimester
  • Screening for thalassaemia is offered to all pregnant women at the booking visit

Dating Ultrasound (US)

  • Dating US is used to determine gestational age and estimated date of delivery (EDD)
  • US is used to measure crown-rump length (CRL) between 11+3 and 13+6 weeks, head circumference (HC) between 14 and 20 weeks, and femoral length (FL) after 20 weeks
  • The accuracy of gestational age determined by US is ± 1 week in T1, ± 2 week in T2, and ± 3 week in T3
  • Benefits of dating US: accurate dating for women with irregular cycles, decreased incidence of induction of labor for prolonged pregnancies, maximized potential for serum screening, detection of multiple pregnancies

Maternal Mortality

  • Most maternal deaths occur within the first week after delivery
  • Death rates rise with parity and maternal age
  • PPH, eclampsia, and sepsis are leading causes of maternal deaths

Perinatal and Neonatal Mortality

  • Fetal causes of perinatal and neonatal mortality include placental insufficiency, intrauterine infection, severe congenital malformations, umbilical cord accident, abruptio placentae, and hydrops fetalis
  • Preterm causes of perinatal and neonatal mortality include severe immaturity, respiratory distress syndrome, intraventricular hemorrhage, congenital anomalies, infection, necrotizing enterocolitis, and bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)
  • Full term causes of perinatal and neonatal mortality include congenital anomalies, birth asphyxia, trauma, infection, meconium aspiration pneumonia, and persistent pulmonary hypertension (PPHN)

Antepartum Haemorrhage (APH)

  • APH refers to bleeding from the genital tract after 24 completed weeks of gestation and before the onset of labor
  • Causes of APH include placenta praevia, abruption placentae, local causes (cervical erosion, polyp, ectropion, cancer, genital tract infection, vaginal varicosities), blood dyscrasias, and undetermined causes
  • Vasa praevia is a rare fetal cause of APH
  • Placenta praevia occurs when the placenta is implanted wholly or partially on the lower segment of the uterus
  • Placenta praevia risk factors include multiparity, multiple pregnancy, increasing maternal age, C-section or uterine surgery, D&C, IVF, and smoking
  • There are four grades of placenta praevia based on the location of the placenta in relation to the internal os
  • Grades I and II are considered minor, while Grades III and IV are considered major
  • Associated conditions with placenta praevia include abnormal fetal lie, malpresentation, pre-mature rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), operative delivery, and morbidly adherent placenta (accreta)
  • Migration of the placenta may occur as the lower uterine segment develops
  • Types of spontaneous abortion include threatened, inevitable, missed, incomplete, complete, and septic

Anemia

  • Normal Hb levels during pregnancy are >11 in T1, >10.5 in T2 and T3, >10 postpartum, and >11 after puerperium
  • The most common causes of anemia during pregnancy and the puerperium are iron deficiency and acute blood loss
  • Causes of anemia are categorized according to MCV (mean corpuscular volume)
  • Microcytic anemia is characterized by small red blood cells and is commonly caused by iron deficiency
  • Megaloblastic anemias, liver disease, alcohol consumption, hemoglobinopathies, metabolic disorders, marrow disorders, and increased destruction can also lead to anemia
  • Anemia during pregnancy can have various effects on both the mother and the baby
  • Maternal effects include pre-eclampsia, preterm labor, heart failure, PPH, shock, cardiac arrest, puerperal sepsis, poor lactation, thromboembolism, and poor wound healing
  • Fetal effects of anemia include low birth weight, intrauterine growth restriction, and anemia in infancy
  • Symptoms of iron deficiency anemia include difficulty concentrating, pica, glossitis, cheilosis, koilonychia, and dysphagia
  • CBC (complete blood count) should be performed at the booking visit (9-12 weeks), 28 weeks, 32 weeks, and in cases of multiple pregnancy
  • Anemia during pregnancy can be managed with iron supplements (oral and parenteral) and blood transfusions
  • Blood transfusion is indicated if Hb is <7
  • Diabetic nephropathy may develop worsening proteinuria and hypertension

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Test your knowledge on key topics related to obstetrics and pregnancy, including exercise, ultrasound accuracy, and breastfeeding practices. This quiz covers essential aspects of prenatal care and delivery that every expecting parent should be aware of.

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