NURS 222 Exam #1 Study Guide: Dysrhythmias

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Questions and Answers

Which sign is commonly associated with heart rate exceeding 100 beats per minute?

  • Hepatomegaly
  • Edema
  • Palpitations (correct)
  • Shortness of breath

In which type of dysrhythmia would you expect the heart rate to be less than 60 bpm?

  • Sinus bradycardia (correct)
  • Ventricular tachycardia
  • Atrial fibrillation
  • Sinus tachycardia

What is a critical nursing intervention for a patient experiencing dyspnea due to heart failure?

  • Monitor oxygen saturation (correct)
  • Increase fluid intake
  • Defer medication administration
  • Encourage physical activity

Which characteristic defines sinus tachycardia on an ECG?

<p>P waves merging with T waves (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is typically associated with left-sided heart failure?

<p>Pulmonary edema (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a normal PR interval range from?

<p>0.12 to 0.20 seconds (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is indicated if a patient has an increased volume and pressure in the venous system?

<p>Heart failure (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intervention is necessary if a patient's oxygen saturation falls below 94%?

<p>Provide oxygen therapy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the CD4 count threshold indicating significant immune suppression in Stage III (AIDS)?

<p>200 cells/mm^3 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common opportunistic pathogen in HIV patients during Stage I and II?

<p>Chickenpox (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an occupational exposure to HIV, when should Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP) ideally be initiated?

<p>Within 1-2 hours (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of anemia is primarily due to dietary deficiency of iron?

<p>Iron deficiency anemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which assessment is NOT included when evaluating HIV risk in a patient's sexual history?

<p>Type of contraceptives used (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for a patient experiencing dyspnea?

<p>Position the patient in high fowlers. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common sign of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

<p>Increased hematocrit levels due to low oxygen levels. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be assessed in a patient with mitral valve prolapse?

<p>Vital signs and the presence of specific symptoms. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of the first chamber in a three-chamber drainage system?

<p>Collects drainage (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test can detect HIV antibodies as early as 2-6 weeks after exposure?

<p>HIV Antigen/Antibody test (4th generation) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication category is commonly administered for managing pulmonary edema?

<p>Diuretics. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What symptom is most likely to be observed in a patient with chronic bronchitis?

<p>Productive cough. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which item is NOT essential to keep within reach for emergencies related to a chest drainage system?

<p>Portable X-ray machine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which assessment finding would suggest worsening respiratory function in a COPD patient?

<p>Increase in accessory muscle use. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary method of HIV transmission?

<p>Through blood, semen, vaginal fluid, and breast milk (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which food is NOT recommended for increasing oral iron intake?

<p>Rice (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which sign indicates a potential respiratory distress in a patient with a chest tube drainage system?

<p>Changes in oxygen saturation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What test result indicates hypoxemia in a patient?

<p>PaO2 &lt; 80. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common treatment option for severe iron deficiency anemia?

<p>Parenteral iron solutions (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a rich source of Vitamin B12?

<p>Dried beans (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of white blood cells does HIV predominantly destroy?

<p>CD4 T helper cells (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a nursing priority in managing a patient with decreased gas exchange?

<p>Monitoring respiratory rate regularly. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the nurse managing a chest drainage system?

<p>Assess for signs of blood clots (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes sickle cell disease from normal hemoglobin?

<p>Shape of the cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which pain management approach is NOT recommended for severe pain in sickle cell disease?

<p>Using PRN (as needed) schedules for medication (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which form of HIV is the most common subtype globally?

<p>HIV-1 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

To prevent a sickle cell crisis, patients should increase their daily liquid intake to at least how many liters?

<p>3 to 4 L (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should patients with sickle cell disease avoid to reduce the risk of crisis?

<p>Strenuous physical exercise (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which method is NOT a common treatment for Vitamin B12 anemia?

<p>Use of iron supplements (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

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Study Notes

Chapter 28: Dysrhythmias (Arrhythmia)

  • Signs and symptoms include palpitations, chest discomfort, shortness of breath, dizziness, fatigue, anxiety, confusion, and sweating.
  • Nursing interventions should involve monitoring vital signs, administering medications, providing oxygen if saturation is below 94%, and applying a 12-lead ECG.
  • In cases of inadequate heart rate increase, prepare for transcutaneous/transvenous pacing; permanent pacemaker may be needed for persistent dysrhythmias.

Sinus Tachycardia

  • Heart rate exceeds 100 bpm but typically under 180 bpm; rhythm is regular with well-defined P waves preceding each QRS complex.
  • PR interval remains consistent at 0.12 to 0.20 seconds; QRS complex duration is under 0.12 seconds.

Sinus Bradycardia

  • Characterized by a heart rate below 60 bpm; maintains normal, upright P waves in lead II.
  • PR interval is 0.12 to 0.20 seconds, indicating consistency.

Chapter 29: Cardiac Conditions

Heart Failure

  • Left-sided heart failure symptoms include pulmonary edema, dyspnea, fatigue, weakness, and chest pain; right-sided symptoms include jugular venous distension (JVD), ascites, and peripheral edema.
  • Nursing teaching focuses on lifestyle modifications, medication adherence, and recognizing common signs/symptoms.
  • Interventions include monitoring respiratory rate, auscultating breath sounds, positioning for comfort, medication administration (ACE inhibitors, diuretics), and daily weight checks.

Mitral Valve Prolapse

  • Enlarge and prolapse of leaflets into the left atrium, often asymptomatic; may cause chest pain, palpitations, or a midsystolic click.
  • Nursing interventions include vital sign assessment, auscultation, and symptom monitoring.

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

  • Symptoms include dyspnea, productive cough, hypoxemia, barrel chest, and cyanosis.
  • Laboratory evaluations consist of hematocrit levels, sputum cultures, ABGs (PaO2 < 80; PaCO2 > 45), PFTs, and chest x-rays.
  • Pathophysiology includes chronic bronchitis (mucus overproduction) and emphysema (over-distended alveoli).
  • Risk factors involve smoking, air pollution exposure, and history of respiratory infections.

Chest Tube Management

  • Priority of care includes monitoring vital signs (O2 saturation and respiratory rate), frequent position changes, and assessing for leakage.
  • Utilize a three-chamber drainage system: drainage collection, water seal, and suction control.
  • Nurse responsibilities include ensuring patency of tubes, monitoring for respiratory distress, and maintaining documentation of output.

Chapter 17: Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

  • HIV attacks the immune system, specifically CD4 T-helper cells; AIDS is the most severe stage with significant immunosuppression.
  • Transmission occurs via blood, sex, and breast milk; two main types are HIV-1 (common) and HIV-2.

Laboratory Diagnosis

  • Serologic tests (ELISA, Western Blot) typically positive within 3-12 weeks; 4th generation tests can detect earlier (2-6 weeks).
  • Virologic tests measure the virus directly (HIV RNA, DNA tests).

Signs and Symptoms

  • Stage I and II may be asymptomatic or present with flu-like symptoms; opportunistic infections are assessable.
  • Stage III (AIDS) exhibits severe immune suppression with CD4 counts below 200 cells/mm³ and significant weight loss.

Occupational Needlestick Protocol

  • Cleanse the wound and report the incident; perform risk assessment and initiate PEP within 1-2 hours.
  • Follow with baseline and follow-up testing for HIV, Hepatitis B, and Hepatitis C.

Chapter 34: Hematology Conditions

Anemia

  • Defined as a reduction in RBC count, hemoglobin, or hematocrit; it signals various health issues.
  • Nutritional anemias include iron, vitamin B12, and folic acid deficiencies.
Nutritional Anemia Management
  • Iron deficiency: Increase iron-rich foods and consider oral or parenteral iron supplements.
  • Vitamin B12 deficiency: Focus on animal proteins and consider injections, oral, or nasal forms.
  • Folic acid deficiency: Maintain a diet rich in folate and B12.

Sickle Cell Disease

  • Genetic disorder causing abnormal hemoglobin formation; results in distorted red blood cells that can obstruct blood flow.
  • Symptoms include pain crises managed with IV analgesics and hydration; educate on lifestyle adjustments to prevent crises.
  • Monitoring includes HPLC and hemoglobin S testing.

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