Nonprofit Organizations Overview
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Questions and Answers

What distinguishes a nonprofit from a charity?

  • Nonprofits can include social clubs and labor unions. (correct)
  • Nonprofits cannot provide tax write-offs.
  • All nonprofits are charities.
  • Charities are not required to file paperwork with the IRS.

All charitable organizations are required to file paperwork with the IRS to provide donors with tax deductions.

True (A)

A _____ is a type of nonprofit corporation that serves the interests of its members, rather than the general public.

mutual benefit organization

Match the nonprofit types with their descriptions:

<p>501(c)(3) = Public benefit charities 501(c)(6) = Business chambers 501(c)(7) = Social clubs Eleemosynary = Charities aiding individual distress</p> Signup and view all the answers

What significant change regarding nonprofits occurred in 1943?

<p>The collection of information through form 990. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The 40-page 990 form used by nonprofits is considered a public document.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the historical origin of nonprofits tied to?

<p>Charitable Trusts from England</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one reason for the existence of nonprofits?

<p>Filled gaps due to market failure (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Nonprofit organizations are primarily focused on making profits for their owners.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who is associated with Agency Theory in the context of nonprofits?

<p>Henry B. Hansmann</p> Signup and view all the answers

The theory that posits nonprofits provide a new contract between themselves and the public is known as _______.

<p>Contract Failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the theorists with their respective theories on nonprofits.

<p>Henry B. Hansmann = Agency Theory Boris Bittker = Income Measurement Theory Mark Hall and John Colombo = Donative Theory Robert Atkinson = Altruism Theory</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a reason for nonprofit existence?

<p>Maximizing profits for investors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The non-distribution constraint allows nonprofit organizations to profit at the expense of their mission.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Capital Subsidy Theory suggest about nonprofits?

<p>Nonprofits receive exemptions due to their inability to raise capital through equity.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Chauncey Belknap's theory emphasizes that nonprofits help to relieve the government of its burden. This can be seen as a basis for what?

<p>501(c)(3) exemption (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For-profit entities are excluded from fiscal exemptions because they are more efficient at delivering services.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are public goods in the context of nonprofit services?

<p>Goods or services that are difficult to provide exclusively to one user and prevent others from enjoying.</p> Signup and view all the answers

The term '________' refers to the idea that nonprofits address societal needs that government fails to meet.

<p>Government Failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who proposed that nonprofits should have exemptions based on their ability to attract substantial public donations?

<p>Mark Hall and John Colombo (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following criteria does a purely public charity need to satisfy?

<p>Advance a charitable purpose (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Nonprofit corporations are typically allowed to distribute profits to their owners.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of individuals receiving services must pay a fee not greater than cost for a charity to qualify under the donation criteria?

<p>10%</p> Signup and view all the answers

A major advantage of using a Limited Liability Company (LLC) is that it provides a legal shield from __________.

<p>tort liability</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following nonprofit types with their definitions:

<p>Charitable trusts = Established for a charitable purpose with stricter legal oversight Nonprofit corporations = Formed for purposes like charity, education, or religion LLCs = Flexible structure for any lawful business including mission-driven L3Cs = Hybrid entity for charitable and profit motives</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nonprofit organization type is often used for privacy and flexibility in assets?

<p>Limited Liability Companies (LLCs) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Partnerships are a common choice for new nonprofit organizations due to their lower tax rates.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which legal body can sue a nonprofit corporation in the state of incorporation?

<p>The attorney general</p> Signup and view all the answers

An LLC that combines charitable purposes with profit-making is known as an __________.

<p>L3C</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match each nonprofit type to its purpose:

<p>Nonprofit organizations = Formed for charitable or educational purposes Corporations = Created for profit-making activities Charitable trusts = Established for public good Partnerships = Typically created for profit ventures</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a requirement for purely public charities regarding the class of persons they serve?

<p>Benefit a substantial and indefinite class (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Nonprofit corporations have different regulatory oversight compared to charitable trusts.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum percentage of services that must be provided for free to qualify for charitable status?

<p>20%</p> Signup and view all the answers

A general partnership is controlled by partners, where general partners have complete __________.

<p>control</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is NOT a characteristic of nonprofit corporations?

<p>Controlled by shareholders (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following types of nonprofit organizations typically operates in the charitable sector?

<p>501(c)(3) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Nonprofits can distribute profits to shareholders.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What document is crucial for establishing a nonprofit's formal organization and legal structure?

<p>Articles of incorporation</p> Signup and view all the answers

The _______________ is the form used to apply for tax-exempt status under the IRS code for nonprofit organizations.

<p>Form 1023</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the type of nonprofit with its description:

<p>501(c)(3) = Charitable organizations that can receive tax-deductible donations 501(c)(7) = Social clubs for recreational purposes 501(c)(8) = Organizations that provide benefits to their members and do not allow tax-deductible donations L3C = Low-profit limited liability company focused on social mission without profit distribution</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a typical consideration when choosing the legal structure of a nonprofit?

<p>Personal profit potential (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The 990 form is used primarily for gathering financial information about tax-exempt organizations.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Name one component typically found in the bylaws of a nonprofit organization.

<p>Board of directors</p> Signup and view all the answers

Nonprofits must file IRS forms to maintain _______________ and encourage donations.

<p>tax-exempt status</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a distinguishing feature of a Limited Dividend Corporation?

<p>It does not share profits. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Public benefit corporations are completely unregulated in their operations.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why may law firms decline to be the registered agent for a nonprofit?

<p>Liability concerns</p> Signup and view all the answers

The form submitted by small tax-exempt organizations to demonstrate their exemption is called ______________.

<p>Form 990-N</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following forms with their primary purpose:

<p>Form 1023 = Application for 501(c)(3) exemption Form 990 = Annual reporting for tax-exempt organizations Form 990-T = Tax payments for unrelated business income Form 990-EZ = Simplified reporting for smaller organizations</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the user fee for a 1023 application?

<p>$600 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about 1023-EZ applications is true?

<p>The user fee is $275. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Nonprofit organizations can distribute profits to private shareholders.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must organizations meet to qualify for federal tax exemption under Section 501(c)(3)?

<p>They must be organized and operated exclusively for exempt purposes.</p> Signup and view all the answers

The IRS user fee for a 1023-EZ application is _____ dollars.

<p>275</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following forms with their corresponding descriptions:

<p>990 = Annual information return for larger nonprofits 990 EZ = Simplified tax form for smaller nonprofits 990-N = e-Postcard for very small organizations 990-P = Return for private foundations</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the case of Airlie Foundation v. Commissioner, what was a potential issue raised?

<p>Improper financial benefits to Airlie insiders. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The operational test requires an organization to engage primarily in non-exempt activities.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does 'Cy Pres' allow regarding unclaimed funds?

<p>It allows the courts to award unclaimed funds to a nonprofit organization.</p> Signup and view all the answers

An organization can request an expedited letter to expedite their application, but it must be made in _____ and explain the reason.

<p>writing</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following organizations with their characteristics:

<p>BLM = Not a 501(c)(3) organization Oath Keepers = Lost 501(c)(3) status after Jan 6th Airlie Foundation = Tax-exempt since 1963 Universities = Questioned for financial motives</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the user fee for filing form 990 EZ?

<p>No fee (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

All expenses of a nonprofit can be directly allocated to exempt activities.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which entity has the authority to determine if an organization qualifies for tax-exempt status?

<p>The IRS</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action might members of a nonprofit take if they are dissatisfied with the leadership?

<p>Vote to remove board members (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Directors of a nonprofit can be held liable for gross negligence under their duty of care.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the duty of loyalty require directors to avoid?

<p>Harming the corporation</p> Signup and view all the answers

A __________ occurs when a nonprofit's activities deviate from its original mission as defined in its governing documents.

<p>mission drift</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the case of nonpublic information, which of the following describes a conflict of interest?

<p>Using insider knowledge for personal gain (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Trustees of charitable hospitals are evaluated under a less stringent standard than corporate directors.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What needs to be disclosed by board members when a conflict of interest arises?

<p>The conflict of interest itself</p> Signup and view all the answers

The duty to ensure that the organization's activities align with its stated goals is known as the duty of __________.

<p>obedience</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the type of breach of duty with the corresponding description:

<p>Duty of Care = Failure to manage investments properly Duty of Loyalty = Using organization assets for personal benefit Duty of Obedience = Straying from the organization's mission Duty to Disclose = Not informing the board about conflicts of interest</p> Signup and view all the answers

What was a significant outcome of the Nixon v. Lichtenstein case?

<p>There was a breach of income relations as outlined in the organization's articles (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Members must not vote on matters where they have a personal interest.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is necessary for liability insurance for Directors and Officers to be effective?

<p>It must cover potential claims against them.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of Cy Pres in charitable trusts?

<p>To adjust the trust to meet changing circumstances (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Cy Pres can only be applied in cases where the charitable interest is entirely impossible.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

List the three elements necessary for invoking Cy Pres.

<ol> <li>A valid charitable trust exists; 2. The settlor's specific charitable obligation is frustrated; 3. The settlor had a general charitable intent.</li> </ol> Signup and view all the answers

The board of directors has a duty to act in good faith and with a duty of __________ and __________.

<p>care, diligence</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements best describes the duty of care for directors?

<p>Directors must act with diligence and make informed decisions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A deviation from a charitable trust can change its core objective.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of the business judgment rule?

<p>To protect directors from liability for decisions made in good faith.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following concepts with their descriptions:

<p>Cy Pres = Modification of charitable trusts when intent is frustrated Duty of Care = Responsibility to act diligently and prudently Business Judgment Rule = Protection for informed decisions made by directors Deviation = Modification of administrative aspects without changing core objectives</p> Signup and view all the answers

If the organization cannot afford liability insurance, volunteers may be protected under homeowner insurance policies up to __________.

<p>one million dollars</p> Signup and view all the answers

The settlor's specific intentions are always more important than their general charitable intent.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following duties is NOT typically held by a board of directors?

<p>To maximize profit for stakeholders (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one major distinction between nonprofit boards and for-profit boards?

<p>Nonprofit boards focus on mission and community benefit, while for-profit boards aim to enhance stakeholder interests.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What was a key aspect of the In Re Barnes Foundation case?

<p>The paintings were moved for better preservation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The duties of directors include selecting and __________ the chief executive officer.

<p>evaluating</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must an organization do to avoid adverse legal action regarding donor restrictions?

<p>Respect donor wishes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The UPMIFA allows for the spending of principal funds without restrictions.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What standard is used by the government to assess if an investment is prudent?

<p>Prudent Person standard</p> Signup and view all the answers

A fiduciary is expected to act __________ in managing funds for nonprofit organizations.

<p>unselfishly</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following terms with their definitions:

<p>Fiduciary Duty = Obligation to act in the best interest of the organization. Prudent Person Standard = Expected norm of care in managing investments. UPMIFA = Legislation governing the management of institutional funds. Attorney General = Enforcer of state laws regarding charitable trusts.</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Fitzgerald v. National Rifle Association, what was the court's ruling regarding the board's duty?

<p>Fiduciary duty extends to members and their interests. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Herzog Foundation ruling states that donors must retain a reversionary interest to enforce gift terms.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must organizations consider before making investments according to UPMIFA?

<p>Duration and preservation of the endowment fund</p> Signup and view all the answers

The doctrine requiring a prudent approach to managing charitable funds is known as the __________.

<p>Prudent Investor Rule</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens if a board fails to act in good faith regarding donor restrictions?

<p>They could be sued by unhappy donors. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Charities have become more conservative in their investment strategies in recent years.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of legal actions can the Attorney General take concerning charitable trusts?

<p>Supervision and oversight</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following legal principles with their descriptions:

<p>UMIFA = Focuses on historic value of funds UPMIFA = Encourages considering multiple factors for investment Prudent Person Standard = Ensures responsible money management Attorney General's Role = Oversight of charitable entities</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under the UPMIFA, funds can be spent based on __________ only if they align with the purposes of the institution.

<p>seven factors</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of fiduciary duty, what is the expected role of nonprofit board members?

<p>To act in the best interests of the nonprofit and its constituents.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum percentage a professional fundraiser can charge without being presumed unreasonable?

<p>35% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A professional fundraiser is required to disclose how much of the donations go to the charity and how much they retain for themselves.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Charleston Principles primarily deal with?

<p>Personal jurisdiction in electronic solicitations.</p> Signup and view all the answers

The ________ test is used to determine if an online activity intentionally targets a jurisdiction.

<p>Calder</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following categories of charitable purposes with their descriptions:

<p>Relief of the poor = Support those in distress Advancement of education = Enhancing educational institutions Promotion of social welfare = Improving community living conditions Advancement of religion = Supporting religious organizations</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under the operational test, what is considered when determining if a nonprofit is operating consistent with its stated purposes?

<p>Mission compliance (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

All nonprofits are automatically exempt from paying taxes upon registration.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do crowd funding platforms often lack clarity on regarding charitable solicitation?

<p>Registration and reporting requirements.</p> Signup and view all the answers

A partnership between a for-profit business and a nonprofit organization where profits are shared is called ________ marketing.

<p>cause-related</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the types of charitable organizations with their roles:

<p>501(c)(3) = Charitable organizations serving public interest 501(c)(4) = Organizations promoting social welfare 501(c)(6) = Business leagues and associations 501(c)(7) = Social clubs and recreational organizations</p> Signup and view all the answers

What requirement applies to professional fundraisers under the State Charitable Solicitation Act?

<p>They must have a license (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Fundraisers are not allowed to claim they are professionals without proper licensing.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What fundamental right does the regulation of commercial speech come under?

<p>First Amendment</p> Signup and view all the answers

The income generated from charitable activities that do not qualify for tax exemption is known as ______ income.

<p>unrelated business</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the operational test for organizations?

<p>Determination of the actual activities aimed at accomplishing exempt purposes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An organization can be considered educational even if it advocates a particular position.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one key difference between education and propaganda?

<p>Education promotes critical thinking while propaganda uses selective information.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following parties can typically initiate legal action against a charity?

<p>A special interest individual, like a director (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The revenue procedure includes a bright line test providing that an organization will qualify for exemption if at least _____ percent of its units are occupied by low-income families.

<p>75</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the revenue ruling to its focus area:

<p>Revenue Ruling 74-587 = Relief of poverty and community rebuilding Revenue Ruling 70-585 = Housing for low and moderate-income families</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Attorney General has exclusive authority to enforce charitable trusts or corporations.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must donors provide to ensure their gift is used as intended?

<p>Specific evidence of donative intent</p> Signup and view all the answers

What signifies that an organization is primarily educational in its advocacy?

<p>Presenting different perspectives based on factual information (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Political organizations that meet specific conditions do not have to apply for special tax status.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Attorney General cannot manage charities in their ___ affairs.

<p>everyday</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main goal of the Methodology Test?

<p>To determine if advocacy can be considered educational under section 501(c)(3).</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following legal provisions with their descriptions:

<p>§ 501(c)(3) = Tax-exempt status for charitable organizations Charitable Solicitation Acts = Regulations governing fundraising activities United Cancer Council, Inc. v. Commissioner = Case addressing private benefit in charities 4958 of the code = Imposes taxes on unreasonable compensation in charities</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under which of the following conditions might a private party have standing to intervene in charity-related legal matters?

<p>If the Attorney General is not acting to protect charitable assets (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Organizations that do not operate day to day in businesses are considered _____ for their charitable activities.

<p>charitable</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the test or analysis to its description:

<p>Vagueness Analysis = Concerns with legal clarity for enforcement Full and Fair Exposition test = Requires comprehensive facts for opinion formation</p> Signup and view all the answers

Only the Attorney General is allowed to sue on behalf of charitable organizations.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT an indicator of educational activity?

<p>Failure to provide a factual foundation for viewpoints (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is meant by 'negative accountability' in nonprofit organizations?

<p>Failures that allow self-dealing or quasi-looting.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Organizations advocating only one viewpoint are likely considered educational.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Charitable contributions must be clearly documented to ensure they follow the donor's _____.

<p>intent</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is meant by 'public interest' in the context of tax exemption?

<p>Relief of the poor and distressed or community rebuilding.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common reason for the AG to decline to permit a public donor standing in legal matters against a charity?

<p>To avoid entanglements in political issues (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Uniform Trust Code allows donors to sue if their gift is not used as intended.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The methodology test was challenged in the case of _____ v. Commissioner.

<p>National Movement</p> Signup and view all the answers

What issue arose in the Robertson Family and Princeton case?

<p>Misuse of donated funds meant to train students.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Parties lacking a discrete injury cannot challenge the government's failure to enforce ___ against charities.

<p>§ 501(c)(3)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose that a tax-exempt organization must serve?

<p>Public benefit (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following nonprofit accountability types with their definitions:

<p>Negative accountability = Failures leading to self-dealing Positive accountability = Effectiveness in executing mission Charitable Solicitation Acts = Regulations for fundraising Uniform Trust Code = Legal framework for trusts</p> Signup and view all the answers

Private foundations primarily receive funding from the general public.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential consequence if a nonprofit does not comply with solicitation regulations?

<p>Civil penalties and return of donations (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key criterion for an organization to qualify as a 501(c)(3) entity?

<p>Operate for religious, charitable, scientific, literary, or educational purposes</p> Signup and view all the answers

Public charities must have public support of at least ______ percent of their total support.

<p>33.3</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the IRS tax-exempt categories with their descriptions:

<p>501(c)(3) = Operates for charitable purposes 501(c)(4) = Promotes social welfare 501(c)(5) = Represents labor and agricultural associations 501(c)(7) = Supports recreational organizations</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who qualifies as a 'disqualified person'?

<p>Substantial contributors and their family members (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A recreational organization can fall under the category of 501(c)(3).

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of units must be occupied by residents who are classified as 'very-low income'?

<p>20% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the public support test entail for public charities?

<p>At least 33.3% of their total support must come from the public.</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 'qualified disaster' can only result from natural occurrences.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A charity's percentage of investment income may not exceed ______ percent of the total for it to qualify under the Exempt Function Income Test.

<p>33.3</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of a land trust?

<p>To protect land for its natural, recreational, scenic, historical, or productive value.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following support tests with their requirements:

<p>509(a)(1) = Public support must be one-third or more of total support 509(a)(2) = Public support must be at least 10% of total support with other criteria Public Support Test = Not more than one-third of income is derived from specific sources Disqualified Person Test = Includes substantial donors and their family members</p> Signup and view all the answers

A __________ is a nonprofit organization that acquires and maintains ecologically significant undeveloped land.

<p>land trust</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of organizations primarily serve educational purposes?

<p>501(c)(3) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Civil disobedience is considered an educational purpose for tax-exempt organizations.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following Rev.Rulings with their descriptions:

<p>Rev.Rul. 76-204 = Acquisition of ecologically significant undeveloped land Rev.Rul. 78-384 = Restrictions on farmland use for ecological purposes Rev.Pro 92-59 = Public interest legal services</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a requirement for providing disaster relief payments?

<p>The beneficiaries must be part of a defined charitable class. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the threshold for a 'substantial contributor' to a private foundation?

<p>$5,000 or 2% of Total Support</p> Signup and view all the answers

An organization is not considered a public charity if it is primarily __________, as opposed to serving the general public.

<p>supported by one donor</p> Signup and view all the answers

Organizations organized for religious purposes must file Form 1023 to qualify for tax-exempt status.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'Passive Recreation' refer to?

<p>Activities such as walking on clear trails.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Charities are not allowed to make __________ transfers of funds.

<p>outright</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following assistance types with their descriptions:

<p>Credit Counseling = Helping individuals gain control over finances Employer Related Assistance = Aid based on objective determination of need Disaster Relief = Aid provided after an incident deemed a qualified disaster</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following reflects the required compensation for attorneys under Public Interest Legal Services?

<p>Attorneys are compensated based on the board's decision. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Low-income individuals do not qualify for credit counseling unless they are totally bankrupt.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the case of Bob Jones University, the organization could not qualify for tax-exempt status due to conflicts with what?

<p>Public policy.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Assistance designation must be based on an objective determination by an __________ committee.

<p>independent</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Nonprofit vs. Charity

Not all nonprofits are charities. Charities are a specific type of nonprofit focused on providing public good or relief from distress, with specific IRS requirements.

501(c)(3) Public Charity

A type of recognized charity under U.S. tax code, specifically for public good and community support.

501(c)(3) School Charity

Another recognized (c)(3) charity. These are educational institutions.

Public Benefit Nonprofit

Nonprofit dedicated to generating social and public good, operating sustainably and responsibly.

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Eleemosynary

A type of charity that helps with individual distress related to poverty, age, illness, or similar challenges.

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IRS Form 990

A tax form required for many U.S. charities to report their activities and finances to the IRS.

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(c)(7) Social Clubs

A type of organization that fits under federal non-profit structure but not considered charities.

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Mutual Benefit Nonprofit

Type of non-profit corporation that advances the interests of its members, not the general public.

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Nonprofit vs. Tax-exempt

Nonprofits are organizations focused on social missions, while tax-exempt status reduces their tax burden. These aren't always equivalent.

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Nonprofit Rationales

Reasons why nonprofits exist, including market failure, government failure, promoting pluralism and solidarity, and fulfilling unmet societal needs.

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Hansmann's Agency Theory

Nonprofits face agency problems (i.e., potential conflicts of interest) due to their non-distribution constraint when providing services. This limits incentives for for-profit behavior.

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Contract Failure (Nonprofits)

Issues in service delivery where nonprofits may operate with third-party payment, public goods delivery, complex personal services, all needing quality control.

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Capital Subsidy Theory

Tax exemptions help nonprofits overcome funding challenges by allowing them to gather capital.

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Non-distribution Constraint

A key feature of nonprofits; profits cannot be distributed to owners or shareholders.

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Pluralism in Nonprofits

Nonprofits support diverse viewpoints by allowing non-mainstream perspectives to be heard and acted upon.

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Public Goods

Goods or services where benefits accrue to everyone, regardless of individual contribution; difficult to exclude others from enjoying the services once provided.

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For-profit Charities

Alternative to traditional nonprofits advocating that businesses may be able to provide goods and services more cost effectively

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Income Measurement Theory

Difficulty in objectively measuring the "income" of nonprofits, impacting taxation calculations.

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Donative Theory

Exemptions should be granted to nonprofits with significant public financial support.

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Altruism Theory

Exempting nonprofits to reward the philanthropic values of founders.

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Market Failure

Instances where the market falls short of adequately meeting societal needs; nonprofits play role.

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Government Failure

Situations where government may not adequately address or provide certain services, necessitating nonprofit action.

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Nonprofit Organization Types

Different legal structures used for nonprofits, each with varying governance, taxation, and transparency.

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Charitable Trust

A legal entity created for charitable purposes, controlled by trustees, and often used for organizations like museums or foundations.

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Nonprofit Corporation

A non-profit organization with a legal structure similar to a for-profit corporation but with no distribution of profits to owners.

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Limited Liability Company (LLC)

A flexible legal structure that can be used for both for-profit and nonprofit purposes, offering limited liability.

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LLC for Advocacy

Using an LLC for advocacy work, often chosen for its flexibility and privacy compared to a nonprofit.

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L3C (Low-Profit Limited Liability Company)

A hybrid legal structure aiming to combine a charitable purpose with profit-making, bridging the gap between for-profit and nonprofits.

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Partnership

A legal structure where two or more individuals or entities share in the profits and losses of a business.

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Trustees

Individuals responsible for governing a charitable trust, ensuring its operations align with its charitable purpose.

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Directors

Individuals responsible for governing a nonprofit corporation, ensuring its operations align with its mission.

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Shareholders

Owners of a for-profit corporation who have a stake in its success.

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Members

Individuals who belong to a nonprofit organization, often having voting rights in its governance.

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Public Information

Nonprofit corporations are generally required to make their financial information publicly available, fostering transparency.

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Operating Agreement

A legal document outlining the rules and responsibilities within an LLC, including governance, membership, and profit-sharing.

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Tax-Exempt Status

A nonprofit organization, typically classified under IRS code (e.g., 501(c)(3)), enjoys exemption from paying federal income taxes. Donations to these organizations are often tax-deductible for the donors.

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Nonprofit Compliance

Nonprofits must adhere to stringent reporting and compliance requirements to maintain their tax-exempt status. This includes filing annual tax forms and adhering to certain operational guidelines.

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Articles of Incorporation

A document outlining the essential information of a corporation, including its purpose, structure, and governance. It's often required when establishing a nonprofit corporation.

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Registered Agent

A designated individual or entity responsible for receiving legal notices and communications on behalf of the corporation. They often have a fiduciary duty to the organization.

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Nonprofit with Stock?

A nonprofit organization cannot have stock. This is because stock implies ownership and shareholders, which contradicts the core principle of nonprofits.

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Membership Rights

Members of a nonprofit organization may have access to financial and other information based on their membership rights. It's important to clearly define these rights.

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Teleconferencing Requirements

If a nonprofit requires a teleconference, it should be conducted using methods like Zoom or phone calls, not just text messages.

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Subverters

A potentially controversial topic in the nonprofit world. Some argue that 'subverters,' similar to stock certificates, could provide value or incentives. However, it's a debated practice.

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Personal Liability for Nonprofits

Generally, there is no personal liability for nonprofit executives in Pennsylvania, unless there's gross negligence, motor vehicle operation, or sexual misconduct.

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501(c)(3) Charitable Organizations

These nonprofits focus on educational, scientific, literary, religious, or charitable purposes. They often rely on public donations and government grants.

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501(c)(8) Social and Recreational Clubs

These clubs often provide pay benefits to their members. Contributions to them are typically not tax-deductible.

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What is a 1023?

A form an organization uses to apply for IRS recognition as tax-exempt. It's used to receive a "determination letter" or "ruling letter" confirming their exemption.

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Disregarded Entity, Partnership, C Corporation, or S Corporation

These are common entity types for nonprofits to choose from, each with its own tax implications and governance structure.

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What is a 1023-EZ?

A simplified form for smaller organizations. It's like the 1023, but for nonprofits with gross receipts of $50,000 or less annually.

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Nonprofit Constraint: No Equity

Nonprofits cannot have equity because they lack owners or shareholders. All funds are directed towards furthering their mission.

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Expedited Letter Request

A request to get a decision on an IRS application, petition, or request faster. It requires a written explanation.

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Bylaw Components

Bylaws of a nonprofit outline important elements like its name, conflict of interest policies, board structure, governance, and dissolution procedures.

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Annual Information Returns

Required tax forms that nonprofits file annually to report their financial activity.

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Form 990

A common annual information return for non-profits.

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Form 990-P

A specific annual information return that U.S. private foundations file.

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Lawful Purpose for a Nonprofit

A purpose that is legal and doesn't involve making a profit for private individuals.

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Non-commercial Purpose

A nonprofit's activities must not be primarily for making money or competing in a market.

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What was the Airlie Foundation case about?

A court case that determined whether a nonprofit's conference center provided services at a price that was too close to market value, potentially violating its non-profit status.

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Operational Test for Non-profit Activities

The IRS checks if a non-profit's actions mainly achieve their exempt purpose and don't violate their status.

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BSW Group Case

Similar to the Airlie Foundation case, it involved a non-profit doing work for for-profit organizations, raising questions about their non-profit status.

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Universities as Non-profits

There are ongoing debates about whether universities are truly non-profit organizations due to their large financial operations and potential commercial activities

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Rev Rul 75-384

An IRS ruling concluding an organization was ineligible for tax exemption due to encouraging or facilitating criminal activities.

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Cy Pres

A legal doctrine that allows courts to redirect funds from a settlement or judgment to a non-profit, if it's impossible to give it directly to the intended recipients.

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Cy Pres Doctrine

A legal principle allowing courts to modify a charitable trust's purpose when the original intent becomes impossible, ensuring the donated funds remain dedicated to a similar charitable cause.

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Cy Pres Application

The Cy Pres doctrine is applied when a charitable trust's original purpose becomes impossible or impractical to fulfill due to changing circumstances.

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Cy Pres Elements

To apply Cy Pres, courts require proof of a valid charitable trust, frustration of the donor's specific intent, AND a general charitable intent beyond the original purpose.

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Cy Pres Policy

The Cy Pres doctrine upholds charitable intentions despite changing circumstances, ensuring that the donated funds are used effectively for public benefit.

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Deviation Doctrine

A legal principle allowing modifications to the administrative or operational aspects of both charitable and public trusts without altering their core objectives.

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Deviation vs Cy Pres

Deviation modifies trust administration (how), while Cy Pres adjusts the core purpose (what) when it becomes unfeasible.

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Board of Directors' Roles

Nonprofit boards select and oversee the CEO, set strategic direction, ensure resources, monitor performance, and promote responsible management.

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Duty of Care for Directors

Nonprofit board members must act in good faith and exert reasonable diligence, attention, care, and skill in fulfilling their responsibilities.

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Business Judgement Rule

Protects nonprofit board decisions made in good faith and with reasonable care, even if the outcome is negative, unless fraud, illegality, or conflict of interest is involved.

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Void Business Judgement Rule

Removes legal protection for board decisions when made in bad faith, with conflicts of interest, or through gross negligence, permitting scrutiny and potential overturn.

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PA Board Duty of Inquiry

Pennsylvania nonprofit boards must actively read, review, and inquire about relevant information, stay current on industry trends, and exercise independent judgment.

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Board Duty of Attendance

Nonprofit board members must attend meetings prepared, read materials beforehand, and ensure delegation to suitable individuals if needed.

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Volunteer Protection Insurance

Many homeowner insurance policies offer volunteer protection coverage, typically up to a million dollars, for those serving on nonprofit boards.

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Member-Based Org Voting

Organizations with members must address the issue of inactive voters or members, as this can impact decisions and the organization's future.

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Dissolution of Membership Orgs

When membership organizations dissolve, their assets should be transferred to charitable or similar uses, guided by the organization's initial documents.

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Duty of Care (Nonprofit)

A director's responsibility to act diligently and prudently in the best interest of the nonprofit, using reasonable care and judgment.

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George Pepperdine Foundation Case

Illustrates that a nonprofit director does not breach their duty of care if they act in good faith, even if decisions lead to financial losses.

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Stern v. Lucy Webb Hayes Case

Establishes that trustees of charitable hospitals must adhere to corporate standards of care, including supervising investments and avoiding conflicts of interest.

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Mission Drift

When a nonprofit deviates from its stated purpose as outlined in its articles of association or certificate of incorporation.

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Directors' & Officers' Liability Insurance

Insurance covering potential financial losses incurred by nonprofit directors and officers due to claims of negligence or misconduct.

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Duty of Loyalty (Nonprofit)

Directors must act solely for the benefit of the nonprofit, prioritizing its interests over personal gain.

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Interested Transactions

Activities where a nonprofit director has a personal interest that could conflict with their duty to the nonprofit.

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Usurpation of Business Opportunity

When a director takes an opportunity that could have benefited the nonprofit for their personal gain.

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Insider Advantages

Using non-public information or position within a nonprofit for personal gain.

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Competing with the Organization

A director operating a business that competes with the nonprofit they serve.

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Nixon v. Lichtenstein Case

Highlights the stricter duty of care required for directors of charitable corporations, applying trust law standards.

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Conflict of Interest (Nonprofit)

When a director's personal interests potentially conflict with their responsibilities to the nonprofit.

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Disclosure of Conflict of Interest

Board members are expected to reveal any potential conflicts of interest and abstain from voting or using personal influence on related matters.

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Annual Record of Conflicts

Nonprofits should maintain a record of all disclosed conflicts of interest, ensuring transparency and accountability.

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Board Member Responsibilities in Conflicts

In cases of conflict, board members must abstain from voting or using personal influence on the matter, ensuring objectivity.

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Commercial Speech Regulation

The government can restrict certain aspects of commercial speech, such as fundraising, to protect the public interest. However, these restrictions must meet specific constitutional requirements.

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Content-Based Regulation

A form of regulation that specifically targets the message or content of speech. Such regulations are generally considered unconstitutional, especially for protected speech like political speech.

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Intermediate Scrutiny

A legal standard used to assess the constitutionality of regulations on commercial speech. The government must demonstrate that the restrictions are necessary to achieve a substantial interest, are narrowly tailored, and leave open alternative channels for communication.

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Charleston Principles

A set of guidelines developed by the National Association of Attorney Generals to help determine when states have jurisdiction over online charitable solicitations.

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Sliding Scale Test (Zippo)

A legal test used to determine personal jurisdiction over websites based on the level of interactivity and the nature of the exchange between the website and the user.

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Calder or 'Effects' Test

Legal test to establish jurisdiction in cases where a defendant's actions intentionally target a specific state and cause harm within that state.

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Crowd Funding and Charities

The legal framework for crowd funding activities by charities is still developing. States are figuring out how to regulate these new forms of fundraising, especially when it comes to fraud and scams.

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Cause-Related Marketing

A partnership where a for-profit business promotes a cause or product and donates a portion of the proceeds to a charity.

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501(c)(3) Tax Exemption

A federal tax exemption that allows charitable organizations to avoid paying taxes on their income if they meet certain criteria.

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Community Benefit Standard

A legal standard applied to hospitals and health-related nonprofits, requiring them to demonstrably benefit the community they serve.

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Organizational Test (501(c)(3))

One part of the 501(c)(3) requirements, verifying if an organization is formally structured for charitable purposes and lacks ownership or shareholders.

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Operational Test (501(c)(3))

Another requirement for 501(c)(3) status, assessing if an organization's operations are consistent with its stated charitable purposes.

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Incorporation to Filing Coverage (501(c)(3))

A key step for nonprofits seeking 501(c)(3) status. Organizations can apply for a shorter-term exemption (501(c)(4)) before filing for the full exemption.

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IHC Health Plans, Inc. v. Commissioner

A landmark case that clarified exceptions for certain types of hospital operations when applying the community benefit standard.

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Standing

The legal right to sue in court, based on having a direct and substantial interest in a case.

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Organizational Test

A test to determine if a nonprofit's activities align with its stated exempt purposes. It examines the organization's overall structure and mission.

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Operational Test

Evaluates whether a nonprofit's actual activities are genuinely directed towards achieving its exempt purposes. It looks beyond paperwork to real-world actions.

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Vagueness Analysis

A legal test examining whether a law clearly communicates its meaning. It prevents arbitrary enforcement based on unclear rules.

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Full and Fair Exposition Test

Applies to educational nonprofits advocating a particular position. It requires them to present a balanced view with sufficient facts to allow for independent judgments.

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Methodology Test

A framework for gauging if an organization's advocacy is truly educational, requiring a factual foundation for its viewpoints. It aims to prevent manipulative tactics.

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Education vs. Propaganda

Education fosters critical thinking, diverse perspectives, and fact-based methods. Propaganda manipulates facts, aims to sway emotions, and lacks balanced views.

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Political Organizations (Section 527)

Groups focused on political activities, including political parties, PACs, and funds supporting candidates or causes. They receive tax exemptions but net investment income is taxable.

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Tax Exemption and Public Policy

Nonprofits promote public interest by relieving poverty, prejudice, or community deterioration. Their tax-exempt status supports these public goals.

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Revenue Ruling 74-587

A guide for determining if a nonprofit's activities qualify for tax exemption. It focuses on objectives like poverty relief and community revitalization.

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Revenue Ruling 70-585

Explains charitable housing programs. It defines activities that qualify for tax exemption, prioritizing assistance for low-income families and community improvement.

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Bright Line Test (Housing)

A clear rule for determining if a housing organization qualifies for tax exemption. Requires at least 75% of units to be occupied by low-income families.

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Nonprofit Advocacy

Nonprofits can advocate for a specific position or viewpoint within their mission. However, they must present a full and balanced perspective.

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Public Charity

A specific type of 501(c)(3) nonprofit organization focused on serving the public good and advancing community well-being.

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School Charity

A type of public charity that focuses on education, providing instruction and training for individuals and the public.

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Land Trusts

Nonprofit organizations that conserve land by acquiring, protecting, and managing it to maintain its natural, recreational, scenic, historical, or productive values.

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Rev. Ruling 76-204

An IRS ruling that established the public benefit aspect of land conservation and allowed nonprofits to restrict public access while protecting ecosystems.

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Rev. Ruling 78-384

An IRS ruling that clarified the requirements for nonprofits that hold farmland and restrict its use. To qualify, the land must have a distinctive ecological significance, such as preserving endangered species.

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Public Interest Legal Services

Nonprofit organizations that provide legal assistance to the public, focusing on civil rights, social justice, and community issues.

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Rev.Pro 92-59

An IRS guidance that establishes standards for public interest legal service organizations to preserve their tax-exempt status.

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Qualified Disaster Relief Payment

A payment from a qualified charitable organization to a victim of a major disaster, which is tax-free for the recipient.

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Distressed Test

A test for qualifying as a disaster victim for relief payments. People can qualify as 'distressed' even if they aren't poor, due to the hardship of the disaster.

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Charitable Class of Beneficiaries

A group of recipients that are large and varied enough to demonstrate a public benefit when receiving disaster relief aid.

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Employer-Related Assistance

Disaster relief assistance from an employer to its employees. It is allowed under certain conditions, such as a large group of employees receiving aid from an independent committee.

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Credit Counseling

A type of nonprofit organization that helps people with financial distress manage their finances and avoid predatory practices.

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Internal Rev.Code 501(q)

A section of the U.S. tax code that outlines the requirements for credit counseling organizations to qualify for tax-exempt status.

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Religious Schools

Schools affiliated with religious organizations. They can be tax-exempt under certain conditions, even if they have religious teachings.

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Bob Jones University Case

A landmark Supreme Court case that determined that an organization could lose its tax-exempt status if it violated public policy through discriminatory practices.

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Attorney General's Role in Charity Oversight

The Attorney General (AG) has the power to investigate and protect charities from misconduct, including self-dealing. However, they cannot manage the day-to-day operations of charities.

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Standing to Sue a Charity

Generally, only the Attorney General or individuals with a 'special interest' (like directors) can sue a charity. The public usually lacks standing unless there's a specific law granting it.

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What is a 'Special Interest'?

A 'special interest' in a charity lawsuit requires: the AG not acting, charity assets needing protection, serious misconduct, appropriate relief, and a connection to the charity.

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Can Anyone Sue a Charity?

While the AG has oversight, trustees, directors, and those with a 'special interest' can also sue to enforce a charity's purposes.

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Donors' Rights to Sue Charities

Donors to public charities typically don't have standing to sue over fiduciary duties. This prevents undue influence by every donor.

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Donative Intent

Donors can specify how their money is used, but they need strong evidence of their intent. Vague wishes are rarely enforced.

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Naming Rights Disputes

When a donor contributes to name a building, they often have an agreement for a certain timeframe. Disputes arise when the agreement ends or there's a buyout issue.

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Protection of Donor-Restricted Gifts

Donors' restricted gifts, while typically protected from bankruptcy and creditors, are not always enforced. This can be a lengthy and costly legal battle.

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Types of Nonprofit Accountability

Nonprofits are held accountable through 'negative accountability' (preventing misconduct) and 'positive accountability' (assessing effectiveness in achieving their mission).

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Charitable Solicitation Acts

These laws regulate how charities ask for donations (contracts). They often require registration and transparency for donors.

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Who Regulates Charitable Solicitations?

State Attorneys General, the FTC (federal), and state agencies handle charitable solicitations, focusing on truthfulness and fraud.

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Multistate Charitable Solicitation

If soliciting across state lines, a multistate registration form is needed, but extra care is required.

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Federal Impact on Charitable Misconduct

The IRS looks for private benefit (unreasonable compensation of insiders) and private inurement (too much money going to non-charitable purposes) in charities.

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Excise Taxes for Improper Charitable Giving

The Internal Revenue Code (IRC) 4958 imposes excise taxes on charities that make unreasonable payouts to individuals, incentivizing responsible spending.

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Enforcement Challenges in Nonprofits

It's difficult to measure nonprofit outcomes objectively, making enforcement challenging. Regulation focuses on preventing negative acts rather than ensuring positive results.

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501(c)(3)

A type of non-profit organization recognized by the IRS for charitable, educational, religious, scientific, or literary purposes. These organizations can receive tax-deductible donations.

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Private Foundation

A 501(c)(3) organization that primarily relies on funding from a single source (typically a wealthy individual or family) and doesn't actively seek public donations.

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Public Support Test

A set of criteria used by the IRS to determine if a non-profit organization qualifies as a 'public charity' based on its level of public funding.

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509(a)(1)

A specific public support test. It requires that at least 33% of an organization's total support comes from the general public or government. There's also a 10% test with additional requirements.

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Disqualified Person

Individuals or entities who cannot directly benefit from donations made to non-profits. This typically includes substantial contributors, their families, and foundation officers/directors.

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Tax Exemption

The legal status granted to certain organizations exempting them from paying federal income taxes. Non-profits must meet specific criteria to qualify.

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Educational Orgs

A broad category of 501(c)(3) organizations focused on providing education or training to the public.

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Non-Discriminatory Statement

A statement that's required for educational 501(c)(3) organizations stating that they don't discriminate against anyone based on factors like race or religion.

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Big Mama Rag v. United States

A legal case involving a non-profit organization that was denied tax-exempt status because its primary purpose was considered to be the presentation of unsupported opinions rather than education.

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Donor Restricted Gifts

Donations given with specific instructions on how they must be used, such as for a particular project or purpose. The organization is legally obligated to follow these restrictions.

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Prudent Person Standard

A legal standard used to evaluate the investment decisions of trustees managing funds, requiring them to act with the same care and skill as a prudent person would managing their own money.

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UMIFA

The Uniform Management of Institutional Funds Act, a model law that allows nonprofits to spend both the income and appreciation of endowment funds, but requires preservation of the historical value of the endowment.

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UPMIFA

The Uniform Prudent Management of Institutional Funds Act, the updated version of UMIFA emphasizing factors like total portfolio strategy and long-term performance in investment decisions.

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Fiduciary Duty

A legal obligation to act in the best interests of another party, putting their needs before one's own. Nonprofit boards owe fiduciary duties to their members and the organization itself.

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Attorney General's Role

The Attorney General has oversight of charitable organizations, ensuring they operate according to legal requirements and protect the public interest.

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Fitzgerald v. National Rifle Association

A landmark case establishing that nonprofit boards have a fiduciary duty to their members, which includes promoting the organization's best interests.

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Herzog Foundation

A case that clarifies that only the Attorney General has standing to enforce the terms of a charitable gift, unless the donor retains a reversionary interest.

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Duty of Care

A director's responsibility to act diligently and prudently, using reasonable care and judgment when making decisions for the nonprofit.

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Duty of Loyalty

Directors must act solely for the benefit of the nonprofit, prioritizing its interests over personal gain.

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Conflict of Interest

When a director's personal interests potentially conflict with their responsibilities to the nonprofit.

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Study Notes

Nonprofit Organizations: Structure, Function, and Regulation

  • Nonprofits are distinct from charities; social clubs, labor unions, and homeowner associations are examples of nonprofits that aren't charities.
  • Charities (specifically 501(c)(3) organizations) are required to file paperwork with the IRS, creating a record for donors' tax breaks.
  • State-specific requirements exist for establishing a charity: Pennsylvania uses Articles of Incorporation, while New Jersey uses a Certificate of Incorporation.
  • Two key categories of 501(c)(3) charities exist: public charities (509(a)(1)) and schools (509(a)(2)).
  • Public service organizations rely on community support and donations, and are a focus of assistance.
  • Other types of charities (501(c) entities) include social clubs (501(c)(7)), and business chambers (501(c)(6)), which are voluntary associations for mutual benefit.
  • Historical context traces charitable organizations back to English charitable trusts, influencing American practice even after the Revolution.
  • The modern 501(c)(3) structure emerged around the early 1900s, coinciding with the 16th Amendment's introduction of income tax.
  • The need for oversight of charities grew, leading to annual reporting requirements, like Form 990.
  • Nonprofit vs. tax-exempt status are not the same.

Rationales for Nonprofit Existence

  • Historical role: Nonprofits fill gaps in social support, evolving as societies move beyond close-knit family structures.
  • Market failure: Nonprofits address collective goods that individuals can't afford but prefer.
  • Government failure: Nonprofits address needs government can't or won't fulfill.
  • Pluralism/freedom: Nonprofits promote diverse viewpoints and options for the public good.
  • Solidarity: Nonprofits foster shared action and collective identities.

Theories About Nonprofits

  • Hansmann's Agency Theory/Contract Failure: Nonprofits address market failures in service delivery (third-party payments, public goods, complex personal services) through specialized contracts, emphasizing nondistribution constraints.
  • Belknap emphasized nonprofit exemptions relieve government burdens.
  • Bittker's Income Measurement Theory: Tax exemptions are justified because measuring nonprofit income accurately is difficult, especially for donations-based services.
  • Hall and Colombo's Donative Theory: Nonprofits that attract significant donations are best suited for tax-exempt status.
  • Atkinson's Altruism Theory: Nonprofits are rewarded for prioritizing altruistic missions over profits.
  • Posner and Malani advocate for for-profit, benefit corporations in lieu of nonprofits claiming higher cost efficiency.
  • Leff counters, emphasizing that government oversight is necessary to ensure nonprofits serve public good.

Types of Nonprofit Organizations

  • Nonprofit corporations: Focus on charitable purposes without distributing profits.
  • Charitable trusts: Established for specific charitable purposes, overseen by trustees.
  • LLCs: Provide flexibility for businesses, but are not automatically tax-exempt.
  • L3Cs (Low-Profit Limited Liability Companies): Hybrid entities that seek social impact and can generate profits .
  • Partnerships: Often used for profit-making, but with complexities for taxation
  • Unincorporated associations: A broader category of groups, less formally structured.
  • Articles of incorporation (PA), certificate of incorporation (other states) are key documents in forming nonprofits.
  • Nonprofits cannot issue stock to define membership of shareholders.
  • Members may be given memberships without voting rights.
  • Specific procedures must be followed for tax-exempt status (Form 1023 application).
  • Annual returns (Form 990) must be filed.
  • Various forms of charitable solicitation acts are regulated according to states.

Duties and Liabilities of Nonprofit Boards

  • Duty of due care: Directors must act diligently, following the best interests of the organization. This includes appropriate procedures for decision-making and assessing potential conflicts of interest.
  • Duty of obedience: Directors must act within the scope of the organization's mission and bylaws.
  • Duty of loyalty: Directors must act in the best interests of the organization, avoiding self-dealing, conflicts of interest, and improper use of corporate assets.

Enforcement Mechanisms

  • Attorney General oversight: Plays a critical role in ensuring nonprofits operate in the public interest.
  • Standing for other parties: When the AG is not involved, specific parties with a sufficient interest may initiate legal actions.
  • Donor enforcement: Donors generally lack direct enforcement power compared to the AG.

Specific Nonprofits and Policy Issues

  • Educational institutions, churches, environmental organizations, hospitals, disaster relief organizations and others face unique considerations and regulatory standards relating to tax-exempt status
  • The organizational and operational test are criteria.

Other Key Concepts

  • Cy pres doctrine: Permits courts to modify a charitable trust or foundation's purpose when the original purpose is impossible or impractical in order to maintain the spirit of the donor’s intent.
  • Deviation: Allows modifications to the administrative aspects of an organization without changing the core charitable purpose.
  • Community benefit standard: Specific criteria apply to hospitals, including their service of the wider community
  • Public support tests: Nonprofits must have a significant portion of their support from the general public or government.
  • Cause-related marketing: Companies and nonprofits can enter into partnerships to achieve mutually beneficial marketing and financial goals.
  • Various tax rules, exemptions, and regulations for specific organizations are examined as well as their exemptions.

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Description

Explore the structure, function, and regulation of nonprofit organizations, distinguishing them from charities. Learn about the filing requirements for different states and the types of 501(c)(3) organizations, including public charities and schools. This quiz will enhance your understanding of the historical context and current legal landscape of nonprofit entities.

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