Adjunts to Anesthesia
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Questions and Answers

What effect do antacids have on the absorption of digoxin?

  • They enhance its absorption.
  • They slow down its absorption. (correct)
  • They eliminate it completely.
  • They have no effect on its absorption.
  • Which of the following conditions is NOT treated by metoclopramide?

  • Prophylaxis for aspiration pneumonia
  • Severe obstipation (correct)
  • Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
  • Diabetic gastroparesis
  • What mechanism does metoclopramide use to increase lower esophageal sphincter tone?

  • Facilitating acetylcholine transmission. (correct)
  • Inhibit gastric acid secretion.
  • Antagonism of serotonin receptors.
  • Inhibition of acetylcholine breakdown.
  • What is a common side effect from rapid intravenous injection of metoclopramide?

    <p>Abdominal cramping</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to the elimination rate of phenobarbital when antacids are used?

    <p>It is quickened.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which patient condition should metoclopramide be avoided in due to its side effects?

    <p>Parkinson disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What kind of effects does metoclopramide produce through its action on dopamine receptors?

    <p>Antiemetic effects</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the possible effects of prolonged treatment with metoclopramide?

    <p>Tardive dyskinesia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect do antimuscarinic drugs have on metoclopramide?

    <p>Block the GI effects of metoclopramide</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition can proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) help treat more rapidly than H2-receptor blockers?

    <p>Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism of action of proton pump inhibitors?

    <p>Inhibit the secretion of hydrogen ions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a potential adverse effect of proton pump inhibitors?

    <p>Increased risk of pneumonia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does metoclopramide interact with cimetidine?

    <p>Inhibits absorption of cimetidine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is NOT a clinical use for proton pump inhibitors?

    <p>Chronic fatigue syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which situation should metoclopramide dosage be decreased?

    <p>In patients with kidney dysfunction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug can have its clearance decreased by proton pump inhibitors?

    <p>Warfarin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of action of 5-HT3-receptor antagonists?

    <p>They inhibit serotonin 5-HT3 receptors.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following agents is known for having an extended duration of action compared to others?

    <p>Palonosetron</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which risk factor is associated with a higher incidence of postdischarge nausea and vomiting (PDNV)?

    <p>Use of opioids in the PACU</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most commonly reported side effect of 5-HT3-receptor antagonists?

    <p>Headache</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement is true regarding the QT interval effect of 5-HT3-receptor antagonists?

    <p>Dolasetron may cause a slight prolongation of the QT interval.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about 5-HT3-receptor antagonists is NOT accurate?

    <p>They cause sedation in most patients.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In patients taking antiarrhythmic drugs, which consideration is important when prescribing 5-HT3-receptor antagonists?

    <p>Increased risk of QT interval prolongation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do 5-HT3 receptors play in vomiting?

    <p>They contribute to the initiation of the vomiting reflex.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Adjuncts to Anesthesia

    • Diphenhydramine competitively blocks H₁ receptors, has antimuscarinic and antiserotonergic activity.
    • H₂ blockers decrease perioperative risk of aspiration pneumonia by decreasing gastric fluid volume and raising pH.
    • Metoclopramide increases lower esophageal sphincter tone, speeds gastric emptying, and lowers gastric fluid volume.
    • Ondansetron, granisetron, tropisetron, and dolasetron block serotonin 5-HT3 receptors, with minimal effect on dopamine receptors.
    • Ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that inhibits prostaglandin synthesis, providing analgesia.
    • Clonidine is an antihypertensive agent used in anesthesia for epidural, caudal, and peripheral nerve block, and pain management.
    • Dexmedetomidine is a selective a₂-agonist with sedative properties.
    • Doxapram stimulates carotid chemoreceptors stimulating hypoxic drive, increasing tidal volume.
    • Naloxone reverses opioid agonist activity.
    • Flumazenil reverses benzodiazepine sedation.
    • Aspiration of gastric contents is a rare, potentially fatal event in anesthesia. Factors increasing the risk include full stomach, intestinal obstruction, hiatal hernia, obesity, pregnancy.
    • Many drugs are used perioperatively to protect against aspiration, nausea, vomiting, or respiratory depression.

    Aspiration

    • Aspiration of gastric contents can complicate anesthesia, often resulting in aspiration pneumonia.
    • Risk factors include a "full" stomach, intestinal obstruction, hiatal hernia, obesity, pregnancy, and inadequate anesthesia depth.
    • Many approaches aim to reduce the risk, such as Sellick maneuver, rapid sequence induction.
    • Anesthetized patients are at risk of passive aspiration due to reduced lower esophageal sphincter tone and gag reflex suppression.

    Histamine-Receptor Antagonists

    • Histamine is found in the central nervous system, gastric mucosa and other peripheral tissues.
    • It is synthesized from the amino acid histidine.
    • Histamine plays a role in HCl acid secretion in the stomach
    • Histamine release can be stimulated by chemical, mechanical or immunological stimulation.
    • H₁ receptors activate phospholipase C, while H₂ receptors increase intracellular cyclic adenosine monophosphate.
    • H₃ receptors are primarily located on histamine-secreting cells and mediate negative feedback.
    • H₁-receptor antagonists, including diphenhydramine, have multiple therapeutic uses, including allergic reactions, upper respiratory tract infections, vertigo, nausea, sedation, cough suppression, and dyskinesias..

    H₂-Receptor Antagonists

    • H₂-receptors, found in parietal cells, increase gastric acid secretion.
    • H₂-receptor antagonists inhibit histamine binding to H₂ receptors, reducing gastric acid output.
    • Cimetidine, famotidine, nizatidine, and ranitidine are H₂-receptor antagonists.
    • These agents are used to treat peptic ulcers, hypersecretory states, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), and prevent aspiration pneumonia perioperatively.

    Proton Pump Inhibitors

    • PPIs inhibit the proton pump of parietal cells, decreasing gastric hydrogen ion secretion.
    • Omeprazole, lansoprazole, rabeprazole, esomeprazole, and pantoprazole are examples.
    • PPIs are used for peptic ulcer disease, GERD, and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome.
    • Potential side effects include hepatotoxicity, interstitial nephritis, and interactions with other drugs.

    Post Operative Nausea & Vomiting (PONV)

    • PONV occurs in approximately 30-80% of patients.
    • Risk factors include female gender, history of PONV/motion sickness, nonsmoker, use of opioids and duration of surgery
    • Risk factors for children include age, surgery > 30 minutes, and history of PONV.
    • Prophylactic antiemetics, including 5-HT3 antagonists, butyrophenones (dexamethasone), NK1-receptor antagonists, antihistamines and scopolamine are used.

    Butyrophenones

    • Droperidol is a butyrophenone used for PONV prophylaxis.
    • This drug is no longer commonly used due to concerns about QT prolongation, Torsades de Pointes, and cardiac effects.
    • Other phenothiazines, such as promethazine, may be alternative options, however, are not commonly used for prophylaxis of PONV.

    Doxapram

    • Doxapram is a peripheral and central nervous system stimulant
    • It selectively activates carotid chemoreceptors.
    • It is not a reversal agent and thus should not replace standard supportive therapies.
    • Stimulation leads to an increase in tidal volume and respiratory rate.
    • The drug should not be used in patients with underlying conditions such as epilepsy, cerebrovascular disease, acute head injury, or bronchial asthma.

    Naloxone

    • Naloxone is a competitive opioid receptor antagonist with high affinity for µ receptors.
    • It reverses the effects of opioid-induced respiratory depression.
    • It is used in emergency situations involving overdose or opioid-related respiratory issues.
    • Rapid reversal can lead to a surge in sympathetic activity.

    Flumazenil

    • Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist.
    • It reverses benzodiazepine-induced sedation and overdose.
    • It should be used cautiously, especially in patients with pre-existing conditions, including head injuries.

    Dexamethasone

    • Dexamethasone is a synthetic corticosteroid that reduces the incidence of PONV.
    • Its mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it may have analgesic and mild euphoric effects.
    • It may increase postoperative blood glucose.
    • It should be administered at induction, not at the end of surgery.

    Neurokinin-1 Receptor Antagonists

    • Aprepitant is a neurokinin-1 receptor antagonist that reduces PONV.
    • It's often used in combination with other agents given its additive effect.

    Ketorolac

    • Ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID).
    • Decreases postoperative need for opioid analgesics as it inhibits prostaglandin synthesis.
    • It has minimal central nervous system side effects and is commonly used post-operatively.

    Clonidine

    • Clonidine is an imidazoline derivative with prominent α2-adrenergic agonist activity.
    • It reduces sympathetic tone by decreasing systemic vascular resistance, heart rate, and blood pressure.
    • It has analgesic effects, especially during epidural/caudal/peripheral nerve blocks, thus decreasing the need for opioids.
    • It is also indicated in chronic neuropathic pain management.

    Dexmedetomidine

    • Dexmedetomidine is a selective α2-agonist with sedative properties.
    • It causes dose-dependent sedation, anxiolysis, analgesia, and blunting of sympathetic responses.
    • It spares opioids and is particularly useful in mechanically ventilated patients.
    • Side effects include bradycardia, heart block, and hypotension.

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