Blueprint Bio/Biochem FL #1

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following accurately describes the sequence of events in transmitting a signal from the brain to a skeletal muscle?

  • Cerebral cortex → spinal cord → afferent neurons → skeletal muscle cells
  • Spinal cord → cerebral cortex → efferent neurons → skeletal muscle cells
  • Spinal cord → cerebral cortex → afferent neurons → skeletal muscle cells
  • Cerebral cortex → spinal cord → efferent neurons → skeletal muscle cells (correct)

What is the primary distinction between the somatic and autonomic nervous systems?

  • The somatic system controls voluntary movements, while the autonomic system controls involuntary actions. (correct)
  • Both systems control involuntary actions, but the autonomic system has a wider range of effects.
  • The autonomic system controls voluntary movements, while the somatic system controls involuntary actions.
  • Both systems control voluntary movements, but the somatic system acts faster.

During a stressful situation, the sympathetic nervous system is activated. Which of the following physiological responses is most likely to occur?

  • Pupil constriction and increased digestion
  • Pupil dilation and decreased heart rate
  • Pupil constriction and decreased heart rate
  • Pupil dilation and decreased digestion (correct)

What is the role of calcium ions ($Ca^{2+}$) in neurotransmitter release or muscle contraction?

<p>They initiate the release of neurotransmitters or cause muscle fibers to contract. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is the G1 phase of the cell cycle crucial for cell division?

<p>It allows the cell to grow and prepare for DNA replication. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do Aurora kinases contribute to cell division during the G2 phase?

<p>They prepare the cell for mitosis. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of cancer stem cells in tumor growth and treatment resistance?

<p>They can self-renew and resist treatment, sustaining tumor growth. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following cell types has the most limited differentiation potential?

<p>Unipotent cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do macrophages and dendritic cells play in adaptive immunity?

<p>They activate adaptive immunity by presenting antigens via MHC. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of cytotoxic T cells (CD8⁺) in the immune response?

<p>Killing infected cells via MHC Class I. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do helper T cells (CD4⁺) contribute to the adaptive immune response?

<p>They activate immune responses via MHC Class II. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes eosinophils from erythrocytes in terms of cellular components?

<p>Eosinophils have a nucleus and DNA, while erythrocytes do not. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key difference between eosinophils and B cells in the immune response?

<p>B cells produce antibodies, while eosinophils do not, though they can bind them. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are peptide bonds considered stable?

<p>They exhibit resonance, restricting rotation and strengthening the bond. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does urea affect protein structure?

<p>It disrupts secondary and tertiary structures but does not break peptide bonds. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At physiological pH (7.4), what charge is typically associated with aspartic acid (Asp) and glutamic acid (Glu)?

<p>Negatively charged (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following amino acids would most likely be found in abundance in a cationic protein?

<p>Lysine (Lys) and arginine (Arg) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the structural feature of eukaryotic mRNA that distinguishes it from prokaryotic mRNA?

<p>Eukaryotic mRNA is monocistronic, while prokaryotic mRNA can be polycistronic. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During transcription, what is the directionality of RNA polymerase's movement along the template strand and the resulting mRNA synthesis?

<p>RNA polymerase reads 3' → 5' and synthesizes 5' → 3'. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following phases of the cell cycle is characterized by DNA replication?

<p>S phase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following cell types can differentiate into the widest range of cell types, including placental cells?

<p>Totipotent (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of innate immunity?

<p>It is fast and nonspecific. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of immune responses, what is the role of B cells?

<p>Producing antibodies (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Mutations that cause a protein to become more anionic would likely increase the proportion of which amino acids?

<p>Aspartic Acid and Glutamic Acid (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the influx of $Na^+$ ions affect the membrane potential of a neuron?

<p>It triggers depolarization. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The efflux of $K^+$ ions across a neuronal membrane primarily results in:

<p>Repolarization (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a study observing cell cultures, a researcher notes that a specific treatment leads to 'higher bars' on a graph representing cell division. What does this observation indicate?

<p>Increased cell proliferation and growth (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pharmaceutical company is designing a drug that will selectively target and eliminate cancer cells by enhancing the activity of cytotoxic T cells. Which of the following mechanisms would be the most effective way to achieve this?

<p>Enhancing MHC Class I expression (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is studying a protein with a high proportion of Aspartic Acid and Glutamic Acid residues. Which characteristic is the protein most likely to exhibit at physiological pH?

<p>A tendency to bind positively charged molecules. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A new drug is designed to block the replication of viral DNA within infected cells. During which phase of the cell cycle would this drug be most effective in halting the proliferation of the virus?

<p>S phase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A scientist is investigating the effects of a novel compound on nerve impulse transmission and discovers that the compound significantly reduces the amplitude of action potentials. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely responsible for this effect?

<p>Decreased activity of voltage-gated sodium channels (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is studying the properties of a protein that is found to be highly resistant to denaturation by urea. Which of the following structural features is most likely contributing to this stability?

<p>High number of disulfide bonds. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Given a mutation that impairs the function of Helper T cells, which aspect of the immune response would be most directly compromised?

<p>The production of antibodies by B cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A toxin selectively disrupts the formation of peptide bonds. Which level of protein structure would be most immediately affected?

<p>Primary structure (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher discovers a new virus that specifically targets and destroys cells in the central nervous system (CNS). Which cells would be directly affected by this virus?

<p>Cells of the brain and spinal cord (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A study has shown a correlation between increased levels of a certain protein 'X' and enhanced DNA replication in cancer cells. Targeting which phase of the cell cycle would be most effective to counteract the effects of protein 'X'?

<p>S Phase (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with a condition that impairs the function of their parasympathetic nervous system. Which of the following symptoms is most likely to be observed in this patient?

<p>Difficulty focusing on near objects (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is investigating a new drug that selectively inhibits the function of eosinophils. This drug would likely be most effective in treating which of the following conditions?

<p>Parasitic worm infections (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A laboratory experiment demonstrates that introduction of a particular molecule into a cell culture significantly increases the extent of mRNA transcription. This molecule is most likely interacting directly with which enzyme?

<p>RNA polymerase (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a researcher wants to study cells capable of differentiating into only a few related cell types, which type of cells should they focus on?

<p>Multipotent (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In designing an experiment to understand a fast, non-specific immune response, which component of the immune system should be the primary focus?

<p>Innate Immunity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pharmaceutical company aims to develop a drug targeting the cell cycle to inhibit cancer cell proliferation. Specifically, they want to prevent spindle formation and chromosome separation. Which phase of the cell cycle should this drug target?

<p>M phase (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which modification to an amino acid residue would best mimic the effects of phosphorylation?

<p>Addition of a negative charge. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the immediate result of modifications like 5’ capping, poly-A tail addition, and splicing on eukaryotic hnRNA?

<p>Conversion of hnRNA into mature mRNA ready for translation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does alternative splicing contribute to proteomic diversity in eukaryotes?

<p>By allowing a single gene to encode multiple different proteins. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the spliceosome in mRNA processing?

<p>To remove introns and join exons together. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cellular process is most directly affected by the principle of complementary nucleotide binding?

<p>miRNA-mRNA mediated gene silencing. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of molecular biology, what is the function of polymerization?

<p>Linking monomers to form a polymer, such as DNA or RNA. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During what biological process does elongation specifically refer to the addition of monomers to a growing polymer?

<p>Extending the polypeptide chain during translation or the RNA strand during transcription. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In molecular biology, how do denaturation and hybridization relate to DNA structure?

<p>Denaturation separates DNA strands, while hybridization binds them together. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does GC-rich DNA have a higher melting temperature compared to AT-rich DNA?

<p>GC base pairs have three hydrogen bonds, whereas AT base pairs have two. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the two main temperature-dependent steps involved in a standard PCR cycle, and what occurs at each step?

<p>Denaturation (95°C) and annealing (68°C). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the primary metabolic effects of insulin on glucose and lipid metabolism?

<p>Promotes glycogen synthesis, fat storage, and decreases gluconeogenesis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During fatty acid oxidation, what is produced that directly contributes to the electron transport chain?

<p>$FADH_2$ and $NADH$. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What metabolic imbalance is most likely to result from acylcarnitine translocase deficiency, and why?

<p>Hypoglycemia due to impaired fatty acid metabolism. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition directly correlates with increased protein metabolism, and why?

<p>High ammonia levels due to the breakdown of amino acids. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does aldosterone regulate blood pressure and fluid balance in the body?

<p>By increasing sodium reabsorption in the kidneys, leading to increased water retention and higher blood pressure. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary distinction between the roles of aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone (ADH) in maintaining homeostasis?

<p>Aldosterone regulates sodium reabsorption, while ADH regulates water reabsorption. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which hormones primarily regulate calcium homeostasis?

<p>Parathyroid hormone (PTH) and calcitonin. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes skeletal muscle from smooth muscle in terms of their respective functions?

<p>Skeletal muscle is voluntary, striated, and multinucleated, while smooth muscle is involuntary, non-striated, and has a single nucleus. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristics are unique to cardiac muscle tissue?

<p>Involuntary control, striated appearance, single nucleus, and presence of gap junctions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During muscle contraction, which of the following regions within the sarcomere does not shorten?

<p>A-band (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the inheritance pattern of mitochondrial DNA, and why is it unique?

<p>Maternally inherited because the egg contributes the majority of cytoplasm. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What fundamental difference exists between nuclear and mitochondrial DNA inheritance?

<p>Nuclear DNA follows Mendelian inheritance, while mitochondrial DNA follows maternal inheritance. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines cytoplasmic inheritance?

<p>Inheritance involving organelles such as mitochondria. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does mitosis differ from meiosis in terms of chromosome number?

<p>Mitosis maintains the diploid chromosome number (2n), while meiosis reduces it from diploid (2n) to haploid (n). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where does genetic material exchange typically occur during single crossover events?

<p>At the ends of the chromosome arms. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In contrast to single crossovers, where do double crossovers typically occur?

<p>Within the chromosome arms. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which phase of cellular division do crossovers occur?

<p>Meiosis (Prophase I) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does alveolar surface area impact gas exchange in the lungs?

<p>Gas exchange efficiency depends on alveolar surface area; fewer alveoli reduce efficiency. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

By what mechanism does gas exchange primarily occur in the lungs?

<p>Passive diffusion down a concentration gradient. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary factor driving expiration (exhalation)?

<p>Chest wall elasticity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main role of cilia in the respiratory system?

<p>Removing debris and mucus from the airways. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect does seawater (a hypertonic solution) have on human cells?

<p>Causes cells to shrivel due to water efflux. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do the kidneys respond to excess salt intake to maintain homeostasis?

<p>By excreting excess salt through the nephron. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does vasopressin (ADH) help regulate fluid balance during dehydration?

<p>It increases in response to dehydration to promote water retention. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the relationship between water and solute balance?

<p>Water follows solutes; therefore, excess NaCl intake leads to increased urine output. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does cholesterol affect membrane fluidity?

<p>It increases membrane rigidity by attracting phospholipid tails. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following correctly matches a protein with its primary location or function?

<p>Collagen: Tendons and ligaments. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a scenario where a cell culture is placed in a hypotonic solution, which of the following responses would be expected?

<p>The cells will swell and potentially lyse due to an influx of water. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with a genetic condition that impairs the function of their spliceosomes. What direct consequence would this have on gene expression?

<p>Impaired removal of introns from pre-mRNA, leading to abnormal protein products. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A drug is developed to selectively inhibit the function of aldosterone in the kidneys. What would be the most likely outcome of administering this drug?

<p>Increased sodium excretion, leading to decreased water retention and lowered blood pressure. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with a mitochondrial disorder affecting ATP production, which tissue type would likely be most severely affected?

<p>Muscle tissue (skeletal and cardiac). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher discovers that a particular gene is expressed differently in two tissues due to alternative splicing events. What is the most likely result of this?

<p>The gene produces different mRNA isoforms, leading to different proteins in each tissue. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a condition that affects the function of elastin in their tissues. Which of the following symptoms would most likely be observed?

<p>Reduced flexibility in blood vessels and ligaments. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Given that fatty acid oxidation produces NADH and FADH2, how does this process contribute to overall energy production in the cell?

<p>By donating electrons to the electron transport chain for oxidative phosphorylation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specific role does elastin play in human tissue?

<p>It provides elasticity and the ability to return to its original shape after stretching. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cellular component is responsible for the separation of chromosomes during mitosis?

<p>Mitotic spindle (microtubules) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a drug specifically inhibits the function of microfilaments in a cell, which biological process is most likely to be affected?

<p>Muscle contraction and cell movement. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which role do intermediate filaments play in the structure and function of cells?

<p>Provide structural support and mechanical stability to the cell. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher studies tumor cells and observes that they show reduced collagen expression. What consequence is most likely associated with this observation?

<p>Compromise the structural strength of the tissue surrounding the tumor. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Impulse transmission pathway

Cerebral cortex → spinal cord → efferent neurons → skeletal muscle cells.

Involuntary Movement

Involuntary actions; uses the autonomic nervous system.

Voluntary Movement

Voluntary movement; uses the somatic nervous system.

Central Nervous System (CNS)

Brain and spinal cord.

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Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)

All nervous system components outside the brain and spinal cord, including the autonomic and somatic systems.

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Sympathetic Nervous System Effects

Pupil dilation, increased heart rate, decreased digestion.

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Parasympathetic Nervous System Effects

Pupil constriction, decreased heart rate, increased digestion.

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Na⁺ Influx

Triggers depolarization and action potential.

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K⁺ Efflux

Restores resting potential after depolarization.

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Ca²⁺ Release

Triggers neurotransmitter release or muscle contraction.

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G1 Phase

Growth and preparation for DNA replication.

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S Phase

DNA replication.

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G2 Phase

Preparation for mitosis; Aurora kinases increase.

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M Phase

Mitosis and cell division; includes spindle formation and chromosome separation.

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Cell Proliferation

More cell growth and division is happening.

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Inhibition of Cell Division

Less cell growth; reduced division.

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Cancer Stem Cells

Resist treatment and sustain tumor growth through self-renewal.

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Totipotent

Can differentiate into any cell type, including placental cells.

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Pluripotent

Can differentiate into most cell types, but not placental cells.

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Multipotent

Can differentiate into a few related cell types.

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Innate Immunity

Fast, nonspecific immune response.

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Adaptive Immunity

Slow, antigen-specific immune response with memory.

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B Cells

Produce antibodies for humoral immunity.

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T Cells

Attack infected or cancerous cells in cell-mediated immunity.

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Macrophages & Dendritic Cells

Activate adaptive immunity by presenting antigens via MHC.

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Cytotoxic T Cells (CD8⁺)

Kill infected cells via MHC Class I.

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Helper T Cells (CD4⁺)

Activate immune responses via MHC Class II.

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Eosinophils

Have a nucleus and DNA.

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Erythrocytes

Do not have a nucleus or DNA.

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Eosinophils

Granulocytes involved in innate immunity.

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Lymphocytes (B & T cells)

Adaptive immune cells.

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Peptide Bonds

Stable due to resonance, restricting rotation and strengthening the bond.

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Peptide Bond Characteristics

Rigid, planar, and typically in the trans configuration.

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Urea

Disrupts secondary & tertiary structure but does not break peptide bonds.

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Acidic Amino Acids

Negatively charged at pH 7.4.

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Basic Amino Acids

Positively charged at pH 7.4.

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Negatively Charged Amino Acids

Mimic phosphorylation by introducing a negative charge.

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Cationic Protein

Has more basic residues (Lys, Arg, His).

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Anionic Protein

Has more acidic residues (Asp, Glu).

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Eukaryotic mRNA

Monocistronic; one mRNA codes for one protein.

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Prokaryotic mRNA

Can be polycistronic (operons); one mRNA codes for multiple proteins.

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Transcription

Happens in the nucleus; RNA polymerase reads 3' → 5', synthesizing 5' → 3'.

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Spliceosome

Removes introns and joins exons in eukaryotic hnRNA.

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Hybridization

Complementary nucleotide binding (e.g., miRNA-mRNA silencing).

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Polymerization

Linking nucleotides to form DNA or RNA.

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Elongation

Extending a growing macromolecule during transcription or translation.

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Denaturation vs. Hybridization

Separates DNA strands; hybridization binds them together.

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GC-rich DNA Melting Temperature

Region with more guanine and cytosine pairs requires more energy to separate.

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Insulin Function

Promotes glycogen synthesis, fat storage, and decreases gluconeogenesis.

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Aldosterone Role

Increases sodium reabsorption, increasing water retention and blood pressure.

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ADH (Vasopressin)

Regulates water reabsorption via aquaporins.

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PTH & Calcitonin

Regulate calcium homeostasis.

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Skeletal Muscle

Voluntary, striated, multinucleated muscle type.

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Smooth Muscle

Involuntary, non-striated, single nucleus muscle type.

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Cardiac Muscle

Involuntary, striated, single nucleus, and has gap junctions to help coordinate contraction.

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Muscle Contraction Changes

H-zone, I-band, and Z-lines shorten, A-band remains constant.

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Maternal Inheritance

Inheritance from the mother.

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Mitosis

Maintains diploid (2n) cells.

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Meiosis

Reduces diploid (2n) to haploid (n) cells.

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Single Crossovers

Genetic exchange at chromosome arm ends during meiosis.

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Double Crossovers

Segment exchange within chromosome arms during meiosis.

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Gas Exchange

Depends on alveolar surface area.

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Lung Gas Exchange

Occurs via passive diffusion.

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Expiration

Relies on chest wall elasticity.

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Hypertonic Seawater

Causes dehydration by pulling water out of cells.

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Vasopressin (ADH)

Increases in response to dehydration to retain water.

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Cholesterol

Increases membrane rigidity.

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Keratin Function

Provides structure.

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Actin & Myosin

Involved in muscle contraction.

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Collagen Function

Connects muscle to bone or bone to bone.

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Elastin

Helps increase flexibility of cells and tissue.

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Collageno

Provee fortia al texitos.

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Fusello mitotic

Structura de microtubulos que separa le chromosomas durante le mitose.

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Microfilamentos (actina)

Implica in contraction muscular.

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Filamentos intermedie

Provee supporto structural.

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Study Notes

  • Impulse transmission occurs via the following path: Cerebral cortex → spinal cord → efferent neurons → skeletal muscle cells.
  • The autonomic nervous system controls involuntary actions, whereas the somatic nervous system controls voluntary movement.
  • The central nervous system (CNS) comprises the brain and spinal cord; the peripheral nervous system (PNS) includes everything else, including the autonomic and somatic systems.
  • The sympathetic nervous system (fight-or-flight) causes pupil dilation, increased heart rate, and decreased digestion.
  • The parasympathetic nervous system (rest-and-digest) causes pupil constriction, decreased heart rate, and increased digestion.
  • Na⁺ influx triggers depolarization, leading to the action potential.
  • K⁺ efflux restores the resting potential during repolarization.
  • Ca²⁺ release triggers neurotransmitter release or muscle contraction.
  • G1 phase involves growth and preparation for DNA replication.
  • S phase involves DNA replication.
  • G2 phase involves preparation for mitosis and an increase in Aurora kinases.
  • M phase involves mitosis and cell division, including spindle formation and chromosome separation.
  • Cell proliferation means increased growth and division.
  • Inhibition of cell division means less growth.
  • Higher bars represent more inhibition and fewer growing cells.
  • Lower bars represent less inhibition and more growing cells.
  • Cancer stem cells resist treatment and sustain tumor growth through self-renewal.
  • Totipotent cells can differentiate into any cell type, including placental cells. Examples include the zygote and early embryo.
  • Pluripotent cells can differentiate into most cell types, excluding placental cells. An example is embryonic stem cells.
  • Multipotent cells can differentiate into a few related cell types. An example is blood cells from hematopoietic stem cells.
  • Innate immunity is fast and nonspecific.
  • Adaptive immunity is slow, antigen-specific, and has memory.
  • B cells produce antibodies, facilitating humoral immunity.
  • T cells attack infected or cancerous cells, facilitating cell-mediated immunity.
  • Macrophages and dendritic cells activate adaptive immunity by presenting antigens via MHC.
  • Cytotoxic T cells (CD8⁺) kill infected cells via MHC Class I.
  • Helper T cells (CD4⁺) activate immune responses via MHC Class II.
  • Eosinophils have a nucleus and DNA, unlike erythrocytes.
  • Eosinophils are granulocytes, while lymphocytes (B & T cells) are adaptive immune cells.
  • B cells produce antibodies, while eosinophils can bind but do not generate them.
  • Peptide bonds are stable because of resonance, which restricts rotation and strengthens the bond.
  • Peptide bonds are rigid, planar, and typically in the trans configuration.
  • Urea disrupts secondary and tertiary structure but does not break peptide bonds.
  • Acidic amino acids (Asp, Glu) are negatively charged at pH 7.4.
  • Basic amino acids (His, Lys, Arg) are positively charged at pH 7.4.
  • Negatively charged amino acids mimic phosphorylation by introducing a negative charge.
  • A cationic protein has more basic residues (Lys, Arg, His).
  • An anionic protein has more acidic residues (Asp, Glu).
  • Eukaryotic mRNA is monocistronic, whereas prokaryotic mRNA can be polycistronic (operons).
  • Transcription takes place in the nucleus; RNA polymerase reads 3' → 5', synthesizing 5' → 3'.
  • Eukaryotic hnRNA is modified with a 5’ cap, poly-A tail, and splicing before becoming mRNA.
  • Splicing allows one gene to encode multiple proteins via alternative splicing.
  • The spliceosome removes introns and joins exons.
  • Hybridization is complementary nucleotide binding, like miRNA-mRNA silencing.
  • Polymerization is the linking of nucleotides to form DNA or RNA.
  • Elongation is the extension of a growing macromolecule during transcription or translation.
  • Denaturation separates DNA strands, while hybridization binds them together.
  • GC-rich DNA has a higher melting temperature because of stronger hydrogen bonding.
  • PCR uses denaturation at 95°C and annealing at 68°C to amplify DNA.
  • Insulin promotes glycogen synthesis and fat storage while decreasing gluconeogenesis.
  • Fatty acid oxidation involves FADH₂ and NADH production, not hydration.
  • Acylcarnitine translocase deficiency impairs fatty acid metabolism, causing hypoglycemia.
  • High ammonia levels result from increased protein metabolism.
  • Aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption, leading to increased water retention and blood pressure.
  • Aldosterone regulates sodium levels, while ADH controls water by increasing aquaporins.
  • PTH and calcitonin regulate calcium homeostasis, not aldosterone.
  • Skeletal muscle is voluntary, striated, and multinucleated.
  • Smooth muscle is involuntary, non-striated, and has a single nucleus.
  • Cardiac muscle is involuntary, striated, has a single nucleus, and contains gap junctions.
  • Muscle contraction shortens the H-zone, I-band, and Z-lines, but not the A-band.
  • Mitochondrial DNA is maternally inherited.
  • Nuclear DNA follows Mendelian inheritance, while mitochondrial DNA follows maternal inheritance.
  • Cytoplasmic inheritance involves organelles such as mitochondria.
  • Mitosis maintains diploid (2n) cells, whereas meiosis reduces diploid (2n) to haploid (n).
  • Single crossovers exchange genetic material at the chromosome arms' ends.
  • Double crossovers swap segments within the chromosome arms.
  • Crossovers occur in meiosis (Prophase I), not mitosis.
  • Gas exchange depends on alveolar surface area; fewer alveoli reduce efficiency.
  • Gas exchange in lungs occurs via passive diffusion, not active transport.
  • Expiration relies on chest wall elasticity, not just alveolar recoil.
  • Cilia remove debris but do not directly affect gas exchange.
  • Seawater is hypertonic, leading to dehydration by pulling water out of cells.
  • The kidney excretes excess salt through the nephron to maintain balance.
  • Vasopressin (ADH) increases in response to dehydration to retain water.
  • Water follows solutes; excess NaCl intake leads to increased urine output.
  • Cholesterol increases membrane rigidity by attracting phospholipid tails.
  • Keratin is found in skin, hair, and nails.
  • Actin and myosin are found in muscle.
  • Collagen is found in tendons and ligaments and provides strength.
  • Elastin provides flexibility and recoil.
  • Mitotic spindles are made of microtubules and separate chromosomes in mitosis.
  • Microfilaments (actin) are responsible for muscle contraction, not spindle formation.
  • Intermediate filaments provide structural support and are not involved in chromosome separation.

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