Neuro IDC Pt. 1

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Questions and Answers

According to the American Academy of Neurology guidelines for a screening neurologic examination, which of the following cranial nerves is assessed by evaluating pupillary light reflex?

  • CN II and CN III (correct)
  • CN VII and CN VIII
  • CN IV and CN VI
  • CN V and CN VII

During a screening neurologic examination, which motor function test would be MOST appropriate for assessing the L5 nerve root?

  • Shoulder abduction
  • Wrist extension
  • Elbow flexion
  • Ankle dorsiflexion (correct)

A patient demonstrates difficulty with rapid alternating movements during a screening neurologic examination. This finding suggests a potential issue with which neurological function?

  • Motor Strength
  • Sensation
  • Coordination (correct)
  • Reflexes

When evaluating gait as part of a screening neurologic examination, what does tandem gait specifically assess?

<p>Balance and coordination (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a screening neurologic examination, assessing a patient's orientation to person, place, and time primarily evaluates which aspect of neurological function?

<p>Mental Status (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a chief complaint of double vision. According to the American Academy of Neurology guidelines, which component of the screening neurological examination is MOST relevant?

<p>Extraocular Movements (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a screening neurologic exam, assessing speech articulation helps evaluate the function of which cranial nerves?

<p>CN V, VII, X, and XII (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When performing a Babinski test during a screening neurologic examination, what is the expected normal response in an adult?

<p>Plantar flexion of the toes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a screening neurologic examination, if a patient is unable to close their eyes against resistance, which cranial nerve is MOST likely affected?

<p>CN VII (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following components of the screening neurologic examination directly assesses cerebellar function?

<p>Rapid Alternating Movements (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

While performing a screening neurological exam, you note the patient has difficulty hearing low-frequency sounds. Which cranial nerve may be involved?

<p>CN VIII (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a screening neurologic examination, assessing strength of shoulder abduction primarily evaluates which nerve root?

<p>C5 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When evaluating sensation during a screening neurologic examination, why is it important to test at least one modality on the toes?

<p>To evaluate peripheral nerve function in the lower extremities (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports difficulty tasting food. Which cranial nerve would you want to assess during your screening neurological exam?

<p>CN VII (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which deep tendon reflex corresponds to the S1 nerve root?

<p>Achilles (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of observing a patient's casual gait during a screening neurologic examination?

<p>Evaluate balance and coordination (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During assessment of motor function, which muscle group is evaluated when testing hip flexion?

<p>Iliopsoas (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a screening neurologic exam, if a patient has difficulty abducting their fingers against resistance, what nerve is most likely affected?

<p>Ulnar nerve (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST appropriate next step if a screening test reveals an abnormality or the patient's history suggests a neurological issue?

<p>Expand to a more comprehensive neurological examination (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When documenting mental status, stating that the patient is oriented to person, place, and time indicates that the patient:

<p>Is aware of their identity, location, and the current date. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient describes their headache as 'the worst headache of my life' with a sudden, instantaneous onset. Which of the following secondary headaches is MOST likely?

<p>Subarachnoid hemorrhage (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following headache characteristics is MOST suggestive of a possible mass lesion, such as a brain tumor or abscess?

<p>Dull headache that intensifies with coughing or sneezing and recurs in the same location (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presenting with a severe headache and a stiff neck should be evaluated for which of the following conditions?

<p>Meningitis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What combination of symptoms during a headache would MOST warrant immediate investigation into secondary causes?

<p>Sudden onset of the 'worst headache of my life'. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A female patient on hormonal contraceptives presents with an atypical migraine. Why is this presentation concerning?

<p>It raises suspicion for stroke, especially in women using hormonal contraceptives. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following combinations of headache characteristics and associated symptoms warrants further investigation for a secondary headache?

<p>Sudden onset, severe headache with fever and altered mental status. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which historical detail is MOST concerning when a patient describes their headaches?

<p>Headaches that started after a head trauma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The mnemonic 'POUND' assists in identifying migraine headaches. What does the 'U' in POUND stand for?

<p>Unilateral (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known history of migraines reports a new headache pattern that is not relieved by their usual medication. Why is it important to further investigate this change?

<p>A change in headache pattern or lack of response to medication may indicate a secondary cause of headache. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following headache scenarios would warrant the MOST immediate referral for neuroimaging?

<p>New onset of severe headache accompanied by fever, stiff neck, and confusion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a headache assessment, a patient reports that their headaches are frequently triggered by specific foods and stress. How should the clinician interpret this information?

<p>It helps identify potential triggers, which can guide management strategies for primary headaches. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports experiencing visual disturbances, such as flashing lights, prior to the onset of their headache. Which of the following features of headache is being described?

<p>Aura (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient describes their headache as feeling like a tight band around their head. This characteristic is MOST consistent with which type of headache?

<p>Tension headache (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following questions is MOST important to ask when assessing the chronologic pattern of a patient's headaches?

<p>Is there a recent change in the headache's pattern or frequency? (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it crucial to differentiate between primary and secondary headaches during a neurological assessment?

<p>Secondary headaches may indicate life threatening underlying conditions that need immediate attention. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a neurological examination, if all tests are normal but the patient is still experiencing headaches, why is it still important to consider secondary headaches?

<p>Because secondary headaches can present with normal neurological exams. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of identifying exacerbating factors for a patient's headache?

<p>Exacerbating factors may suggest underlying structural issues. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a headache assessment, a patient mentions experiencing associated symptoms such as weakness and numbness in the arm. What should this suggest to the clinician?

<p>These symptoms may indicate a secondary headache due to a structural lesion or other underlying cause. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient describes their headaches as starting mild and then increasing over several hours. What is this pattern MOST suggestive of?

<p>Migraine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports a headache that recurs at the same time every day. What is the clinical significance of this temporal pattern?

<p>It warrants further investigation into potential underlying causes, such as medication side effects or lifestyle factors. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports a headache that intensifies when coughing. This characteristic raises concern for what potential underlying issue?

<p>Mass lesion (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 60-year-old patient presents with new onset headaches. What aspect of this presentation is considered a potential warning sign?

<p>The patient's age (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following headache descriptions should prompt immediate evaluation for possible subarachnoid hemorrhage?

<p>Sudden, severe headache described as 'the worst headache of my life' (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to ask about systemic symptoms like fever, night sweats, and weight loss when evaluating a patient presenting with headaches?

<p>To identify possible secondary headache causes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of migraines reports a change in headache pattern, with headaches becoming more frequent and severe over the past three months. What action should the clinician take?

<p>Investigate for secondary causes of headache (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports headaches that worsen when they lie down. What type of headache should be considered given this information?

<p>Positional headache (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with headaches has a history of cancer. Why is this information significant when evaluating their headaches?

<p>Cancer history raises concern for possible brain metastasis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What initial action is MOST appropriate when a patient presents with a headache and papilledema is observed during the neurological examination?

<p>Order immediate neuroimaging (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the 'POUND' mnemonic, what headache characteristic is represented by the letter 'P'?

<p>Pulsatile (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports a headache that started after a recent head trauma. What is the significance of this detail?

<p>It raises concern for a secondary headache due to the trauma. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST common type of headache overall?

<p>Tension headache (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient describes their headache as unilateral, lasting approximately 24 hours, and accompanied by nausea. According to the POUND mnemonic, what other characteristic would further support a diagnosis of migraine?

<p>Throbbing pain (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports a 'new' headache, unlike any they have previously experienced. Why is this considered a red flag?

<p>Because it may signal an underlying serious condition. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A clinician is using the 'POUND' mnemonic to screen for migraines. What does the 'D' in 'POUND' stand for?

<p>Disabling (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When evaluating a patient's headache, why is it important to ask about associated neurological symptoms, such as vision changes or weakness?

<p>To identify possible secondary causes of headache. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following characteristics best describes 'trigeminal autonomic cephalalgias'?

<p>Severe, unilateral headaches with cranial autonomic symptoms. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports a headache that improves when lying flat. What potential condition might this suggest?

<p>Low cerebrospinal fluid pressure (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient describes their headache as 'disabling' according to the 'POUND' criteria. What does this mean in terms of their headache experience?

<p>The headache prevents them from performing daily activities. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a headache and a stiff neck. What is the MOST concerning underlying cause to consider?

<p>Meningitis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary distinction between 'primary' and 'secondary' headaches?

<p>Secondary headaches have an identifiable underlying cause; primary headaches do not. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which headache characteristic is considered a 'red flag' warranting prompt investigation?

<p>Sudden onset described as 'thunderclap' (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 55-year-old patient presents with new onset headaches. What aspect of this presentation should raise concern?

<p>The patient's age at headache onset (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a headache and fever. Which additional symptom would MOST strongly suggest meningitis?

<p>Stiff neck (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of headache evaluation, what is the significance of identifying focal neurological signs?

<p>They may indicate a structural lesion or other secondary cause. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios warrants further investigation for a secondary headache?

<p>Headache with fever, stiff neck, and altered mental status (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to ask a headache sufferer about associated symptoms such as double vision or weakness?

<p>To identify possible secondary causes of the headache. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What key information is gained by examining a headache patient for papilledema?

<p>It indicates increased intracranial pressure. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A previously healthy 30-year-old presents with a 'thunderclap' headache. What is MOST crucial to assess?

<p>Blood pressure and meningeal signs. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following chief complaints, in addition to headache, should raise suspicion for meningitis?

<p>Photophobia and stiff neck (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports new headaches accompanied by vision changes and weakness in their right arm. This presentation is MOST concerning for:

<p>Structural brain lesion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of sinus infections presents with a headache. What specific examination finding would suggest the headache is related to a sinus infection?

<p>Tenderness over the sinuses (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following represents the MOST concerning combination of headache characteristics and examination findings?

<p>Sudden onset headache with fever and altered mental status (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports a headache with associated double vision. What underlying issue should the clinician consider?

<p>Increased intracranial pressure affecting cranial nerves (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which scenario requires immediate neuroimaging to rule out serious pathology?

<p>New onset headache with fever and neurological deficits. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to rule out a parameningeal focus of infection when evaluating a patient with headaches?

<p>To identify a potential cause of secondary headaches. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known history of migraines presents with a headache but also reports a stiff neck. What is the next appropriate step?

<p>Perform lumbar puncture to rule out meningitis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of asking a patient if they've experienced any visual changes with their headaches?

<p>To identify potential involvement of the optic nerve or brain. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a headache and reports recent weight loss. Why is this piece of information important?

<p>It could indicate an underlying systemic illness causing the headache. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a headache that is significantly worse when they lie down. What might this suggest?

<p>Increased Intracranial Pressure (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a neurological exam for headaches, what is the MOST important reason to assess the patient's mental status?

<p>To identify cognitive impairment suggesting a secondary cause. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When examining the olfactory nerve (CN I), which type of odor should be avoided to prevent stimulation of CN V?

<p>Ammonia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports a partial loss of vision. Why is it important to test both eyes simultaneously during visual field testing?

<p>To identify visual field defects, such as homonymous hemianopsia. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During pupillary examination, you notice anisocoria that worsens in darkness. This finding suggests which of the following conditions?

<p>Horner syndrome (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When testing extraocular movements, a patient reports binocular diplopia. Which of the following could be a potential cause?

<p>CN III, IV, and/or VI neuropathy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient exhibits nystagmus during an eye exam. What aspects of the nystagmus should be documented?

<p>The direction of gaze in which it appears, the plane, and the direction of the fast and slow components. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During motor function testing of the trigeminal nerve (CN V), a patient has difficulty moving their jaw to the opposite side. This suggests weakness in which muscle?

<p>Lateral pterygoid (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When testing the sensory function of the trigeminal nerve (CN V), what is the importance of occasionally substituting the blunt end for the sharp end of the pin?

<p>To ensure the patient is accurately distinguishing between stimuli to assess sensory perception. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is unable to wrinkle their forehead or close their eyes tightly against resistance. This indicates a potential lesion where?

<p>Peripheral injury to CN VII affecting both the upper and lower face. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a facial nerve (CN VII) examination, a patient can wrinkle their forehead but cannot smile on one side of their face. Where is the MOST likely location of the lesion?

<p>Central lesion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After performing the whispered voice test, a patient demonstrates hearing loss. What is the next step to determine the type of hearing loss?

<p>Conduct Weber and Rinne tests to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with vertigo, hearing loss, and nystagmus. Which condition is MOST likely?

<p>Ménière disease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When examining cranial nerves IX and X, what observation suggests paralysis of the palate?

<p>Failure of the palate to rise, or unilateral pulling of the palate and uvula to one side. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an examination of cranial nerve XI, the spinal accessory nerve, what findings might suggest trapezius muscle paralysis?

<p>Shoulder drooping and scapula displaced downward and laterally. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When assessing CN XII (hypoglossal nerve) function, what does deviation of the protruded tongue indicate?

<p>Weakness on the side to which the tongue deviates. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with loss of smell after a head trauma. Which of the following cranial nerves is MOST likely affected?

<p>Olfactory nerve (CN I) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following findings during fundoscopic examination is MOST indicative of papilledema?

<p>Bulging and blurred optic disc margins (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient's large pupil reacts poorly to light, what condition should be considered, especially if the anisocoria worsens in bright light?

<p>CN III palsy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What three components are assessed during the near response examination?

<p>Pupillary constriction, convergence, and accommodation of the lens (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is asked to follow a moving target through the six cardinal directions of gaze. What is the primary purpose of this assessment?

<p>To assess extraocular movements and identify any loss of conjugate movements (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is MOST likely to cause monocular diplopia?

<p>Uncorrected refractive error or cataracts (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient has nystagmus due to a vestibular disorder, how might retinal fixation affect the nystagmus?

<p>Nystagmus will decrease with retinal fixation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the clinical significance of observing ptosis during a cranial nerve examination?

<p>It suggests a disorder affecting CN III, Horner syndrome, or myasthenia gravis. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When assessing motor function of the trigeminal nerve, if a patient has unilateral weakness due to a pontine lesion, where would the weakness be observed?

<p>Ipsilateral to the lesion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does flattening of the nasolabial fold typically suggest during a facial nerve examination?

<p>Facial muscle asymmetry (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports difficulty hearing. During the Weber test, the sound lateralizes to the left ear. What does this suggest?

<p>Sensorineural hearing loss in the right ear, or conductive loss in the left ear. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In unilateral paralysis of cranial nerve X, how does the uvula deviate when the patient says 'ah'?

<p>The uvula deviates away from the paralyzed side. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A supine patient has difficulty raising their head off the pillow. What does this suggest?

<p>Bilateral weakness of the sternocleidomastoid muscles. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition is suggested by tongue atrophy and fasciculations during a hypoglossal nerve exam?

<p>Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of the Rinne test, what does it mean if bone conduction is greater than air conduction?

<p>Conductive hearing loss (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When assessing facial sensation for the trigeminal nerve (CN V), which of the following techniques is MOST appropriate for testing light touch?

<p>Using a fine wisp of cotton to lightly touch the forehead, cheeks, and chin. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which aspect of speech is specifically evaluated when assessing cranial nerves V, VII, X, and XII?

<p>Articulation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a hoarse voice. This finding MOST likely indicates an issue with which cranial nerve?

<p>Vagus (X) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

To accurately assess the motor function of the sternocleidomastoid muscle during a cranial nerve examination, where should you apply resistance when the patient turns their head?

<p>On the jaw, opposite to the side being tested (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a cranial nerve examination, which of the following observations indicates dysarthria?

<p>Impaired articulation of words (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following actions BEST isolates the function of the trapezius muscle during a cranial nerve XI assessment?

<p>Having the patient shrug their shoulders against resistance (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When performing a Rinne test, the tuning fork is placed on the mastoid process to assess:

<p>Bone conduction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST appropriate stimulus to use when assessing pain sensation for the trigeminal nerve?

<p>A sharp object such as a pin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When eliciting muscle stretch reflexes in a patient with suspected diminished reflexes, what is the purpose of using reinforcement techniques?

<p>To amplify the reflex response, making it easier to observe. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a patellar reflex graded as '1+' without reinforcement. What does this grading indicate?

<p>The reflex is somewhat diminished. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a neurological examination, a patient exhibits hyperreflexia in the lower extremities. What underlying condition should the clinician suspect?

<p>Lesion of the upper motor neuron (UMN). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You are examining a patient and notice that the biceps reflex is absent on the left side but normal on the right. What is the MOST likely anatomical location of the lesion causing this finding?

<p>Peripheral nerve or nerve root affecting the left biceps. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When eliciting the Achilles reflex, a clinician notes a delayed relaxation phase after the plantar flexion. For what condition is this finding MOST suggestive?

<p>Hypothyroidism (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately describes the correct technique for striking a tendon with a reflex hammer?

<p>Hold the hammer loosely, using a brisk wrist movement to strike the tendon directly and rapidly. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When performing the plantar reflex, what is the expected normal response in an adult?

<p>Plantar flexion of the big toe. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

To properly elicit the triceps reflex, where should the tendon be struck?

<p>Directly behind and just above the elbow. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to compare reflexes from side to side during a neurological examination?

<p>To identify unilateral abnormalities that may indicate a specific lesion. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When the quadriceps reflex is elicited, contraction of the quadriceps muscle should result in which movement?

<p>Extension at the knee. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's neurological exam reveals the presence of clonus. According to the deep tendon reflex grading scale, how would this finding be documented?

<p>4+ (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the correct positioning of the patient's forearm when eliciting the brachioradialis reflex?

<p>Partially pronated with the hand resting on the abdomen or lap. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST important instruction to give a patient prior to testing their muscle stretch reflexes?

<p>Relax the limb being tested. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A clinician is having difficulty eliciting the patellar reflex in a patient. Which reinforcement technique is MOST appropriate to use?

<p>Ask the patient to lock their fingers and pull one hand against the other. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When performing the plantar reflex, which of the following techniques will BEST help differentiate a true Babinski response from simple withdrawal?

<p>If withdrawal occurs, hold the ankle to ensure observation of the toes. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nerve root is primarily assessed when eliciting the Achilles reflex?

<p>S1 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When using reinforcement to elicit reflexes, at what point during the reinforcement maneuver should you strike the tendon?

<p>Just before the patient begins the isometric contraction. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient exhibits diminished reflexes in the upper extremities. Which of the following reinforcement techniques is MOST appropriate to improve the reflex response?

<p>Have the patient squeeze their knees together. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following reflexes, when hyperactive, is MOST indicative of a CNS lesion affecting the corticospinal tract?

<p>Plantar reflex (Babinski sign) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the biceps reflex examination, where should the clinician place their thumb or finger to direct the hammer strike?

<p>On the biceps tendon. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports a gradual loss of vibration sensation in their feet and lower legs. This pattern of sensory loss is MOST suggestive of:

<p>A polyneuropathy, potentially related to diabetes or alcoholism. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When performing light touch sensation testing, why is it important to avoid applying pressure to the patient's skin?

<p>To prevent stimulating deeper pressure receptors, which would confound the light touch assessment. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is unable to identify an object placed in their hand with their eyes closed, despite having intact touch sensation. This finding is MOST consistent with damage to which area?

<p>The sensory cortex. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When testing temperature sensation, which of the following techniques is appropriate if deficits are suspected?

<p>Use a tuning fork warmed or cooled by running water. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient can feel a tuning fork's vibration on their fingers but not on their toes. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the sensory examination?

<p>Test vibration sense on more proximal bony prominences, such as the ankles and shins. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the extinction test, a patient consistently only reports feeling touch on their left arm when both arms are touched simultaneously. This finding suggests a lesion in which area?

<p>The right cerebral hemisphere. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with suspected peripheral neuropathy, which sensory modality is typically affected FIRST?

<p>Vibration. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient demonstrates an inability to perceive pinprick on the left side of their body but has normal light touch sensation in the same area. Which pathway is MOST likely affected?

<p>Spinothalamic tract. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When testing proprioception in a patient's finger, what is the MOST important step to minimize extraneous tactile stimuli?

<p>Hold the finger by its sides between your thumb and index finger. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is unable to identify a number traced on their palm but can accurately identify a coin placed in their hand. What is the MOST likely explanation for this discrepancy?

<p>The patient has arthritis or another condition limiting their ability to manipulate objects effectively. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When mapping out the boundaries of sensory loss, what is the MOST important consideration?

<p>To compare symmetric areas on both sides of the body. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to vary the pace of sensory testing during a neurological examination?

<p>To prevent the patient from anticipating the stimulus and potentially influencing the results. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST appropriate tool for assessing pain sensation during a sensory examination?

<p>The stick portion of a broken cotton swab. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports decreased sensation in a 'stocking-glove' distribution. Which of the following conditions is MOST likely?

<p>Polyneuropathy. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Before initiating any sensory testing, what is the MOST crucial step to ensure reliable results?

<p>Explain to the patient what you plan to do and how you would like them to respond. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient is suspected of having a spinal cord lesion, which pattern of sensory loss would be MOST indicative?

<p>Sensory level. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to discard the sharp instrument used for pain testing after each patient?

<p>To prevent the spread of infection. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does 'hypalgesia' refer to in the context of sensory examination?

<p>Decreased sensitivity to pain. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with suspected damage to the posterior columns is MOST likely to exhibit deficits in which combination of sensory modalities?

<p>Vibration and proprioception. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should a clinician do if a patient is unsure whether they are feeling pressure or vibration from a tuning fork?

<p>Ask the patient to indicate when the vibration stops, then touch the tuning fork to stop it and confirm the change. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following discriminative sensations is used to assess a patient's ability to recognize numbers traced on their palm?

<p>Graphesthesia. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During sensory examination, when should discriminative sensation testing be performed?

<p>Only if touch and position sense are intact or only slightly impaired. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In sensory neglect, when a patient is touched simultaneously on both sides of their body, what is the typical response?

<p>The patient reports touch only on the unaffected side of the body. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is asked to close their eyes and indicate when they feel a touch. The clinician alternates between touching the patient's skin and not touching it. What is the purpose of this technique?

<p>To evaluate the reliability of the patient's responses and identify potential malingering. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a spinal cord injury reports a loss of sensation around their umbilicus. Which dermatome level is MOST likely affected?

<p>T10 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A construction worker falls and injures his spine. Examination reveals loss of sensation along the medial aspect of the arm and forearm. Which dermatome is MOST likely involved?

<p>C8 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a motorcycle accident, a patient has lower extremity paralysis and loss of sensation in the perianal region. Which dermatome is MOST likely affected?

<p>S5 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports numbness and tingling in the thumb and index finger. Which dermatome corresponds to this presentation?

<p>C6 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports sensory loss in the groin and anterior thigh region following a surgical procedure. Which dermatome is MOST likely affected?

<p>L1 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an assessment for suspected meningitis, a clinician flexes the patient's neck, and the patient involuntarily flexes their hips and knees. This finding is indicative of which sign?

<p>Brudzinski sign (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with suspected meningitis experiences significant pain and resistance when the clinician attempts to extend the patient's leg at the knee while the hip is flexed. This is a positive finding for which test?

<p>Kernig sign (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A clinician suspects meningeal irritation in a patient presenting with a headache. The clinician instructs the patient to quickly turn their head from side to side. A positive test would be indicated by:

<p>Worsening of headache (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST important initial step to perform before assessing a patient for nuchal rigidity?

<p>Rule out cervical spine injury or fracture (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might standard meningeal signs (nuchal rigidity, Kernig's, Brudzinski's) be unreliable in elderly patients?

<p>They often have pre-existing arthritis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient exhibits a positive Kernig sign during an examination for suspected meningitis. What is the underlying mechanism producing this sign?

<p>Irritation of the meninges and spinal nerve roots (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

While assessing a patient, you suspect meningeal irritation. You perform the Jolt Accentuation of Headache (JAH) test, but the patient reports no change in their headache. What does this result indicate?

<p>Meningitis cannot be ruled out based on this test alone (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with fever, headache, and suspected meningitis. Which of the following findings would MOST increase the specificity of the nuchal rigidity test?

<p>Recent onset of headache (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A clinician is examining a patient with suspected meningeal irritation but is unable to fully flex the patient's neck due to pain despite not having a spinal injury. What is the MOST appropriate term to document this finding?

<p>Nuchal rigidity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient experiencing back pain and potential radiculopathy undergoes a Kernig test. How does the mechanism of a positive Kernig's sign relate to radicular pain?

<p>Stretches irritated nerve roots, eliciting radicular pain (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You are assessing a patient for spinal cord injury and observe the following: intact sensation to light touch on the axilla, loss of sensation at the nipple line, and intact sensation inferior to the umbilicus. Which dermatome level is MOST likely affected?

<p>T4 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with saddle anesthesia and urinary retention. Which dermatome is associated with these clinical findings that may indicate cauda equina syndrome?

<p>S5 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A sexually active 25-year-old patient presents to the clinic with fever, stiff neck, and headache. The patient denies photophobia. You perform Brudzinski's sign and Kernig's sign, which are both negative. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

<p>Perform a Jolt Accentuation of Headache (JAH) test to further evaluate for meningitis. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known spinal cord injury at T2 reports new onset allodynia (pain from stimuli that are not normally painful) below the level of the injury. Which of the following best explains this phenomenon?

<p>All dermatomes below the level of injury can be affected in spinal cord injuries. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports pain radiating down the leg along the posterior thigh and calf. Examination reveals a positive straight leg raise test. How is this presentation related to the Kernig sign?

<p>Both signs stretch irritated nerve roots, eliciting radicular pain. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Mental Status (Screening Exam)

Assess alertness, orientation (person, place, time), and appropriateness of responses.

Visual Acuity (CN II)

Test visual acuity using a Snellen chart or by asking the patient to read printed material.

Pupillary Light Reflex (CN II, III)

Examine pupillary reaction to light in both eyes to assess optic and oculomotor nerve function.

Extraocular Movements (CN III, IV, VI)

Test the range of motion of the eyes in all directions to assess the function of CN III, IV, and VI.

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Hearing (CN VIII)

Assess the patient's ability to hear sounds at various frequencies.

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Facial Strength (CN VII)

Evaluate facial muscle strength by having the patient smile, raise eyebrows, and close eyes tightly.

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Speech (CN V, VII, X, XII)

Listen to the patient's speech for clarity, articulation, and fluency.

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Motor Function (Strength)

Assess muscle strength against resistance in major muscle groups.

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Deep Tendon Reflexes

Check biceps, patellar, and Achilles tendons with a reflex hammer.

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Plantar (Babinski) Response

Elicit the plantar reflex by stroking the sole of the foot.

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Sensation (Screening Exam)

Test pain, temperature, light touch, vibration, or proprioception on the toes.

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Coordination Testing

Assess coordination by testing rapid alternating movements and finger-to-nose/heel-to-shin tests.

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Gait Assessment

Observe the patient's normal and tandem (heel-to-toe) gait.

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Primary Headaches

Headaches without an identified underlying disease.

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Secondary Headaches

Headaches arising from underlying structural, systemic, or infectious causes.

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Key Headache Assessment Questions

Location, character, severity, onset, and time course.

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Subarachnoid Hemorrhage Headache

Sudden, severe headache, often described as 'the worst headache of my life.'

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Meningitis Headache

Severe headache accompanied by a stiff neck.

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Headache from Mass Lesion

Dull headache increased by coughing or sneezing, recurring in the same location.

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POUND Features (Migraine)

Pulsatile, One-day duration, Unilateral, Nausea, Disabling.

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Progressively severe headaches

Tumor, abscess, or mass lesion.

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Progressive Headache

Headaches that increase in frequency or severity over a 3-month period.

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Thunderclap Headache

The abrupt onset of a severe headache, peaking within seconds to minutes.

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New-Onset Headache After 50

New headaches that begin after the age of 50.

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Positional Headache

Headaches that change in intensity with changes in body or head position.

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Valsalva-Induced Headache

Headaches triggered by activities that increase intrathoracic pressure.

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Headache with Systemic Symptoms

Headaches accompanied by systemic symptoms like fever, night sweats, or weight loss.

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Headache in Specific Populations

Headaches occurring in individuals with a history of cancer, HIV, or pregnancy.

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Post-Traumatic Headache

Headaches following a recent physical impact to the head.

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New or Different Headache Pattern

A new type of headache that is distinctly different from previous headaches.

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Headache with No Prior History

Headaches occurring in an individual with no prior history of headaches.

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Papilledema

Swelling of the optic disc, indicating increased intracranial pressure.

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Neck Stiffness

Stiffness in the neck, often associated with infection or inflammation of the meninges.

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Focal Neurological Signs

Weakness, numbness, or altered sensation affecting a specific area.

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Tension Headaches

Most common type; often bilateral, non-pulsating, and associated with muscle tenderness.

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New Headache > Age 50

Headache that starts after age 50 needs investigation.

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Headache + Fever/Stiff Neck

Headache with fever and stiff neck suggests meningitis.

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CN I - Olfactory Function and Testing

Sense of smell; test each nostril with a familiar, non-irritating odor.

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CN II - Optic Function and Testing

Visual acuity and fields, ocular fundi; use Snellen chart, confrontation, and ophthalmoscopic exam.

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CNs II & III - Pupillary Reactions

Pupillary reactions; check direct and consensual light response, noting pupil size and shape.

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CNs III, IV, VI - Eye Movements

Extraocular movements; assess six cardinal gazes, convergence, and look for nystagmus or ptosis.

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CN V - Trigeminal Function and Testing

Facial sensation and jaw movement; test light touch/pain on forehead, cheeks, chin; palpate masseter & temporalis.

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CN VII - Facial Function and Testing

Facial expression; assess by having the patient raise eyebrows, frown, close eyes tight, smile, and puff cheeks.

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CN VIII - Vestibulocochlear Function and Testing

Hearing and balance; use whisper test initially; if needed, perform Weber/Rinne tests.

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CNs IX & X - Glossopharyngeal & Vagus Function and Testing

Palatal movement, gag reflex, and swallowing; observe palate elevation and test gag reflex.

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CN XI - Accessory Function and Testing

SCM and trapezius strength; test by having the patient shrug shoulders and turn head against resistance.

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CN XII - Hypoglossal Function and Testing

Tongue symmetry, position, and movement; have patient protrude tongue and push against cheek.

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Anisocoria

Difference of >0.4 mm in pupil diameter.

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Nystagmus

Involuntary jerking movement of the eyes.

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Ptosis

Drooping of the upper eyelids.

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Conductive Hearing Loss

From impaired “air through ear” transmission.

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Sensorineural Hearing Loss

Damage to the cochlear branch of CN VIII.

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Fasciculations

Small irregular twitching affecting small muscle groups.

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Dysarthria

Poor articulation of words.

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Masseter and Temporalis Muscle Contraction

Contraction in muscles when jaw is clenched.

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Key Muscle Stretch Reflexes

Reflexes: Biceps (C5-C6), Triceps (C6-C7), Brachioradialis (C5-C6), Patellar (L2-L4), Achilles (S1), Plantar (L5-S1)

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Technique for Eliciting Reflexes

Have the patient relax, strike the tendon briskly, and compare side to side.

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Reinforcement Technique

Have patient contract other muscles before striking the tendon.

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Deep Tendon Reflex Grading Scale

4+: Very brisk, hyperactive; 3+: Brisker than average; 2+: Average, normal; 1+: Somewhat diminished; 0: No response.

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Reflex Interpretation

Hyperreflexia may indicate a CNS (UMN) lesion. Hyporeflexia or areflexia may indicate a PNS (LMN) lesion.

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Reinforcement Explained

Isometric contraction of other muscles to increase reflex activity.

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Biceps Reflex Technique

Partially flex elbow, strike thumb on biceps tendon, observe elbow flexion.

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Triceps Reflex Technique

Flex arm at elbow, strike triceps tendon directly behind and above the elbow, watch for elbow extension.

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Brachioradialis Reflex Technique

Hand on lap, forearm pronated, strike radius 2-4 inches above wrist, watch for elbow flexion and supination.

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Quadriceps (Patellar) Reflex Technique

Tap patellar tendon just below patella, note quadriceps contraction and knee extension.

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Achilles (Ankle) Reflex Technique

Dorsiflex foot, strike Achilles tendon, watch for plantar flexion.

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Plantar Response Technique

Stroke lateral sole from heel to ball, curving medially; normal response is plantar flexion.

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Positive Babinski Response

Dorsiflexion of big toe, potentially with fanning of other toes, indicates CNS lesion.

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Temperature Assessment

Evaluates the integrity of the spinothalamic tract using a warmed or cooled tuning fork.

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Light Touch Assessment

Evaluates both spinothalamic and posterior column pathways using a fine wisp of cotton.

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Vibration Assessment

Evaluates the posterior columns using a 128 Hz tuning fork on bony prominences.

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Proprioception Assessment

Evaluates the posterior columns by moving the patient's toe or finger up or down.

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Stereognosis

Evaluates sensory cortex function by placing familiar objects in the patient's hand.

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Graphesthesia

Evaluates sensory cortex function by drawing numbers on the patient's palm.

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Two-Point Discrimination

Ability to perceive two distinct points of touch

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Point Localization

Ability to identify a point on the skin that was touched.

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Extinction

Ability to perceive stimuli on both sides of the body simultaneously.

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Analgesia

Absence of pain sensation.

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Hypalgesia

Decreased sensitivity to pain.

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Hyperalgesia

Increased sensitivity to pain.

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Anesthesia

Absence of touch sensation.

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Hypesthesia

Decreased sensitivity to touch.

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Hyperesthesia

Increased sensitivity to touch.

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Astereognosis

Inability to recognize objects by touch.

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Stocking-Glove Sensory Loss

Loss of sensation in a pattern resembling a glove or stocking.

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Sensory Level

Sensory loss is reduced below a dermatome on one or both sides.

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Hemisensory Loss

Sensory loss affecting one half of the body.

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Dermatome

Area of skin innervated by the sensory root of a single spinal nerve.

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C6 Dermatome

Thumb side of the forearm and hand.

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C8 Dermatome

Little finger and ulnar side of the forearm.

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T4 Dermatome

Nipple level dermatome.

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T10 Dermatome

Umbilicus level dermatome.

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L1 Dermatome

Inguinal and suprapubic region dermatome.

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S5 Dermatome

Perianal region dermatome.

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Nuchal Rigidity

Resistance to neck flexion.

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Brudzinski Sign

Involuntary hip and knee flexion when the neck is flexed.

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Kernig Sign

Pain and resistance to knee extension when hip is flexed.

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Jolt Accentuation of Headache (JAH)

Worsening headache with horizontal head rotations.

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Study Notes

Dermatomes

  • A dermatome is a band of skin innervated by the sensory root of a single spinal nerve.
  • Knowledge of dermatomes helps localize neurologic lesions to a specific level of the spinal cord, especially in spinal cord injuries.
  • Dermatome levels are more variable between individuals than standard diagrams suggest.
  • Dermatomes overlap at their upper and lower margins and slightly across the midline.
  • In spinal cord injury, all dermatomes below the injury level can be affected.
  • Sensory level may be several segments lower than the spinal lesion.
  • Percussing for the level of vertebral pain may be helpful in spinal cord injuries.
  • Radiculopathy (damage to a spinal nerve root) causes sensory loss limited to the affected dermatome.
  • Key dermatomes to know: C6, C8, T4, T10, L1, S5.

Special Techniques for Meningeal Signs

  • Perform these maneuvers when suspecting meningeal inflammation from meningitis or subarachnoid hemorrhage.
  • Inflammation in the subarachnoid space causes resistance to movement that stretches the spinal nerves and meninges.
  • Meningeal signs have low specificity, but specificity increases with suggestive symptoms like fever and recent headache.
  • Sensitivity of these maneuvers is reduced in the very old and very young, patients receiving analgesia, and those with viral meningitis.

Nuchal Rigidity

  • First ensure there is no injury or fracture to the cervical vertebrae or cervical cord (radiologic evaluation may be required).
  • With the patient supine, place hands behind the patient’s head and flex the neck forward, attempting to touch the chin to the chest.
  • Nuchal rigidity is neck stiffness with resistance to flexion.
  • Nuchal rigidity is found in ∼84% of patients with acute bacterial meningitis and 21% to 86% of patients with subarachnoid hemorrhage.

Brudzinski Sign

  • As you flex the patient's neck, observe the hips and knees; they should remain relaxed and motionless.
  • Flexion of both hips and knees is a positive Brudzinski sign.

Kernig Sign

  • Flex the patient’s leg at both the hip and knee, and then slowly extend the leg and straighten the knee.
  • Discomfort behind the knee during full extension is normal, but should not produce pain.
  • Pain and increased resistance to knee extension are a positive Kernig sign.
  • Sensitivity and specificity for Brudzinski and Kernig signs are reported as ∼5% and 95% in limited study sets.
  • Meningitis may be present in older adult patients in the absence of these signs.
  • Irritation or compression of a lumbar or sacral nerve root or the sciatic nerve causes radicular or sciatic pain radiating into the leg when the nerve is stretched by extending the leg.

Jolt Accentuation of Headache (JAH)

  • Have the patient rotate their head side to side (as if nodding no) at a speed of 2 to 3 times per second.
  • The test is positive if this maneuver worsens the headache.
  • A positive JAH strongly increases the possibility of meningitis, but a negative result cannot rule out acute meningitis.

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