NRSG 3420: Cancer Treatment Review
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Questions and Answers

What additional diagnostic tests should the nurse begin teaching the client after a positive skin test for tuberculosis? (Select all that apply)

  • A repeat multiple-puncture skin test
  • Drug susceptibility testing (correct)
  • Complete blood count
  • A chest radiograph (correct)
  • Complete history and physical examination (correct)

What would the PACU nurse be responsible for reporting to the nurse on the floor after a patient has been deemed ready post-surgery? (Select all that apply)

  • The client's full name (correct)
  • The identities of the staff in the OR
  • The client's preoperative level of consciousness (correct)
  • The names of the anesthetics that were used
  • The presence of family and/or significant others (correct)

What signs and symptoms of myocardial infarction (MI) are particularly common in female clients? (Select all that apply)

  • Anxiety
  • Chest pain
  • Nausea (correct)
  • Shortness of breath
  • Indigestion (correct)

What should the nurse instruct a patient on self-administering nitroglycerin? (Select all that apply)

<p>Take the tablet in anticipation of any activity that can produce pain (C), Call emergency services if pain persists after three tablets (D), Let the tablet dissolve in the mouth and keep the tongue still (E), Renew the supply every 6 months (F)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following are causes of secondary brain injury? (Select all that apply)

<p>Hyperthermia (A), Cerebral edema (B), Infection (C), Ischemia (D), Seizures (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What actions should the nurse take first for a client experiencing severe anaphylactic shock? (Select all that apply)

<p>Ask the client if they are lightheaded (B), Prepare for insertion of an endotracheal tube (C), Give intravenous fluids (D), Administer diphenhydramine (F)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a nurse's primary responsibility? (Select one)

<p>To promote activities that foster well-being (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which therapies are used to treat cancer? Select all that apply.

<p>Chemotherapy (A), Surgery (B), Hyperthermia (D), Radiation therapy (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What teaching should the nurse include in the client's plan of care regarding cancer screening tests? Select all that apply.

<p>Nutritional intake to support immune response plays an important role in reducing cancer incidence. (A), Education about vaccine schedules should be initiated. (B), Tumor cells may prevent their destruction by killer T lymphocytes. (C), Routine screening increases the chance of finding and treating cancer early. (D), The immune system is regulated by the brain. (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why will the axillary nodes be removed during a modified radical mastectomy?

<p>Provide prognostic information. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which risk factors should be included in a workshop on laryngeal cancer? Select all that apply.

<p>Industrial pollutants (A), Age (B), Alcohol (C), Tobacco (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What goal should the nurse prioritize for a client with HIV during discharge planning?

<p>Encourage the client to adhere to his therapeutic regimen. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What functions should the nurse include in teaching about the larynx? Select all that apply.

<p>Protecting the lower airway from foreign objects (B), Facilitating coughing (C), Producing sound (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Using the rule of nines, what is the total body surface area percentage for burns to the abdomen and front of the left leg?

<p>18% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which possible adverse drug effects should the nurse monitor for in a client receiving foscarnet? Select all that apply.

<p>Hypomagnesemia (A), Hyperphosphatemia (D), Seizures (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the functions of the eyelids? Select all that apply.

<p>Impact ocular light (A), Spread tears (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What important instructions should the nurse give to a client with a burn wound on the leg? Select all that apply.

<p>Report increased redness and wound drainage to the healthcare provider. (A), Wash the wound with soap and water. (C), Continue physical therapy exercises. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should the nurse categorize an elderly client’s difficulty ambulating due to chronic osteoarthritis?

<p>Acquired (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What preexisting medical conditions may increase afterload? Select all that apply.

<p>Aging (A), Aortic valve stenosis (B), Hypertension (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which physiologic reasons explain why exercise lowers blood glucose levels? Select all that apply.

<p>Decreases total cholesterol (B), Increases lean muscle mass (C), Increases resting metabolic rate as muscle size increases (D), Increases glucose uptake by body muscles (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factors increase the risk for breast cancer? (Select all that apply)

<p>Obesity (A), Daily alcohol intake (B), Nulliparity (C), Increased age (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which local complications should the nurse assess for in intravenous therapy? Select all that apply.

<p>Infection (A), Extravasation (B), Phlebitis (C), Hematoma (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What causes of hematuria should the nurse relate to the client? Select all that apply.

<p>Extreme exercise (B), Renal stones (C), Acute glomerulonephritis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What bronchodilator actions relieve bronchospasm? (Select all that apply)

<p>Increase oxygen distribution (A), Alter smooth muscle tone (C), Reduce airway obstruction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurrence makes it difficult to assess internal burn damage in electrical burns?

<p>Deep tissue cooling</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should the nurse best inquire about the bruising observed on a client?

<p>Is anyone physically hurting you? (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What actions should the nurse take in response to an acute hemolytic reaction? (Select all that apply)

<p>Assess for anxiety and mental status changes (C), Check for low back pain (D), Notify the health care provider (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What nursing care interventions are required when caring for a client recovering from spinal anesthesia? (Select all that apply)

<p>Assist the client to a sitting position (A), Monitor respiratory rate and sensation every 2 hours (B), Instruct the client to stay in bed until sensation and movement return (C), Turn the client from side to side at least every 2 hours (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should the nurse best evaluate the teaching-learning process for a teenage boy with asthma?

<p>Directly observe the boy using his inhaler to give himself a dose (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When appraising a health promotion campaign, what will the nurse consider most participants depend on for success?

<p>Taking responsibility for themselves (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What actions are included in a PEP protocol after exposure to HIV? (Select all that apply)

<p>Continue HIV medications for 4 weeks postexposure (B), Finish postexposure testing at 6 months (C), Initiate postexposure testing after 4 weeks (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What causes of acquired seizures should the nurse recognize? (Select all that apply)

<p>Drug and alcohol withdrawal (A), Metabolic and toxic conditions (B), Cerebrovascular disease (C), Hyponatremia (D), Brain tumor (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely factor causing a client not to adhere to her therapeutic regimen?

<p>Costs of the prescribed regimen (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which clients have the greatest risk for complications during surgery? (Select all that apply)

<p>The 70-year-old client who takes no routine medications (A), The 27-year-old client with non-insulin dependent diabetes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What normal change due to aging does the nurse expect in the heart of an older client?

<p>Widening of the aorta</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which client statements about anaphylaxis symptoms indicate no further teaching is needed? (Select all that apply)

<p>If I start having difficulty breathing, I need to get help right away. (A), Peripheral tingling is a symptom of anaphylaxis reaction. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which questions should the nurse ask to learn about the client's interpersonal environment? (Select all that apply)

<p>What language do you speak at home? (B), What practices do you use to keep in good health? (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What tone of teaching should the nurse implement when teaching a 12-year-old client?

<p>Relevant</p> Signup and view all the answers

The act requires appropriate safeguards to protect the privacy of ___________ health information.

<p>personal</p> Signup and view all the answers

Sharing client information with the client's children is permitted according to privacy regulations.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key factor that enhances a 75-year-old client's ability to learn about her antiplatelet medication?

<p>Making the information directly relevant to the client's condition.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone has low production during ovulation?

<p>Progesterone (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is the best time for a nurse to assess a client's readiness to learn about diabetes health promotion?

<p>When the nurse initiates a conversation about motivation to learn. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statements are correct regarding managing chronic conditions? (Select all that apply)

<p>Managing chronic conditions must be an individual process. (A), The health care team needs to focus on preventing complications. (B), Difficult ethical issues arise in the care of people with chronic conditions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which project demonstrates the principles of health promotion teaching?

<p>Discussing the importance of preventing sexually transmitted infections (STI) to a group of high school students. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What self-care topics should a nurse address for a client diagnosed with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)? (Select all that apply)

<p>Use of condoms to prevent infecting others. (A), Appropriate use of antibiotics. (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How might a client's culture impact their readiness to learn? (Select all that apply)

<p>The manner in which the client learns is impacted. (A), The information in which the client learns is impacted. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which interventions should be included in the care for a client exposed to the botulinum toxin? (Select all that apply)

<p>Respiratory support. (A), Administration of antitoxin. (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are signs and symptoms of obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)? (Select all that apply)

<p>Loud snoring. (A), Polycythemia. (B), Insomnia. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following are immediate complications of spinal cord injury? (Select all that apply)

<p>Spinal shock. (B), Respiratory arrest. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who is ultimately responsible for maintaining and promoting a client's health?

<p>The client.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the priority nursing concerns for a client with a new tracheostomy? (Select all that apply)

<p>Ineffective airway clearance. (D), Impaired gas exchange. (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factors might contribute to erectile dysfunction in a 66-year-old man? (Select all that apply)

<p>The client has a history of hypertension. (C), The client drinks five to six alcoholic drinks per day. (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which behavior best demonstrates a client's willingness to learn about managing his diabetes post-hospitalization?

<p>The client requests a visit from the hospital's diabetic educator. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What teaching points should be included for a patient on a renal diet for hemodialysis? (Select all that apply)

<p>Restrict fluid to daily urinary output plus 500 to 800 mL. (A), Eat foods such as milk, fish, and eggs. (B), Restrict sodium to 2,000 to 3,000 mg daily. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What symptoms indicative of malignant hyperthermia should a nurse monitor for?

<p>Muscle rigidity (B), Irregular heart rate (C), Cyanosis (D), Diaphoresis (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What pin site assessments would a nurse report for a client in the surgical unit with skeletal tongs stabilizing a cervical fracture?

<p>Pain at the insertion site after administration of medication (C), A small amount of yellow drainage at the left pin insertion site (D), A redness of the skin surrounding the insertion site (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which responses indicate correct reasons for the use of endotracheal tubes in clients?

<p>To bypass an upper airway obstruction (A), To support connecting to mechanical ventilation (B), To facilitate removal of tracheobronchial secretions (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What statements by a client indicate effective teaching about digoxin for heart failure?

<p>If I take my digoxin I should have limited episodes of shortness of breath. (A), I will watch my urine output to be sure that the medication is not affecting my kidneys. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What nursing diagnosis is most relevant to a client not adhering to prescribed antiplatelet medication?

<p>Ineffective health maintenance related to inappropriate medication use (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What client statements indicate no further teaching is required about allergy management at home?

<p>I have pull shades on all of my windows. (A), I bought a wooden chair for my living room. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the best responses by the nurse when a client questions the difference between consuming fruit and fruit juice?

<p>The fruit has less sugar than the juice. (B), Eating the fruit instead of drinking juice decreases the glycemic index by slowing absorption. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic procedures might be included in a client's admission orders for removal of an intracranial mass?

<p>MRI (B), Cerebral angiography (D), Transcranial Doppler flow study (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What would be a therapeutic effect of a new bronchodilator for a client with COPD?

<p>Increased respiratory rate (A), Relief of dyspnea (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What strategy should a nurse adopt to assist an older adult in adhering to a therapeutic regimen involving wound care?

<p>Demonstrate a dressing change and allow the client to practice. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What medications are commonly prescribed to treat pericarditis?

<p>Prednisone (B), Colchicine (C), Ibuprofen (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What signs and symptoms would the nurse expect to see in a client with acute irritant contact dermatitis?

<p>Redness (B), Edema (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which actions demonstrate an understanding of HIPAA?

<p>The nurse informs the client that the therapist will have access to his EMR. (C), The hospital provides a copy of the medical record to the client. (D), The nurse allows the client to view his or her electronic medical record (EMR) at the bedside. (E), The client requests a correction to the medical record on file. (F)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the prevention of occupational lung diseases, the nurse would direct preventive teaching to which high-risk occupations? (Select all that apply)

<p>Rock quarry worker (A), Stone cutter (B), Miner (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What conditions cause elevated prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels in the absence of prostate cancer? (Select all that apply)

<p>Acute urinary retention (A), Acute prostatitis (B), Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) (D), Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For what complications should the nurse monitor the client post PTCA? (Select all that apply)

<p>Bleeding at the insertion site (A), Arterial occlusion (B), Abrupt closure of the coronary artery (C), Retroperitoneal bleeding (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What teaching should the nurse include for a client diagnosed with prostatitis? (Select all that apply)

<p>Regularly drain the gland. (A), Avoid prolonged sitting. (B), Avoid caffeine products. (D), Complete the prescribed antibiotic treatment. (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which relationship between stress and health outcomes should inform the nurse's teaching plan?

<p>Stress decreases immune function. (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should the nurse respond to a client feeling nervous before a pelvic examination? (Select all that apply)

<p>If you feel pain let me know because this is not something you should expect. (A), If you like, I can give you a mirror so you can watch the examination. (B), It can help you relax if you use deep breath and meditation during the exam. (C), Many people feel nervous before and while having this examination. (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factors may contribute to the increased chronic illness rates in the community? (Select all that apply)

<p>A decrease in mortality from infectious diseases (A), An increase in obesity rates (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which immediate interventions should the nurse include for a client with an opioid overdose? (Select all that apply)

<p>Ensure the head of the bed remains elevated (B), Monitor naloxone intravenous infusion (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which parameters would the nurse evaluate to determine if a client with extensive burn injuries is receiving adequate fluid resuscitation? (Select all that apply)

<p>Heart rate (C), Urine output (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What assessment should be the nurse's immediate priority before performing health education for a client receiving outpatient intravenous antibiotic therapy for endocarditis?

<p>Characteristics of the client's culture (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors could be a possible trigger for a migraine headache? (Select all that apply)

<p>Exposure to flashing light (D), Red wine (E), Menstruation (F)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What findings are consistent with acute glomerulonephritis? (Select all that apply)

<p>Proteinuria (A), Red blood cells in the urine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

To immediately promote oxygenation and relieve dyspnea in a client with acute pulmonary edema, which actions should the nurse perform? (Select all that apply)

<p>Place the client in an upright position (A), Administer oxygen (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Study Notes

Cancer Treatment

  • Cancer management often combines therapies, including surgery, chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and hyperthermia.
  • Electroconvulsive therapy is not a treatment for cancer; it's intended for mental health issues.

Cancer Screening in Older Clients

  • Nutritional intake supports immune response and can lower cancer incidence; a healthy diet is crucial.
  • Tumor cells may develop blocking factors that evade immune detection, highlighting the importance of early screening to detect cancers.
  • Autoimmune disease prevalence increases with age, suggesting a correlation with cancer risk due to the body's recognition failure of abnormal cells.

Mastectomy and Axillary Node Removal

  • Axillary nodes are removed during mastectomy primarily for prognostic information related to chemotherapy needs.
  • This procedure does not guarantee the prevention of metastasis nor does it enhance breast reconstruction.

Risk Factors for Laryngeal Cancer

  • Key risk factors for laryngeal cancer include tobacco use, exposure to industrial pollutants, older age, and alcohol consumption.
  • Geographic location is not considered a specific risk factor for this type of cancer.

HIV and Client Education

  • Emphasis on medication adherence is crucial for clients with HIV to ensure optimal health outcomes; other lifestyle areas are secondary.
  • Achieving a disease-free state is unattainable; focus should be on managing the disease.

Functions of the Larynx

  • The larynx produces sound and protects the lower airway from foreign objects.
  • It also facilitates coughing but does not directly prevent infection, a function more associated with tonsils.

Burn Assessment using Rule of Nines

  • The rule of nines estimates body surface area burn: the abdomen accounts for 9%, and each leg front for 9%.
  • Total burns of abdomen and front of one leg equate to an 18% body surface area burn.

Adverse Effects of Foscarnet in CMV Retinitis

  • Monitor for hyperphosphatemia, seizures, and hypomagnesemia as possible adverse effects of foscarnet treatment.
  • Neutropenia is more commonly linked with ganciclovir, not foscarnet.

Eye Structures and Eyelid Function

  • Eyelids spread tears and control the light entering the eye but do not produce tears or eliminate dust particles.

Discharge Teaching for Burn Wound Care

  • Clients should wash the wound with soap and water and report any signs of increased redness or drainage to their healthcare provider.
  • Physical therapy exercises are important; lubricants are not recommended for open wounds.

Classification of Disabilities

  • Chronic conditions like osteoarthritis that develop over time classify as acquired disabilities.
  • Developmental disabilities occur before age 22, while age-related disabilities stem from aging alone.

Factors Increasing Afterload

  • Afterload can increase due to aging, aortic valve stenosis, and hypertension, which result in higher vascular resistance.
  • Conditions like diabetes mellitus and mitral stenosis do not significantly influence afterload levels.

Exercise and Blood Glucose Levels

  • Exercise positively influences blood glucose by promoting lean muscle mass, increasing metabolic rate, and enhancing glucose uptake.
  • Exercise correlates with decreased total cholesterol levels, which is beneficial for overall health.

Local Complications of IV Therapy

  • Local complications from intravenous therapy include extravasation, hematoma, phlebitis, and potential infections.
  • Systemic complications are rarer but more serious and not classified as local.

Causes of Hematuria

  • Possible causes of hematuria include renal stones, acute glomerulonephritis, and extreme exercise.
  • Lithium toxicity and hypertension are not associated with this symptom.

Breast Cancer Risk Factors

  • Risk factors for breast cancer include nulliparity, advanced age, daily alcohol use, and obesity.
  • Silicone breast implants do not increase breast cancer risk.

Bronchodilator Actions

  • Bronchodilators relieve bronchospasm by altering smooth muscle tone, reducing airway obstruction, and enhancing oxygen distribution in the lungs.
  • Corticosteroids are typically required to reduce inflammation within the airways.### Electrical Burns and Assessment Challenges
  • Significant electrical burns can lead to internal damage assessment difficulties due to deep tissue cooling, as deep tissues cool slower than surface areas.

Assessing Bruising in Potential Abuse Cases

  • Direct inquiry about physical harm is essential when assessing clients for potential abuse; indirect questions may not lead to disclosure.

Acute Hemolytic Reaction Management

  • Checking for low back pain, notifying the healthcare provider, and assessing mental status changes are crucial actions in suspected acute hemolytic reactions.

Post-Spinal Anesthesia Care

  • Important nursing interventions include monitoring vital signs every 2 hours, turning the patient if permitted, and ensuring the patient remains in bed until sensation returns.

Health Promotion and Self-Responsibility

  • For effective health promotion programs, participants must take responsibility for their health rather than just expanding their knowledge or improving self-awareness.

Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP) after HIV Exposure

  • Key PEP actions include completing testing at 6 months, starting medications within hours of exposure, and maintaining HIV medication for 4 weeks.

Causes of Acquired Seizures

  • Acquired seizures can be triggered by various factors, including hyponatremia, cerebrovascular disease, metabolic toxicities, brain tumors, and drug/alcohol withdrawal.

Factors Affecting Therapeutic Regimen Adherence

  • Cost of medications is a significant factor impacting adherence to therapeutic plans, overshadowing provider ethnicity or personality.

Risk Evaluation in Surgical Clients

  • Older clients and those with diabetes have higher complication risks during surgery; smoking cessation does not mitigate certain risks associated with past substance use.

Aging and Cardiac Changes

  • Aging results in significant cardiac changes such as a widening aorta, decreased elasticity, and altered left ventricular ejection time.

Recognizing Anaphylaxis Symptoms

  • Peripheral tingling and breathing difficulties are key symptoms of anaphylaxis; sneezing or a feeling of fullness in the mouth may not be directly indicative.

Interpersonal Environment Assessment

  • Assessing a client's health practices and language used at home provides insights into their interpersonal environment and thereby influences care strategies.

Teaching Strategies for Adolescents

  • A relevant and engaging teaching approach is most effective when addressing adolescent clients.

Monitoring for Malignant Hyperthermia Symptoms

  • Key symptoms include irregular heart rate, diaphoresis, cyanosis, and muscle rigidity; these indicators necessitate immediate assessment and action.

Skeletal Tongs and Pin Site Care

  • Yellow drainage, pain post-medication, and redness around pin sites are clinically significant and should be promptly reported.

Endotracheal Tube Indications

  • Endotracheal intubation is indicated for facilitating secretion removal, connecting to mechanical ventilation, bypassing upper airway obstructions, and supporting ventilation in trauma cases.### Facial Trauma and Nasopharyngeal Airway
  • Nasopharyngeal airway is contraindicated in potential facial trauma or basal skull fracture due to risk of brain injury.

Digoxin Education for Heart Failure

  • Monitoring urine output is essential to assess kidney function during digoxin therapy.
  • Digoxin helps reduce episodes of shortness of breath by improving ventricular output.
  • Monthly digoxin levels may be needed based on toxicity symptoms or renal function changes.
  • Digoxin does not increase appetite; in fact, toxicity can lead to anorexia.
  • The medication slows heart rate and AV conduction, rather than increasing blood pressure or heart rate.

Medication Non-Adherence in Coronary Artery Disease

  • Ineffective health maintenance is suggested by improper antiplatelet medication use, with medications taken only during symptoms.

Allergy Management Education

  • Buying wooden furniture and using pull shades help reduce exposure to allergens.
  • Frequent vacuuming should ideally be daily, not weekly, to manage allergens effectively.
  • Regular close contact with pets should be limited as they may introduce allergens.

Benefits of Whole Fruits over Fruit Juice for Diabetics

  • Whole fruits lower glycemic index and slow absorption due to fiber, unlike fruit juices.
  • Juices contain higher sugar levels compared to whole fruits.
  • Whole fruits are generally more satisfying and nutrient-rich compared to juices.

Diagnostic Procedures for Intracranial Mass

  • MRI, cerebral angiography, and transcranial Doppler flow studies are relevant diagnostic tests prior to surgery for an intracranial mass.
  • CT scans may also be utilized to assess lesions and brain structures.

Therapeutic Effects of Bronchodilators in COPD

  • Relief of dyspnea and increased respiratory rate indicate effective action of bronchodilators.
  • Increased viscosity or respiratory rate could suggest worsening respiratory function.

First Aid for Snake Bites

  • Initial response includes laying the patient down, removing constrictive clothing, keeping the wound warm, and immobilizing the injury below heart level.
  • Cleaning and dressing the wound should follow immobilization.

Wound Care Education for Older Adults

  • Direct demonstration of dressing changes enhances older adult learning, supporting independence in self-care.

Medications for Pericarditis

  • Common medications include colchicine, ibuprofen, and prednisone for pain management.
  • Indomethacin is contraindicated as it may decrease coronary blood flow.

Signs of Acute Irritant Contact Dermatitis

  • Expect to see edema and redness; blisters are associated with allergic dermatitis, and cracked skin is a chronic symptom.

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Compliance

  • Clients have the right to request corrections and access their medical records.
  • Sharing information with family or peers without permission violates HIPAA.

Enhancing Learning for Older Adults with Chronic Conditions

  • Information should be directly relevant to the client's condition to optimize learning efficacy.

Characteristics of Chronic Conditions

  • Management of chronic conditions is individual-focused, and the healthcare team aims to prevent complications.
  • Ethical dilemmas often arise in the care of individuals with chronic conditions.
  • Effective management involves consistent adherence to treatment regimens.

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This quiz focuses on identifying various therapies used to treat cancer, relevant for nursing students in NRSG 3420. It covers methods such as hyperthermia, surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy. Test your knowledge on cancer treatment protocols and their applications.

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