Podcast
Questions and Answers
Which NIST framework component focuses on the current and desired states of organizational risk management?
Which NIST framework component focuses on the current and desired states of organizational risk management?
- Framework Profile (correct)
- Framework Core
- Risk Management Process
- Framework Implementation Tiers
According to the NIST Cybersecurity Framework, which function is primarily concerned with detecting active cyber attacks?
According to the NIST Cybersecurity Framework, which function is primarily concerned with detecting active cyber attacks?
- Respond
- Detect (correct)
- Identify
- Protect
Which of the following best describes an organization operating at Tier 2 of the NIST Cybersecurity Framework Implementation Tiers?
Which of the following best describes an organization operating at Tier 2 of the NIST Cybersecurity Framework Implementation Tiers?
- Cybersecurity is isolated from risk management with some awareness of risks. (correct)
- Formal, documented policies are in place and integrated into planning.
- The organization is highly responsive to evolving cyber threats and adapts accordingly.
- Cybersecurity is ad hoc with inconsistent actions.
Which of the following is NOT a core function within the NIST Cybersecurity Framework?
Which of the following is NOT a core function within the NIST Cybersecurity Framework?
What is the purpose of performing a gap analysis within the NIST Cybersecurity Framework?
What is the purpose of performing a gap analysis within the NIST Cybersecurity Framework?
Which component of the NIST Privacy Framework involves establishing a dialogue around privacy risks?
Which component of the NIST Privacy Framework involves establishing a dialogue around privacy risks?
Which NIST publication provides a catalog of security and privacy controls applicable to all information systems, but serves as the STANDARD for federal information security systems?
Which NIST publication provides a catalog of security and privacy controls applicable to all information systems, but serves as the STANDARD for federal information security systems?
In SP 800-53, which control family deals with the management of security configurations?
In SP 800-53, which control family deals with the management of security configurations?
Which of these is NOT a tier in the NIST Privacy Framework?
Which of these is NOT a tier in the NIST Privacy Framework?
Which of these is a type of vulnerability that patch management addresses?
Which of these is a type of vulnerability that patch management addresses?
What is the main goal of the "Staging" environment in a DTSPD change environment?
What is the main goal of the "Staging" environment in a DTSPD change environment?
According to the content, what is the average cost of a data breach?
According to the content, what is the average cost of a data breach?
Which of the following is NOT a consequence of a data breach?
Which of the following is NOT a consequence of a data breach?
Which of these is NOT considered a key component of a Patch Management Program?
Which of these is NOT considered a key component of a Patch Management Program?
Which category of individuals is NOT considered the intended audience for SP 800-53?
Which category of individuals is NOT considered the intended audience for SP 800-53?
Which type of testing is performed to ensure diverse components of an application function as designed?
Which type of testing is performed to ensure diverse components of an application function as designed?
What type of control is implemented at the organizational level according to SP 800-53?
What type of control is implemented at the organizational level according to SP 800-53?
What is the primary purpose of 'baseline configuration' in documenting systems controls?
What is the primary purpose of 'baseline configuration' in documenting systems controls?
In the Waterfall Model, which stage primarily involves evaluating and approving changes?
In the Waterfall Model, which stage primarily involves evaluating and approving changes?
Which Act aims to adopt national standards to promote healthcare privacy and security?
Which Act aims to adopt national standards to promote healthcare privacy and security?
What does PHI stand for in the context of HIPAA?
What does PHI stand for in the context of HIPAA?
Which type of data collection involves gathering information without direct consent?
Which type of data collection involves gathering information without direct consent?
What is the main benefit of using a Parallel conversion method when implementing a new system?
What is the main benefit of using a Parallel conversion method when implementing a new system?
Which type of change environment is used to test applications in their final phases before deployment?
Which type of change environment is used to test applications in their final phases before deployment?
Which of the following is NOT a risk associated with integration?
Which of the following is NOT a risk associated with integration?
A vulnerability tool is primarily used to:
A vulnerability tool is primarily used to:
What is the purpose of data integration during the Preparation phase of the Data Lifecycle?
What is the purpose of data integration during the Preparation phase of the Data Lifecycle?
What is a key characteristic of the Agile method in comparison to the Waterfall Model?
What is a key characteristic of the Agile method in comparison to the Waterfall Model?
Which type of data logging focuses on recording access to files?
Which type of data logging focuses on recording access to files?
What is the main purpose of archiving data in the Data Lifecycle?
What is the main purpose of archiving data in the Data Lifecycle?
Which of these is a type of change that is typically considered routine as part of Change Management?
Which of these is a type of change that is typically considered routine as part of Change Management?
What is the primary advantage of a full backup compared to other types of backups?
What is the primary advantage of a full backup compared to other types of backups?
Which type of disaster recovery site has equipment on site but not plugged in?
Which type of disaster recovery site has equipment on site but not plugged in?
What does a differential backup do?
What does a differential backup do?
What is the most important step in developing a disaster recovery plan?
What is the most important step in developing a disaster recovery plan?
Which type of backup copies data items that have changed since the last backup?
Which type of backup copies data items that have changed since the last backup?
What is the primary concern when moving from a private to a public cloud computing model?
What is the primary concern when moving from a private to a public cloud computing model?
Which of the following is NOT a type of processing control in an information system?
Which of the following is NOT a type of processing control in an information system?
What is a key benefit of using an Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system?
What is a key benefit of using an Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system?
Which of the following is a valid concern associated with adopting a Cloud Service Provider (CSP)?
Which of the following is a valid concern associated with adopting a Cloud Service Provider (CSP)?
What is the purpose of a reasonableness test in an accounting information system?
What is the purpose of a reasonableness test in an accounting information system?
What is the primary focus of risk assessment in all SOC engagements?
What is the primary focus of risk assessment in all SOC engagements?
Which of the following is a qualitative factor considered when assessing materiality for SOC1?
Which of the following is a qualitative factor considered when assessing materiality for SOC1?
What is a 'Deviation or Exception' in the context of a SOC engagement?
What is a 'Deviation or Exception' in the context of a SOC engagement?
What is a 'Service Commitment' in the context of a SOC engagement?
What is a 'Service Commitment' in the context of a SOC engagement?
What is the auditor's responsibility when a security breach is identified?
What is the auditor's responsibility when a security breach is identified?
Which of the following is NOT an additional auditor responsibility when planning a SOC2 or SOC3 engagement?
Which of the following is NOT an additional auditor responsibility when planning a SOC2 or SOC3 engagement?
Which of the following is considered a 'System Requirement' in the context of a SOC engagement?
Which of the following is considered a 'System Requirement' in the context of a SOC engagement?
Which of the following is an example of a 'Description Misstatement' in a SOC engagement?
Which of the following is an example of a 'Description Misstatement' in a SOC engagement?
What is the role of professional skepticism in addressing RMM in an audit?
What is the role of professional skepticism in addressing RMM in an audit?
What is the auditor's responsibility regarding subsequent events in a SOC engagement?
What is the auditor's responsibility regarding subsequent events in a SOC engagement?
Which of the following is NOT a HIPAA safeguard category?
Which of the following is NOT a HIPAA safeguard category?
What was the primary goal of the HITECH Act of 2009?
What was the primary goal of the HITECH Act of 2009?
Which of the following best describes the scope of GDPR's applicability?
Which of the following best describes the scope of GDPR's applicability?
In the context of GDPR, what does the principle of 'Purpose Limitation' primarily ensure?
In the context of GDPR, what does the principle of 'Purpose Limitation' primarily ensure?
What does the acronym 'RAN' stand for in the context of GDPR's principle of Data Minimization?
What does the acronym 'RAN' stand for in the context of GDPR's principle of Data Minimization?
Which of the following is NOT one of the six goals of PCI DSS?
Which of the following is NOT one of the six goals of PCI DSS?
What does CIS stand for in the context of cybersecurity?
What does CIS stand for in the context of cybersecurity?
According to the CIS Controls, what does the design principle Offense Informs Defense primarily mean?
According to the CIS Controls, what does the design principle Offense Informs Defense primarily mean?
Which CIS implementation group is most suited for organizations that handle highly sensitive data and are subject to regulatory oversight?
Which CIS implementation group is most suited for organizations that handle highly sensitive data and are subject to regulatory oversight?
What is the primary purpose of CIS Control 3?
What is the primary purpose of CIS Control 3?
Which of these is NOT a common feature of CIS Control 5
Which of these is NOT a common feature of CIS Control 5
What is the goal of penetration testing (CIS Control 18), according to the text?
What is the goal of penetration testing (CIS Control 18), according to the text?
What does COBIT stand for?
What does COBIT stand for?
Which of the following is NOT a governance system principle of COBIT 2019?
Which of the following is NOT a governance system principle of COBIT 2019?
What are the design principles of CIS, according to the text?
What are the design principles of CIS, according to the text?
What shape represents a Process in a Data Flow Diagram?
What shape represents a Process in a Data Flow Diagram?
Which of the following is an example of a Network-Based Attack?
Which of the following is an example of a Network-Based Attack?
What is a common method used in Spoofing attacks?
What is a common method used in Spoofing attacks?
Which type of cyberattack manipulates a system to execute operations in an incorrect order?
Which type of cyberattack manipulates a system to execute operations in an incorrect order?
In a System Interface Diagram, what type of flow does it represent?
In a System Interface Diagram, what type of flow does it represent?
What characteristic defines Host-Based Attacks?
What characteristic defines Host-Based Attacks?
Which attack involves an intermediary intercepting communications?
Which attack involves an intermediary intercepting communications?
Which of the following is NOT a form of Cyberattack?
Which of the following is NOT a form of Cyberattack?
What kind of virus changes its structure to avoid detection?
What kind of virus changes its structure to avoid detection?
What method is typically used to disrupt server functionality in a Denial of Service attack?
What method is typically used to disrupt server functionality in a Denial of Service attack?
What characterizes an Operational Data Store (ODS)?
What characterizes an Operational Data Store (ODS)?
Which of the following is a defining feature of a Data Warehouse?
Which of the following is a defining feature of a Data Warehouse?
What is a primary key in a relational database?
What is a primary key in a relational database?
In which normal form does every cell contain only one piece of information, and each table has a primary key?
In which normal form does every cell contain only one piece of information, and each table has a primary key?
What does a Snowflake Schema mostly depend on?
What does a Snowflake Schema mostly depend on?
What is the function of the SQL JOIN command?
What is the function of the SQL JOIN command?
In BPMN models, what does a 'pool' represent?
In BPMN models, what does a 'pool' represent?
Which of the following SQL statements is used to filter results after aggregation?
Which of the following SQL statements is used to filter results after aggregation?
Which of these accurately describes a Data Mart?
Which of these accurately describes a Data Mart?
What is the role of a Data Dictionary?
What is the role of a Data Dictionary?
What is the primary purpose of a Security Assessment Report (SAR)?
What is the primary purpose of a Security Assessment Report (SAR)?
Which method is NOT typically included in security assessment methodologies?
Which method is NOT typically included in security assessment methodologies?
What does tokenization accomplish in data security?
What does tokenization accomplish in data security?
Which type of Data Loss Prevention (DLP) system scans files on endpoint devices?
Which type of Data Loss Prevention (DLP) system scans files on endpoint devices?
What is the primary function of obfuscation in data protection?
What is the primary function of obfuscation in data protection?
Which encryption method uses a single shared private key for both encryption and decryption?
Which encryption method uses a single shared private key for both encryption and decryption?
What does 'champion density' refer to in the context of security program champions?
What does 'champion density' refer to in the context of security program champions?
What type of ciphers uses symbols or letters to replace actual letters in a message?
What type of ciphers uses symbols or letters to replace actual letters in a message?
What is the main goal of a phishing simulation?
What is the main goal of a phishing simulation?
Which of the following is NOT a safeguard for data at rest?
Which of the following is NOT a safeguard for data at rest?
What is the primary function of the Presentation Layer in the OSI model?
What is the primary function of the Presentation Layer in the OSI model?
Which layer of the OSI model is mainly associated with adding Media Access Control (MAC) addresses?
Which layer of the OSI model is mainly associated with adding Media Access Control (MAC) addresses?
Which of the following is an example of a service offered under Platform as a Service (PaaS)?
Which of the following is an example of a service offered under Platform as a Service (PaaS)?
What does the acronym CSP stand for in cloud computing contexts?
What does the acronym CSP stand for in cloud computing contexts?
What best defines Software as a Service (SaaS)?
What best defines Software as a Service (SaaS)?
Which cloud computing deployment model is designed for use by a specific organization?
Which cloud computing deployment model is designed for use by a specific organization?
What is one of the main responsibilities of the Network Layer in the OSI model?
What is one of the main responsibilities of the Network Layer in the OSI model?
Which of the following is NOT a component of the COSO Enterprise Risk Management framework?
Which of the following is NOT a component of the COSO Enterprise Risk Management framework?
In which layer of the OSI model does encryption occur?
In which layer of the OSI model does encryption occur?
What does the SPRIG framework relate to in the context of COSO Enterprise Risk Management?
What does the SPRIG framework relate to in the context of COSO Enterprise Risk Management?
Which cloud computing model allows companies to rent only the infrastructure components like servers and networking?
Which cloud computing model allows companies to rent only the infrastructure components like servers and networking?
What is the key function of the Session Layer in the OSI model?
What is the key function of the Session Layer in the OSI model?
What type of network architecture is typically referred to as a WAN?
What type of network architecture is typically referred to as a WAN?
Which of the following is a disadvantage of cloud computing?
Which of the following is a disadvantage of cloud computing?
What type of opinion is issued when there are material but not pervasive issues?
What type of opinion is issued when there are material but not pervasive issues?
Which of the following components is NOT included in a SOC report?
Which of the following components is NOT included in a SOC report?
What must a service auditor ensure when using the Inclusive method?
What must a service auditor ensure when using the Inclusive method?
What is the key difference in wording between a Qualified SOC 1 Report and a Qualified SOC 2 Report?
What is the key difference in wording between a Qualified SOC 1 Report and a Qualified SOC 2 Report?
What should be included in the auditors test of controls?
What should be included in the auditors test of controls?
What type of report is issued when a service auditor cannot reach an opinion?
What type of report is issued when a service auditor cannot reach an opinion?
Which of the following describes Complementary User Entity Controls (CUECs)?
Which of the following describes Complementary User Entity Controls (CUECs)?
Which statement describes an Adverse Opinion?
Which statement describes an Adverse Opinion?
Which of the following correctly identifies what constitutes a Subservice Organization?
Which of the following correctly identifies what constitutes a Subservice Organization?
What is required in the description of the test of controls for Type 2 reports?
What is required in the description of the test of controls for Type 2 reports?
Which device is responsible for managing network traffic and assigning IP addresses?
Which device is responsible for managing network traffic and assigning IP addresses?
What is the primary function of a modem in an internet connection?
What is the primary function of a modem in an internet connection?
Which topology connects nodes in a circular path and minimizes collisions?
Which topology connects nodes in a circular path and minimizes collisions?
Which component is considered the 'brain' of the computer?
Which component is considered the 'brain' of the computer?
Which type of firewall combines packet filtering and network address translation?
Which type of firewall combines packet filtering and network address translation?
Which is NOT a function of edge-enabled devices?
Which is NOT a function of edge-enabled devices?
Which of the following steps comes first in the Incident Response Plan process?
Which of the following steps comes first in the Incident Response Plan process?
What is the advantage of using a star topology in a network?
What is the advantage of using a star topology in a network?
What distinguishes an adverse event from a computer security incident?
What distinguishes an adverse event from a computer security incident?
What type of device can act as an intermediary between networks and convert protocols?
What type of device can act as an intermediary between networks and convert protocols?
Which type of incident response team is best suited for widespread organizations?
Which type of incident response team is best suited for widespread organizations?
Which OSI Layer serves as the interface between applications?
Which OSI Layer serves as the interface between applications?
Which type of firewall specifically inspects the packets themselves, which can impact performance?
Which type of firewall specifically inspects the packets themselves, which can impact performance?
In the context of testing incident response plans, what is the purpose of simulations?
In the context of testing incident response plans, what is the purpose of simulations?
Which of the following metrics indicates the time taken to recognize that an incident is a threat?
Which of the following metrics indicates the time taken to recognize that an incident is a threat?
What is a key component of all incident response plans?
What is a key component of all incident response plans?
How does a Type 2 SOC report differ from a Type 1 SOC report?
How does a Type 2 SOC report differ from a Type 1 SOC report?
Which cycle focuses on the company's interaction with vendors to manage procurement and payments?
Which cycle focuses on the company's interaction with vendors to manage procurement and payments?
What type of costs do organizations typically seek to recover through cyber insurance?
What type of costs do organizations typically seek to recover through cyber insurance?
In the AIS process, what is the purpose of filing source documents?
In the AIS process, what is the purpose of filing source documents?
Which cycle is concerned with tracking and managing employee compensation?
Which cycle is concerned with tracking and managing employee compensation?
Which of the following is NOT a part of the General Incident Response Plan?
Which of the following is NOT a part of the General Incident Response Plan?
What is the primary goal of the Management Reporting System (MRS)?
What is the primary goal of the Management Reporting System (MRS)?
What aspect does the COSO component 'Risk Assessment' focus on?
What aspect does the COSO component 'Risk Assessment' focus on?
What is meant by 'Mean Time Between Failures' in IRP metrics?
What is meant by 'Mean Time Between Failures' in IRP metrics?
Which document helps organizations identify how quickly they can recover after a disaster?
Which document helps organizations identify how quickly they can recover after a disaster?
In the AIS process, what follows after transactions are posted to the General Ledger?
In the AIS process, what follows after transactions are posted to the General Ledger?
Which trust service primarily focuses on unauthorized access protection?
Which trust service primarily focuses on unauthorized access protection?
Which cycle focuses on the financial interactions and payment processing associated with customer sales?
Which cycle focuses on the financial interactions and payment processing associated with customer sales?
Which organization is recognized for creating a recovery framework related to incident response?
Which organization is recognized for creating a recovery framework related to incident response?
What is the main purpose of business continuity plans?
What is the main purpose of business continuity plans?
What is the primary purpose of the EDM governance objective in COBIT?
What is the primary purpose of the EDM governance objective in COBIT?
Which of the following is NOT one of the main components of the BAI management objective?
Which of the following is NOT one of the main components of the BAI management objective?
Which concept involves the estimation of losses and the classification of risk impacts in BIA?
Which concept involves the estimation of losses and the classification of risk impacts in BIA?
Which of the following best describes Robotic Process Automation (RPA)?
Which of the following best describes Robotic Process Automation (RPA)?
In the context of COBIT, what does the MEA objective primarily focus on?
In the context of COBIT, what does the MEA objective primarily focus on?
Which design factor refers to the classification of an organization's compliance requirements?
Which design factor refers to the classification of an organization's compliance requirements?
Which key function is included in the Fixed Asset Cycle?
Which key function is included in the Fixed Asset Cycle?
Which COSO principle emphasizes the acquisition and use of quality information?
Which COSO principle emphasizes the acquisition and use of quality information?
What are the four management objectives in the COBIT Core Model?
What are the four management objectives in the COBIT Core Model?
Which design factor indicates a business's strategy towards adopting technology?
Which design factor indicates a business's strategy towards adopting technology?
What does Recovery Point Objective (RPO) signify?
What does Recovery Point Objective (RPO) signify?
What is the primary function of the processes in the COBIT governance system?
What is the primary function of the processes in the COBIT governance system?
Which component is considered essential for successful governance in COBIT?
Which component is considered essential for successful governance in COBIT?
Which role of IT is categorized as 'not critical for operations'?
Which role of IT is categorized as 'not critical for operations'?
What does the APO objective primarily entail?
What does the APO objective primarily entail?
What is the primary purpose of piggybacking in physical attacks?
What is the primary purpose of piggybacking in physical attacks?
Which of the following is a design factor that deals with the classification of potential risks to an organization?
Which of the following is a design factor that deals with the classification of potential risks to an organization?
In the context of cyber threats, what does spear phishing specifically target?
In the context of cyber threats, what does spear phishing specifically target?
Which aspect of governance does the 'Organizational Structure' component address?
Which aspect of governance does the 'Organizational Structure' component address?
Which of the following describes the process of pharming?
Which of the following describes the process of pharming?
What is the characteristic of a 'First Mover Strategy' in technology adoption?
What is the characteristic of a 'First Mover Strategy' in technology adoption?
What is the primary goal of network segmentation?
What is the primary goal of network segmentation?
In COBIT, which component provides guidance for implementing desired behaviors into practice?
In COBIT, which component provides guidance for implementing desired behaviors into practice?
Which of the following is a characteristic of rogue mobile apps?
Which of the following is a characteristic of rogue mobile apps?
Which risk is NOT associated with cloud computing?
Which risk is NOT associated with cloud computing?
What is the main purpose of Network Hardening?
What is the main purpose of Network Hardening?
What does the STRIDE threat modeling methodology focus on?
What does the STRIDE threat modeling methodology focus on?
What does Zero Trust assume about a company's network?
What does Zero Trust assume about a company's network?
Which of the following is a characteristic of vishing?
Which of the following is a characteristic of vishing?
Which of the following best describes 'Need to Know' access control?
Which of the following best describes 'Need to Know' access control?
What is the first phase in the stages of a cyberattack?
What is the first phase in the stages of a cyberattack?
What is the primary function of Whitelisting in cybersecurity?
What is the primary function of Whitelisting in cybersecurity?
Which control is part of the COSO framework for governance?
Which control is part of the COSO framework for governance?
Which authentication technology uses physical human characteristics?
Which authentication technology uses physical human characteristics?
What is the main purpose of a Risk-Based Access Control strategy?
What is the main purpose of a Risk-Based Access Control strategy?
Which of the following best defines an Acceptable Use Policy?
Which of the following best defines an Acceptable Use Policy?
What is a significant risk related to IoT devices?
What is a significant risk related to IoT devices?
How does Multi-Factor Authentication increase security?
How does Multi-Factor Authentication increase security?
Which measure is considered a Corrective Control?
Which measure is considered a Corrective Control?
What is the function of a Virtual Private Network (VPN)?
What is the function of a Virtual Private Network (VPN)?
What role do Access Control Lists (ACL) serve in cybersecurity?
What role do Access Control Lists (ACL) serve in cybersecurity?
Which one of the following is NOT a phase in threat modeling?
Which one of the following is NOT a phase in threat modeling?
What does layered security combine to enhance protection?
What does layered security combine to enhance protection?
What is the purpose of Context Aware Authentication?
What is the purpose of Context Aware Authentication?
Which access control method allows data owners to manage their own data?
Which access control method allows data owners to manage their own data?
What does the NIST Cybersecurity Framework's 'Recover' component entail?
What does the NIST Cybersecurity Framework's 'Recover' component entail?
Which of the following is NOT a preventative control?
Which of the following is NOT a preventative control?
Flashcards
What is the NIST Cybersecurity Framework (CSF)?
What is the NIST Cybersecurity Framework (CSF)?
The NIST Cybersecurity Framework (CSF) is a standardized guide designed to help organizations manage cybersecurity risk.
What are the five core functions of the NIST CSF?
What are the five core functions of the NIST CSF?
It's the five core functions of the NIST CSF: Identify, Protect, Detect, Respond, and Recover. Each function encompasses specific categories and subcategories that help organizations manage cybersecurity risks systematically.
What are the Implementation Tiers in the NIST CSF?
What are the Implementation Tiers in the NIST CSF?
The Implementation Tiers in the NIST CSF represent the degree to which an organization has integrated information security practices. They range from "Tier 1: Partial" (ad hoc) to "Tier 4: Adaptive" (responsive to evolving threats).
What are Framework Profiles in the NIST CSF?
What are Framework Profiles in the NIST CSF?
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What is the importance of the NIST CSF?
What is the importance of the NIST CSF?
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NIST Privacy Framework
NIST Privacy Framework
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Identify (NIST Privacy Framework)
Identify (NIST Privacy Framework)
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Govern (NIST Privacy Framework)
Govern (NIST Privacy Framework)
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Control (NIST Privacy Framework)
Control (NIST Privacy Framework)
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Communicate (NIST Privacy Framework)
Communicate (NIST Privacy Framework)
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Protect (NIST Privacy Framework)
Protect (NIST Privacy Framework)
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Detect (NIST Privacy Framework)
Detect (NIST Privacy Framework)
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Respond (NIST Privacy Framework)
Respond (NIST Privacy Framework)
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Recover (NIST Privacy Framework)
Recover (NIST Privacy Framework)
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Privacy Framework Tiers
Privacy Framework Tiers
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What are Administrative Safeguards?
What are Administrative Safeguards?
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What are Physical Safeguards?
What are Physical Safeguards?
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What are Technical Safeguards?
What are Technical Safeguards?
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What are the key changes HITECH brought to HIPAA?
What are the key changes HITECH brought to HIPAA?
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What is GDPR?
What is GDPR?
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When does GDPR apply outside the EU?
When does GDPR apply outside the EU?
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What are the six principles of GDPR?
What are the six principles of GDPR?
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What is Purpose Limitation?
What is Purpose Limitation?
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What is Data Minimization?
What is Data Minimization?
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What is PCI DSS?
What is PCI DSS?
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What are the six goals of PCI DSS?
What are the six goals of PCI DSS?
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What is CIS?
What is CIS?
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How is CIS Controls structured?
How is CIS Controls structured?
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What are the design principles of CIS Controls?
What are the design principles of CIS Controls?
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What are the different CIS Implementation Groups?
What are the different CIS Implementation Groups?
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Create Steering Committee
Create Steering Committee
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Assess Risk of Adding CSP
Assess Risk of Adding CSP
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Define CSP Systems & Structure
Define CSP Systems & Structure
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Integrate CSP Governance
Integrate CSP Governance
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Reasonableness Test
Reasonableness Test
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Computer Hardware
Computer Hardware
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End-User Devices
End-User Devices
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Microprocessor
Microprocessor
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External Peripheral Devices
External Peripheral Devices
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Router
Router
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Hub
Hub
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Gateway
Gateway
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Protocol
Protocol
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Firewall
Firewall
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Network Topology
Network Topology
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File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
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Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
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Electronic Data Interchange (EDI)
Electronic Data Interchange (EDI)
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Presentation Layer
Presentation Layer
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American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII)
American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII)
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Joint Photographic Experts Group (JPEG)
Joint Photographic Experts Group (JPEG)
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Moving Pictures Expert Group (MPEG)
Moving Pictures Expert Group (MPEG)
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Session Layer
Session Layer
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Structured Query Language (SQL)
Structured Query Language (SQL)
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Remote Procedure Call (RPC)
Remote Procedure Call (RPC)
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Network File System (NFS)
Network File System (NFS)
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Transport Layer
Transport Layer
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Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
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User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
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Network Layer
Network Layer
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Cold Site
Cold Site
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Warm Site
Warm Site
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Hot Site
Hot Site
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Full Backup
Full Backup
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Incremental Backup
Incremental Backup
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What is a TPS?
What is a TPS?
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What is an FRS?
What is an FRS?
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What is an MRS?
What is an MRS?
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Explain the AIS process in a few words.
Explain the AIS process in a few words.
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What is the purchasing and disbursements cycle?
What is the purchasing and disbursements cycle?
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What is the treasury cycle?
What is the treasury cycle?
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What is the payroll cycle?
What is the payroll cycle?
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What is the revenue and collections cycle?
What is the revenue and collections cycle?
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What is the production cycle?
What is the production cycle?
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What is the fixed asset cycle?
What is the fixed asset cycle?
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What are the benefits of ASPs for ERP?
What are the benefits of ASPs for ERP?
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Explain automation and shared services.
Explain automation and shared services.
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What is outsourcing and offshore operations?
What is outsourcing and offshore operations?
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What is RPA?
What is RPA?
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What is NLP?
What is NLP?
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What is a neural network?
What is a neural network?
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What is a Data Warehouse?
What is a Data Warehouse?
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What is an Operational Data Store (ODS)?
What is an Operational Data Store (ODS)?
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What is a Data Mart?
What is a Data Mart?
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What is a Data Lake?
What is a Data Lake?
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What is a Relational Database?
What is a Relational Database?
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What is a Primary Key?
What is a Primary Key?
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What is a Composite Primary Key?
What is a Composite Primary Key?
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What is a Foreign Key?
What is a Foreign Key?
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What is a Data Dictionary?
What is a Data Dictionary?
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What is Data Normalization?
What is Data Normalization?
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Mirroring
Mirroring
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Change Management
Change Management
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Baseline Configuration
Baseline Configuration
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System Component Inventory
System Component Inventory
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Acceptance Criteria
Acceptance Criteria
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Pre-Implementation Testing
Pre-Implementation Testing
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Reversion Access
Reversion Access
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Development Environment
Development Environment
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Testing Environment
Testing Environment
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Staging Environment
Staging Environment
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Production Environment
Production Environment
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Agile Method
Agile Method
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Patch Management
Patch Management
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Active Data Collection
Active Data Collection
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Passive Data Collection
Passive Data Collection
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Data Flow Diagram (DFD)
Data Flow Diagram (DFD)
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Flowchart
Flowchart
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System Interface Diagram
System Interface Diagram
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Network-Based Attack
Network-Based Attack
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Covert Channels
Covert Channels
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Buffer Overflow
Buffer Overflow
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Denial of Service (DoS)
Denial of Service (DoS)
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Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)
Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)
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Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) Attack
Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) Attack
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Replay Attack
Replay Attack
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What are COBIT's core model objectives?
What are COBIT's core model objectives?
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What is the EDM Objective?
What is the EDM Objective?
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What are the management objectives in COBIT's core model?
What are the management objectives in COBIT's core model?
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What is the APO objective?
What is the APO objective?
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What is the BAI objective?
What is the BAI objective?
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What is the DSS objective?
What is the DSS objective?
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What is the MEA objective?
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What are the seven components of COBIT 2019?
What are the seven components of COBIT 2019?
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What are the Processes within COBIT 2019?
What are the Processes within COBIT 2019?
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What is the Organizational Structure within COBIT 2019?
What is the Organizational Structure within COBIT 2019?
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What are Principles, Policies, and Frameworks within COBIT 2019?
What are Principles, Policies, and Frameworks within COBIT 2019?
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What is Information within COBIT 2019?
What is Information within COBIT 2019?
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What are Culture, Ethics, and Behavior within COBIT 2019?
What are Culture, Ethics, and Behavior within COBIT 2019?
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What are People, Skills, and Competencies within COBIT 2019?
What are People, Skills, and Competencies within COBIT 2019?
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What are Services, Infrastructure, and Applications within COBIT 2019?
What are Services, Infrastructure, and Applications within COBIT 2019?
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What are the design factors in COBIT 2019?
What are the design factors in COBIT 2019?
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What is Enterprise Strategy in COBIT 2019?
What is Enterprise Strategy in COBIT 2019?
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What are Enterprise Goals within COBIT 2019?
What are Enterprise Goals within COBIT 2019?
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What is Risk Profile within COBIT 2019?
What is Risk Profile within COBIT 2019?
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Reconnaissance
Reconnaissance
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Gaining Access
Gaining Access
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Escalation of Privileges
Escalation of Privileges
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Maintaining Access
Maintaining Access
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Network Exploitation and Exfiltration
Network Exploitation and Exfiltration
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Covering Tracks
Covering Tracks
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Worm
Worm
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Trojan Horse
Trojan Horse
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Adware
Adware
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Spyware
Spyware
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Rogue Mobile Apps
Rogue Mobile Apps
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Social Engineering
Social Engineering
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Phishing
Phishing
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WiFi Protected Access (WPA)
WiFi Protected Access (WPA)
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System Hardening
System Hardening
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Examination (Security Assessment)
Examination (Security Assessment)
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Interviewing (Security Assessment)
Interviewing (Security Assessment)
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Testing (Security Assessment)
Testing (Security Assessment)
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Security Assessment Report (SAR)
Security Assessment Report (SAR)
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Obfuscation
Obfuscation
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Phishing Simulations
Phishing Simulations
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Security Program Champions
Security Program Champions
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Tokenization
Tokenization
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Masking
Masking
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Encryption
Encryption
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Inherent Risk
Inherent Risk
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Service Commitment
Service Commitment
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System Requirement
System Requirement
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Deviation or Exception
Deviation or Exception
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Deficiency in Design
Deficiency in Design
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Deficiency in Operating Effectiveness
Deficiency in Operating Effectiveness
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Written Assertion
Written Assertion
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Description Misstatement
Description Misstatement
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Control Risk
Control Risk
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Detection Risk
Detection Risk
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Least Privilege
Least Privilege
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Zero Trust
Zero Trust
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Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
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Biometrics
Biometrics
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Whitelisting
Whitelisting
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NIST Cybersecurity Framework (CSF)
NIST Cybersecurity Framework (CSF)
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Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) Dictionary
Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) Dictionary
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Layered Security
Layered Security
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Defense in Depth
Defense in Depth
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Preventative Controls
Preventative Controls
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Detective Controls
Detective Controls
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Corrective Controls
Corrective Controls
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Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
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Access Control List (ACL)
Access Control List (ACL)
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Provisioning
Provisioning
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SOC 2 Opinion
SOC 2 Opinion
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Qualified SOC 2 Report
Qualified SOC 2 Report
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Adverse SOC 2 Report
Adverse SOC 2 Report
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Disclaimer SOC 2 Report
Disclaimer SOC 2 Report
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SOC 2 Type 2 Report
SOC 2 Type 2 Report
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Management's Description of System
Management's Description of System
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Management's Assertion
Management's Assertion
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Complementary Subservice Organization Controls (CSOC)
Complementary Subservice Organization Controls (CSOC)
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Carve Out Method
Carve Out Method
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Inclusive Method
Inclusive Method
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Incident Response Plan (IRP)
Incident Response Plan (IRP)
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Incident Response Timeline
Incident Response Timeline
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Incident Response Team
Incident Response Team
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Event
Event
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Adverse Event
Adverse Event
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Computer Security Incident
Computer Security Incident
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PDCERRL Incident Response Framework
PDCERRL Incident Response Framework
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Mean Time to Detect (MTTD)
Mean Time to Detect (MTTD)
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Mean Time to Contain (MTTC)
Mean Time to Contain (MTTC)
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Cybersecurity Simulation
Cybersecurity Simulation
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Cyber Insurance
Cyber Insurance
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SOC 1 Report
SOC 1 Report
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SOC 2 Report
SOC 2 Report
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Study Notes
NIST Cybersecurity Framework
- Established in 1901, improved in 1995 to include cybersecurity.
- Three standardized frameworks: CSF, Privacy Framework, SP 800-53.
- Framework Core: GOVERN, IDENTIFY, PROTECT, DETECT, RESPOND, RECOVER.
- 5 functions, 23 categories, 108 subcategories.
- Implementation Tiers: Tier 1 (partial), Tier 2 (risk-informed), Tier 3 (repeatable), Tier 4 (adaptive). Based on risk management process, program integration, and external participation.
- Framework Profiles: current and target profiles, gap analysis between them.
NIST Privacy Framework
- Data protection framework, industry-agnostic.
- Overlaps with NIST CSF.
- Components: Identify, Govern, Control, Communicate, Protect, Detect, Respond, Recover.
- Tiers identical to NIST CSF Tiers (1-4). Based on Risk Management, Program Integration, External Participation and Workforce.
NIST SP 800-53
- Security and Privacy Controls for information systems.
- Standard for federal information security systems.
- 20 Control families (e.g., Access and Control, Awareness and Training).
- Control implementation approaches: Common, System-Specific, Hybrid.
- Intended for security and privacy assessment and monitoring personnel, logistical/disposition roles and system developers.
Data Breach Consequences
- Business disruptions, reputation harm, financial loss, data loss, legal and regulatory implications.
- Average cost: $4 million.
HIPAA
- Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.
- Promotes health care privacy and security with standards for PHI (protected health information).
- Covered entities include health care providers, health plans, and health care clearing houses.
- Security Rule protects confidentiality, integrity, and availability of PHI.
HITECH
- Increased HIPAA penalties, required electronic record options for patients, added "business associates" as covered entities.
- Requires notification of breaches within 60 days of discovery.
GDPR
- General Data Protection Regulation (European Union).
- Strictest privacy law, with steep penalties.
- Scope extended to data processors in or serving the EU even if not based there.
- Six principles: Lawfulness, Fairness, Transparency; Purpose Limitation; Data Minimization; Accuracy; Storage Limitation; Integrity and Confidentiality.
PCI DSS
- Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard for cashless transactions and data security.
- 6 Goals - Build/Maintain network, Protect Cardholder Data, Maintain Vulnerability Management, Implement Strong Access Control, Regularly Monitor and Test Networks, Maintain an Information Security Policy.
Center for Internet Security (CIS) Controls
- Recommended set of actions, processes, and best practices for strengthening cybersecurity defenses.
- Supported by the SANS Institute.
- CIS Controls Version 8 - 18 controls and 153 subcategories.
- Implementation Groups (IG1-IG3) – varying degrees of cybersecurity defense and sophistication.
- Key Controls include 1-18
- Design Principles including AMOFF (Align, Measurable, Offense, Focus, Feasible)
COBIT 2019 Framework
- Control Objectives for Information and related Technologies. Developed by ISACA.
- 6 Governance System Principles (VHDDTE), 3 Governance Framework Principles (CFA).
- Core Model of 1 Governance, 4 Management Objectives (APO, BAI, DSS, MEA).
- 7 Components of Governance Systems (POPICPS), 11 Design Factors.
IT Infrastructure
- Computer Hardware (internal and external peripherals).
- Network Infrastructure Hardware (modems, routers, switches, gateways, edge-enabled devices, servers and firewalls).
- Network Protocols (TCP/IP).
- Network Topologies (Bus, Mesh, Ring, Star).
- OSI Model (7 layers).
- Operating Systems (OS).
- Mobile Technology.
- Cloud Computing (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS, Deployment Models).
- CSPs (Cloud Service Providers).
- COSO Enterprise Risk Management Framework (components).
Enterprise and Accounting Information Systems
- Types of Processing Controls (input, output, processing, access)
- Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) systems.
- Accounting Information systems (AIS).
- Reasonableness Tests.
- AIS Subsystems (TPS, FRS, MRS).
- Goals of AIS Subsystems.
- Processes of purchasing, treasury, payroll, revenue, and collections cycles.
- AIS process: input, source document filing, transaction recording, general/subsidiary ledger posting, preparing trial balance, adjusting entries, financial reporting.
- Benefits of Application Software Providers (ASPs).
- Processes driven by IT Systems (automation, shared services, outsourcing).
- Offshore Operations. Risks in outsourcing
- Technology forms like RPA, NLP, Neural networks.
- Blockchain, COSO Principles related to blockchain.
Availability, Resiliency, and Disaster Recovery
- Business Resiliency, Business Continuity plans (BIA process).
- System Availability Controls (redundancy, backups).
- Crisis Management.
- Disaster Recovery (different sites), Backup Types.
- Recovery Point Objective (RPO), Recovery Time Objective (RTO), Mean Time To Repair (MTTR).
Change Management
- Change Management policies, procedures, and resources.
- Change Management Process (11 steps).
- Documenting systems controls (baseline, inventory, acceptance criteria)
- Change Management Controls.
- Types of Change Environments (development, testing, staging, production, disaster recovery)
- Integration risks (user resistance, management/stakeholder support, resources, and disruptions).
- Testing change implications, logging (application, change, event, firewall, network, proxy).
- Different models (Waterfall, Agile ).
- Patch Management, Patch Management Programs, Conversion Methods, Testing Methods (Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance).
Data Collection and Data Lifecycle
- Data Lifecycle Process (DCP, SAPAP, stages in detail).
- Data Collection Types (active, passive).
- ETL processes.
- Complexities of external data sources (copyright, safety, integrity).
Data Storage and Database Design
- Operational Data Store (ODS).
- Data Warehouse, Data Mart.
- Data Lake.
- Relational Databases (tables, attributes, records, fields).
- Database keys (primary, composite, foreign).
- Data Dictionary.
- Data Normalization.
- Data Model (Conceptual, Logical, Physical), Database Schemas (Fact, Dimension, Star, Snowflake).
Data Extraction, Integration, and Process Documentation
- SQL (SELECT, FROM, JOIN, WHERE, GROUP BY, HAVING),
- Data Flow Diagrams (logical flow, process, data flow, data store, external entity).
- Flowcharts (logical and physical flow).
- System Interface Diagrams, BPMN Activity models (events, tasks, flows, gateways).
Threats and Attacks
- Threat Agents (attacker, hacker, adversary, government-sponsored, hacktivists, insiders).
- Types of Cyberattacks (Network-Based, Application-Based, Host-Based, Social Engineering, Physical, Supply Chain).
- Specific techniques (DoS, DDoS, MITM, port scanning, reverse shell, return-oriented attacks, spoofing).
- Stages of an attack.
- Risks related to cloud computing, mobile technologies, and IoT.
Mitigation
- COSO - Business Objectives (operations, record-keeping, compliance).
- COSO - Five Components of Internal Control (control environment, risk assessment, information and communication, monitoring activities, existing control activities).
- Security Policies (acceptable use, BYOD).
- Network Segmentation/Isolation.
- System Hardening.
- Authorization and Authentication (zero trust, least privilege, need-to-know, whitelisting).
- Authentication Technologies (context aware, digital signatures, SSO, MFA, PIN, smartcards, token, biometrics).
- Password Management.
- Provisioning.
- NIST Cybersecurity Framework - Vulnerability (Identify, Protect, Detect, Respond, Recover).
- Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) Dictionary.
- Layered Security (Defense in Depth.)
Incident Response
- Incident Response Plan (IRP), Timeline.
- NIST Response Team Models.
- Events versus Incidents.
- General Incident Response Plan (PDCERRL).
- Testing IRP plans (simulations, metrics).
- Insurable losses.
SOC Engagements
- Types of SOC reports (SOC1, SOC2, SOC3).
- Type 1 vs. Type 2.
- Trust Services criteria (Confidentiality, Availability, Processing Integrity, Privacy, Security).
- Alignment of Trust services to COSO.
- Complementary Subservice or User Entity Controls (CSOC, CUEC).
- Planning and Risk assessment considerations.
- Auditor responsibilities.
- Materiality considerations.
Reporting on SOC Engagements
- Opinions (unmodified, qualified, adverse, disclaimer).
- Key components of SOC reports.
- Scope (carve-out, inclusive).
- Responsibility of service organization, service auditor, and user entity.
- Subsequent Events.
- Misstatements, Modified Opinions, and Disclaimers.
Studying That Suits You
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Description
Test your knowledge on the NIST Cybersecurity Framework components, including functions, tiers, and publications. This quiz covers critical aspects of organizational risk management and privacy considerations as outlined by NIST. Examine your understanding of the framework's purpose and core functions.
