Nagelhout Exam 3

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Questions and Answers

Why is IV dolasetron no longer available?

  • It adversely prolongs the QTc interval. (correct)
  • It can cause serotonin syndrome when combined with SSRIs.
  • It has a short half-life, making it ineffective.
  • It causes dyskinesia or extrapyramidal effects.

A patient is taking an SSRI for depression and is scheduled for surgery. Which antiemetic medication should be used with caution?

  • Droperidol.
  • Ondansetron. (correct)
  • Metoclopramide.
  • Aprepitant.

Which area of the brain do Neurokinin 1 receptor antagonists act on?

  • Nucleus of the solitary tract (NST). (correct)
  • Chemoreceptor trigger zone.
  • Area postrema.
  • Vagal afferents.

What is the primary mechanism by which aprepitant exerts its antiemetic effect?

<p>Suppressing activity at the nucleus of the solitary tract (NST). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does midazolam contribute to the reduction of postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV)?

<p>By decreasing dopamine's emetic effect and serotonin release through GABA receptor binding. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is there a limit to the dose of midazolam administered near the end of surgery?

<p>Concerns that administering a sedative near the end of surgery may prolong recovery (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is metoclopramide contraindicated in patients with intestinal obstructions?

<p>It has potent gastrokinetic effects. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Parkinson's disease is scheduled for surgery. Which antiemetic should be avoided due to potential contraindications?

<p>Metoclopramide. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with which pre-existing condition would be at higher risk of developing prolonged QT syndrome when prescribed certain medications?

<p>Congestive Heart Failure (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the primary mechanism of action by which transdermal scopolamine prevents nausea and vomiting?

<p>Blocking transmission of cholinergic impulses from vestibular nuclei to the vomiting center. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is scheduled for surgery and is prescribed a scopolamine patch to prevent postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV). When should the patch be applied for optimal effectiveness?

<p>The evening before surgery. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common side effect associated with transdermal scopolamine, resulting from its central anticholinergic effects?

<p>Blurred vision (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Palonosetron is preferred over older serotonin antagonists like granisetron and dolasetron for preventing postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) due to its:

<p>Longer half-life. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing chemotherapy is prescribed Akynzeo, a combination drug, to prevent acute and delayed chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV). Which two drugs are combined in Akynzeo?

<p>Netupitant and palonosetron (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might a clinician choose to use haloperidol over droperidol for managing postoperative nausea and vomiting?

<p>Haloperidol does not carry a black box warning. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

While benzodiazepines such as lorazepam have been historically used as adjuncts for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV), recent meta-analyses suggest that which benzodiazepine may have a clinically significant antiemetic effect?

<p>Midazolam (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is taking Amitriptyline. What potential side effects should the patient be monitored for?

<p>Urinary retention, dry mouth, and blurred vision (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is an ECG recommended before surgery for patients taking tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)?

<p>To rule out existing cardiac conduction abnormalities. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on an MAOI requires vasopressor support during surgery. Which vasopressor would be most appropriate?

<p>Phenylephrine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How long after discontinuing an MAOI can enzyme-inhibiting effects persist?

<p>2 weeks (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication should be avoided in patients taking MAOIs due to a severe excitatory drug interaction?

<p>Meperidine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which atypical antidepressant is also prescribed for smoking cessation?

<p>Bupropion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient abruptly stops taking paroxetine. What is the patient most at risk of experiencing?

<p>Severe withdrawal effects (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Mortality associated with serotonin syndrome may result from which of the following conditions?

<p>Rhabdomyolysis with renal failure (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is metoclopramide contraindicated in patients with gastric obstruction?

<p>It has prokinetic effects. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following antiemetics has the longest duration of effectiveness, making it suitable for postdischarge nausea and vomiting (PDNV)?

<p>Palonosetron (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is scheduled for surgery at 8:00 AM. Considering the optimal timing for administration, which medication should ideally be given the prior evening to be effective?

<p>Scopolamine transdermal patch (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is dexamethasone administered 1 hour prior to anesthesia induction?

<p>To allow time for its anti-inflammatory effects to begin reducing postoperative nausea and vomiting. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which dopamine antagonist is characterized by a selective mechanism, and shows no sedation, extrapyramidal effects, or QTc prolongation in antiemetic doses?

<p>Amisulpride (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication should be used with caution due to the possibility of increasing blood sugar levels postoperatively, particularly in diabetic patients?

<p>Dexamethasone (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In situations where both postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) and postdischarge nausea and vomiting (PDNV) prevention are desired, which medication, due to its extended duration, would be most suitable?

<p>Palonosetron (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is typically administered at the end of surgery for optimal effectiveness in preventing postoperative nausea and vomiting?

<p>Ondansetron (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a notable side effect associated with diphenhydramine that may limit its use in certain patient populations?

<p>Significant sedation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For a child undergoing surgery, what is the maximum dose of ondansetron that should be administered?

<p>4 mg (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Parkinson's disease is at high risk for PONV. Which antiemetic should be avoided?

<p>Droperidol (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is droperidol's use limited despite its effectiveness in preventing PONV?

<p>It carries a black box warning due to potential QT interval prolongation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient received ondansetron for PONV prophylaxis and experiences vomiting 4 hours postoperatively. According to guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step?

<p>Administer droperidol as rescue therapy. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best describes the rationale behind using multimodal antiemetic prophylaxis?

<p>It provides an additive effect in risk reduction due to different mechanisms of action. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You are treating a patient experiencing delayed CINV. Which medication is specifically approved for this condition?

<p>Rolapitant (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is at moderate risk for PONV. What is the recommendation for prophylaxis?

<p>Multimodal prophylaxis should be considered (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best explains why an antiemetic from a different therapeutic class should be chosen for rescue therapy?

<p>To target different pathways involved in emesis, potentially overcoming resistance. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child at high risk for PONV is undergoing surgery. What is the guideline for prophylaxis?

<p>Administer combination therapy using a 5-HT3 antagonist and a second drug. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to communicate a patient's use of MAOIs to healthcare providers before a surgical procedure?

<p>To prevent potential interactions between MAOIs and anesthetic drugs, such as an exaggerated hypertensive response to indirect-acting vasopressors. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking an SNRI is scheduled for surgery. What potential cardiovascular effect should the anesthesia provider be aware of?

<p>A dose-dependent increase in blood pressure. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might a patient with schizophrenia experience more postoperative confusion and agitation if their antipsychotic medications are discontinued preoperatively?

<p>Because abrupt discontinuation can destabilize their mental state. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which consideration is MOST crucial when managing a patient taking lithium who requires general anesthesia?

<p>Recognizing that lithium can reduce the MAC of inhalation agents. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on an SNRI is undergoing surgery. What side effect related to this medication should be anticipated during the perioperative period?

<p>Urinary retention (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient chronically treated with antipsychotics is scheduled for an elective surgical procedure. Which approach is MOST appropriate regarding their medication regimen?

<p>Continue the antipsychotics preoperatively to avoid withdrawal symptoms and destabilization. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking an MAOI needs a vasopressor during surgery. Which agent is MOST appropriate?

<p>Phenylephrine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Compared to other similar medications, which side effect is especially prominent with venlafaxine and desvenlafaxine due to their short half-lives if these medications are abruptly discontinued?

<p>Severe discontinuation symptoms (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Prolonged QT Syndrome

A life-threatening cardiac event. Some medical conditions can increase the risk.

Granisetron (Kytril)

Serotonin antagonist used to prevent postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV).

Palonosetron (Aloxi)

A second-generation serotonin antagonist with a long half-life, preferable for delayed nausea/vomiting.

Transdermal Scopolamine

Antiemetic patch applied before surgery, blocking cholinergic impulses.

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Scopolamine Mechanism

Blocks cholinergic impulses in the CNS to prevent nausea and vomiting.

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Scopolamine Side Effects

Sedation, blurred vision, dizziness, and dry mouth.

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Benzodiazepines

Drug class that shows potential antiemetic effects.

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Midazolam

May have clinically significant antiemetic effect.

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Aprepitant

Medication approved for PONV by the FDA.

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Netupitant/palonosetron & Rolapitant

Medications approved for CINV by the FDA.

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Rolapitant

A drug with a very long half-life; used for delayed CINV and potentially PDNV.

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Droperidol

An antiemetic used to prevent & treat PONV, but has a risk of extrapyramidal side effects and QT prolongation.

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Multimodal PONV Prophylaxis

Combining interventions from different drug classes for PONV prophylaxis.

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Combination therapy for pediatric PONV

For moderate to high risk, use a 5-HT3 antagonist and a second drug.

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PONV Rescue Therapy

Choose a different class than prophylaxis and potentially a different route.

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PONV within 6 hours

Do not repeat the same drug if PONV occurs within this time.

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First-generation 5-HT3 antagonists effect

May prolong the QTc interval, potentially leading to heart rhythm issues. Dolasetron is no longer available due to this risk.

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Serotonin syndrome

A condition that may occur if 5-HT3 receptor antagonists are taken with SSRIs or SNRIs

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Neurokinin 1 Receptor Antagonists

Antiemetics that block substance P/neurokinin 1 (NK-1) receptors in the nucleus of the solitary tract (NST).

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Nucleus of the Solitary Tract (NST)

The location where vagal afferents converge from the GI tract, initiating emesis.

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Midazolam's Antiemetic Effect

These reduce PONV by decreasing dopamine's effect and serotonin release, acting on GABA receptors.

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Metoclopramide

A weak antiemetic that blocks dopamine receptors; higher doses are needed to see an effects although dyskinesia or extrapyramidal effects can be seen with higher doses.

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Metoclopramide Contraindication

This drug is contraindicated in patients with Parkinson disease due to its dopamine receptor blocking effect.

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Metoclopramide and Intestinal Obstructions

This drug is contraindicated for patients with intestinal obstructions, due to potent gastrokinetic effects.

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Bupropion (Wellbutrin)

Atypical antidepressant; also used for smoking cessation. Blocks norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake.

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MAOIs Considerations

Inhibition can persist for up to 2 weeks after discontinuation; Avoid combining with serotonergic drugs, bupropion, or sympathomimetics.

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Bupropion MOA

Block reuptake of both norepinephrine and dopamine.

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SNRIs Mechanism

Block reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine.

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TCAs Side Effects

Adverse effects include urinary retention, dry mouth, blurred vision, confusion, orthostatic hypotension and cardiac conduction abnormalities.

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SSRI Discontinuation

Adverse effects include insomnia, confusion, nausea and vomiting.

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Serotonin Syndrome Complications

Severe adverse effect includes rhabdomyolysis with renal failure, hyperkalemia, disseminated intravascular coagulation, and/or acute respiratory distress syndrome.

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TCAs and Vasopressors

Direct-acting vasopressors are preferable over indirect-acting drugs.

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MAOIs and Anesthesia

Block the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine; safest approach is to continue these drugs and adjust anesthetic plan.

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MAOIs and Vasopressors

May cause exaggerated response to indirect-acting vasopressors, prefer low-dose direct-acting agents if needed.

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SNRIs Definition

Increase serotonin and norepinephrine levels in the brain, used for depression, anxiety, and neuropathic pain.

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SNRI Side Effects

Similar to SSRIs, but may also include increased sweating, tachycardia, and urinary retention.

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SNRIs and Blood Pressure

Can cause a dose-dependent increase in blood pressure.

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Lithium and Anesthesia

Reduces the MAC of inhalation agents.

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Antipsychotics - Preoperative

Continue preoperatively to avoid confusion, delirium, and agitation.

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Schizophrenia and Post-op

Patients with schizophrenia experience more postoperative confusion, delirium and agitation when psychiatric medications are discontinued preoperatively. Postoperative confusion, delirium, and agitation.

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Haloperidol's Antiemetic Use

Haloperidol is an antiemetic drug used in low doses (1-2 mg).

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5-HT3 Antagonists

5-HT3 antagonists (e.g., Ondansetron) prevent nausea and vomiting, especially postoperatively (PONV).

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Ondansetron Timing

Administer ondansetron at the end of surgery for best results in preventing PONV.

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Dopamine Antagonists as Antiemetics

Droperidol and amisulpride are dopamine antagonists used as antiemetics.

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Diphenhydramine's Sedative Effect

Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine that can cause sedation when used as an antiemetic.

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Dexamethasone and Hyperglycemia

Dexamethasone can cause hyperglycemia postoperatively, especially in diabetics.

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Scopolamine for PDNV

Scopolamine patches are long-acting anticholinergics effective for postdischarge nausea and vomiting (PDNV).

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NK1 Antagonists

Aprepitant and rolapitant are neurokinin 1 (NK1) antagonists used to prevent PDNV.

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Unique properties of Amisulpride

Amisulpride, at antiemetic doses, has no sedation, extrapyramidal effects, or QTc prolongation.

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Study Notes

  • Medical conditions that increase the risk of a prolonged QT syndrome include:
    • Congestive heart failure
    • Bradycardia
    • Hypertension
    • Heart block
    • Cardiac hypertrophy
    • Cardiomyopathy
    • Hypomagnesemia
    • Use of medications, diuretics, antihypertensives, antidepressants, and antiarrhythmics
  • Palonosetron (Aloxi) is a second-generation serotonin antagonist with a long half-life of 44 hours, making it preferable for PDNV prevention
  • All first-generation 5-HT3 antagonists can prolong the QTc interval, reason why IV dolasetron is no longer available
  • Serotonin syndrome can occur with concurrent use of 5-HT3 receptor antagonists and other serotonergic drugs like SSRIs and SNRIs

Neurokinin 1 Receptor Antagonists

  • Aprepitant (Emend), fosaprepitant (Emend), netupitant/palonosetron (Akynzeo), and rolapitant (Varubi) are substance P/neurokinin 1 (NK-1) receptor antagonists
  • NK-1 receptors are in the nucleus of the solitary tract (NST), involved in the central regulation of visceral function
  • NK-1 receptor antagonists suppress activity at the NST, where vagal afferents from the GI tract converge with inputs from areas that initiate emesis
  • Aprepitant is FDA-approved for PONV, while netupitant/palonosetron and rolapitant have been approved for CINV
  • Rolapitant has a half-life of 180 hours and its active metabolite has a half-life of 158 hours, marketed for delayed CINV but may also be effective for PDNV prevention

Butyrophenones

  • Small doses of Droperidol (0.625 to 1.25 mg) prevent and treat PONV, administered at the end of surgery
  • Droperidol acts as a dopamine receptor blocking agent in the CNS
  • It may cause extrapyramidal side effects and is contraindicated in patients with Parkinson's disease
  • In 2001, the FDA issued a black box warning restricting its use due to potential prolongation of the QT interval, suggesting an ECG be performed before use
  • Haloperidol also has antiemetic properties when used in low doses of 1 to 2 mg, administration at the beginning or end of surgery is equally efficacious
  • Haloperidol has similar effects to droperidol on the QT interval but lacks a black box warning, some clinicians use it as an alternative to droperidol

Transdermal Scopolamine

  • The scopolamine patch is an effective antiemetic applied the evening before surgery
  • It has an onset time of approximately 4 hours and a minimum duration of 24 hours
  • It prevents nausea and vomiting by blocking transmission of cholinergic impulses from vestibular nuclei to higher centers in the CNS and from the reticular formation to the vomiting center
  • Common side effects include sedation, blurred vision, dizziness, and dry mouth
  • Most effective for preventing nausea with patient-controlled analgesia

Benzodiazepines

  • Midazolam may have a clinically significant antiemetic effect, preoperative or intraoperative IV midazolam is associated with decreased PONV, nausea, vomiting, and rescue antiemetic
  • Midazolam decreases dopamine's emetic effect in the chemoreceptor trigger zone and decreases serotonin release by binding to the GABA receptor complex
  • Administering a sedative near the end of surgery may prolong recovery, limiting the dose

Metoclopramide

  • A weak antiemetic, exerts a mild dopamine receptor blocking effect unless doses greater than 20 mg are used
  • It has a short half-life of 30 to 45 minutes, reports note little effect if given at the beginning of surgery
  • Dyskinesia or extrapyramidal effects can be seen with higher doses
  • Like droperidol, it is contraindicated in patients with Parkinson's disease
  • It has potent gastrokinetic effects, its use is also contraindicated for patients with intestinal obstructions

Clinical Use of Antiemetics

  • Guides the use of antiemetics based on common risk factors
  • Multimodal PONV and PDNV prophylaxis should be considered for patients at moderate to high risk for PONV
  • Prophylaxis in children at moderate or high risk for PONV should include combination therapy using a 5-HT3 antagonist and a second drug
  • The effects of interventions from different drug classes are additive, combining interventions has an additive effect in risk reduction
  • When rescue therapy is required, the antiemetic should be chosen from a different therapeutic class than the drugs used for prophylaxis and potentially one with a different mode of administration
  • If PONV occurs within 6 hours postoperatively, patients should not receive a repeat dose of the prophylactic antiemetic
  • An emetic episode more than 6 hours postoperatively can be treated with any of the drugs used for prophylaxis except dexamethasone, transdermal scopolamine, aprepitant, and palonosetron
  • Agents with a rapid onset are preferred

Psychiatric Drugs and Anesthesia

  • The incidence of psychiatric illness is increasing, with an estimated 9.6 million individual adults (4.1% of adults in the United States)
  • Anxiolytic medication (AXM) was used by 16% of patients undergoing a noncardiac operation, it was an independent risk factor for poorer short-term outcome after surgery
  • Antidepressant medications were used by 21% of patients, but they were not an independent risk factor for poor outcome
  • Maintaining antidepressants, anxiolytics, antipsychotics, will ensure the patient's disease is better controlled during surgery
  • Modern anesthetic techniques can be adapted to the patient's condition and drug therapy

Antidepressants

  • Depression is be treated with antidepressive medications, psychotherapy, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), or a combination
  • Antidepressant treatment is usually given for 6 to 9 months following remission to consolidate recovery, long-term maintenance therapy is indicated for recurrent depressive episodes

Select Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors

  • SSRIs are first-line therapy for major depression
  • Common side effects include restlessness, insomnia, nausea, diarrhea, headache, dizziness, fatigue, and sexual dysfunction
  • SSRIs can cause hyponatremia, particularly in elderly patients, and increase the risk of bleeding
  • When SSRIs are stopped abruptly, discontinuation symptoms (including nervousness, anxiety, irritability, electric-shock sensations, bouts of crying, dizziness, insomnia, confusion, nausea, and vomiting) can occur
  • SSRIs have an inhibitory effect on CYP450 isoenzymes and may interact with many other drugs that rely on hepatic metabolism
  • Citalopram and escitalopram may prolong the QT interval
  • Unless a patient-specific concern develops, the SSRI should be continued throughout the perioperative period

Serotonin Syndrome

  • Caused by individual drugs, an overdose, or, most commonly, a drug interaction
  • Thought to be overstimulation of 5-HT1A as a result of an excess of serotonin precursors or agonists, increased serotonin release, reduced serotonin uptake, and decreased serotonin metabolism
  • Characterized by mental status changes, autonomic instability, neuromuscular hyperactivity, and hyperthermia
  • May occur with minutes or up to 24 hours after medication use, dose change, or adding a serotonergic drug
  • Diagnosis is made using the Hunter Serotonin Toxicity Criteria
  • Most cases are treated by cessation of the drugs and supportive care
  • First-line therapy includes cyproheptadine, an H₁-receptor antagonist

Tricyclic Antidepressants

  • TCAs remain alternatives to the SSRIs and SNRIs for patients with moderate to severe treatment-resistant depression
  • Cause anticholinergic effects (urinary retention, constipation, dry mouth, blurred vision, and confusion), orthostatic hypotension, weight gain, sedation, and sexual dysfunction
  • Amitriptyline should be avoided in patients with a history of heart disease
  • Patients treated with TCAs may have altered responses to anesthesia-related drugs
  • Administer a direct-acting drug such as phenylephrine for hypotension

Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors

  • Used only when other first-line treatments are ineffective due to risk of drug and food interactions eliciting a hypertensive crisis, the risk of serotonin syndrome, and difficulty with proper dosing
  • MAO-A preferentially metabolizes serotonin, norepinephrine, and epinephrine
  • MAO-B preferentially metabolizes phenylethylamine
  • Severe cases of serotonin syndrome have been reported in patients treated with MAOIs who took over-the-counter dextromethorphan, the illegal methylenedioxymethamphetamine (Ecstasy), or who started treatment with serotonin reuptake inhibitors, meperidine, or atypical antipsychotics
  • The use of meperidine in a patient treated with MAOIs may result in agitation, headache, skeletal muscle rigidity, hyperpyrexia, and death
  • In the past, these drugs were discontinued prior to surgery, however, the safest approach is to continue these drugs and adjust the anesthetic plan to avoid meperidine and indirect-acting vasopressors

Serotonin Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors

  • SNRIs are given for major depression, anxiety, and other mood disorders, as well as chronic neuropathic pain
  • Effects are mediated via increases in levels of serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain
  • Side effects are similar to SSRIs but may also include increased sweating, tachycardia, and urinary retention
  • Severe discontinuation symptoms can occur when these drugs are stopped
  • SNRIs can cause a dose-dependent increase in blood pressure

Lithium

  • Several drugs are used for the treatment of bipolar disorder
  • Common adverse effects include tremor, thirst, polyuria, edema, and weight gain
  • Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus can occur, increases the risk of lithium toxicity and may be irreversible, also hypothyroidism can occur with long term lithium treatment
  • Lithium may cause mild leukocytosis, induce or exacerbate psoriasis, and cause skin reactions
  • Discontinuation of lithium has been also associated with suicide
  • Lithium prolongs the duration of nondepolarizing neuromuscular agents, and reduces the MAC of the inhalation agents

Antipsychotics

  • Patients with schizophrenia and other serious mental illnesses are at increased risk for perioperative complications such as confusion and ileus
  • Patients with schizophrenia may have higher pain thresholds, higher rates of death, and greater postoperative complications
  • The antipsychotics include two major classes: dopamine receptor antagonists and serotonin-dopamine antagonists
  • Anesthesia management consists of avoiding hypotension during induction due to additive depression of the anesthetic drugs
  • A baseline ECG to assess QT interval prolongation may be helpful

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