Nervous System Anatomy

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Questions and Answers

What structures comprise the central nervous system (CNS)?

Brain and spinal cord

What does the peripheral nervous system (PNS) consist of?

All nerve fibers outside the brain and spinal cord

What are the key functions of the cerebral cortex?

It is the cerebrum's outer layer and serves as the center for higher-level processes like thought, memory, reasoning, sensation, and voluntary movement.

What are the basal ganglia and what system are they part of?

<p>They are collections of gray matter deep within the cerebral hemispheres that form the subcortical associated motor system, also known as the extrapyramidal system.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of the thalamus?

<p>It serves as the main relay station for sensory and motor signals to the cerebral cortex.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the major functions of the hypothalamus?

<p>It acts as a major respiratory center and controls basic functions and coordination, including temperature regulation, hunger, thirst, and sleep cycles.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What functions does the cerebellum control?

<p>It controls motor coordination, equilibrium/balance, and muscle tone associated with voluntary movements.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What structures make up the brain stem and what is its overall function?

<p>The brain stem consists of the midbrain, pons, and medulla. It controls vital functions such as breathing, heart rate, and consciousness.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Explain the concept of crossed representation in the nervous system.

<p>This refers to the arrangement where each cerebral hemisphere receives sensory information from and controls motor function of the opposite (contralateral) side of the body.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the fundamental purpose of reflexes within the nervous system?

<p>Reflexes serve as basic defense mechanisms, providing rapid, involuntary responses to stimuli to protect the body.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common example of a deep tendon (myotatic) reflex?

<p>The knee jerk reflex (patellar reflex).</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an example of a superficial (cutaneous) reflex, and what does it primarily assess?

<p>The plantar reflex is an example. It assesses sensory receptors in the skin rather than muscle stretch.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Provide an example of a visceral (organ) reflex.

<p>The pupillary response to light and accommodation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What sensory function is associated with CN I (olfactory nerve)?

<p>Sense of smell.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is CN II (optic nerve) typically assessed?

<p>Assessment includes testing visual acuity (e.g., using a Snellen chart), visual fields (confrontation test), and examining the optic fundus with an ophthalmoscope.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which three cranial nerves are responsible for eye movements and pupillary responses?

<p>CN III (oculomotor), CN IV (trochlear), and CN VI (abducens).</p> Signup and view all the answers

What functions are evaluated when testing CN V (trigeminal nerve)?

<p>Motor function (muscles of mastication, assessed via TMJ movement), sensory function (light touch, pain sensation on the face in three divisions), and potentially the corneal reflex.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is CN VII (facial nerve) function typically assessed?

<p>By asking the patient to perform various facial expressions ('facial gymnastics'), such as smiling, frowning, closing eyes tightly, lifting eyebrows, and puffing cheeks.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What tests are commonly used to assess CN VIII (acoustic or vestibulocochlear nerve)?

<p>Hearing is assessed using the whisper test. If hearing loss is suspected, the Weber and Rinne tests using a tuning fork can help differentiate conductive vs. sensorineural loss.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which functions are commonly assessed together for CN IX (glossopharyngeal) and CN X (vagus) nerves?

<p>Assessment includes evaluating speech quality, swallowing ability, the gag reflex, taste on the posterior tongue, and observing the movement of the uvula and soft palate when the patient says 'ahh'.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is CN XI (spinal accessory nerve) function tested?

<p>By assessing the strength of the sternocleidomastoid muscle (head rotation against resistance) and the trapezius muscle (shoulder shrug against resistance).</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is CN XII (hypoglossal nerve) function assessed?

<p>By inspecting the tongue for any atrophy or fasciculations and assessing its movement (protruding the tongue, moving it side to side).</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are common tests used to assess rapid alternating movements (RAM)?

<p>Examples include asking the patient to quickly flip their hands palm up and palm down on their thighs, touch their thumb to each finger sequentially, tap their foot quickly, perform the finger-to-nose test, or run their heel down the shin of the opposite leg.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is tandem walking?

<p>It is a gait test where the patient walks in a straight line, placing the heel of one foot directly in front of the toes of the other foot.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the Romberg test procedure.

<p>The patient stands with feet together, first with eyes open, and then with eyes closed. The examiner observes for any increased swaying or loss of balance when the eyes are closed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What sensory modalities are primarily transmitted by the anterolateral (spinothalamic) tract?

<p>Pain (assessed with pinprick), temperature, and crude or light touch.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What sensory modalities are primarily transmitted by the posterior (dorsal) column tract?

<p>Fine touch, vibration sense (tested with a tuning fork), and kinesthesia (proprioception or position sense).</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is stereognosis?

<p>The ability to identify familiar objects placed in the hand solely by touch, without looking.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is graphesthesia?

<p>The ability to recognize numbers or letters traced on the skin, typically on the palm of the hand.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is two-point discrimination?

<p>The ability to distinguish whether one or two points are touching the skin simultaneously.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the phenomenon of extinction in sensory testing.

<p>Extinction occurs when a patient can feel a stimulus applied to one side of the body but fails to feel the same stimulus when both sides are touched simultaneously at the same point.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the point location test?

<p>A sensory test where the examiner briefly touches the patient's skin and then asks the patient to identify the exact spot that was touched.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a deep tendon reflex score (DTRS) of 4+ indicate?

<p>Very brisk, hyperactive reflexes, often associated with clonus (rhythmic oscillations between flexion and extension); generally indicative of disease.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which spinal nerve roots are primarily assessed by eliciting the biceps reflex?

<p>C5-C6</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which spinal nerve roots are primarily assessed by eliciting the brachioradialis reflex?

<p>C5-C6</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which spinal nerve roots are primarily assessed by eliciting the quadriceps reflex (knee jerk)?

<p>L2-L4</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which spinal nerve roots are primarily assessed by eliciting the Achilles reflex (ankle jerk)?

<p>L5-S2</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is clonus in the context of reflex testing?

<p>A series of rapidly alternating involuntary muscle contractions and relaxations that occurs in response to sustained stretch during a reflex test.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Sustained clonus is typically associated with what type of neurological disease?

<p>Upper motor neuron (UMN) disease.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which spinal cord segments are tested by the upper abdominal reflexes?

<p>T8-T10</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which spinal cord segments are tested by the cremasteric reflex?

<p>L1-L2</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which spinal cord segments are primarily involved in the plantar reflex?

<p>L4-S2</p> Signup and view all the answers

What score represents a normal finding on the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?

<p>15</p> Signup and view all the answers

A Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score below what value is generally considered an indication for intubation?

<p>8</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the acronym FAST stand for in the context of recognizing stroke symptoms?

<p>F = Face drooping, A = Arm weakness, S = Speech difficulty, T = Time to call 911.</p> Signup and view all the answers

List several common warning signs of Alzheimer's disease.

<p>Memory loss (especially recent events), losing track of things, forgetting common words, getting lost in familiar places, poor judgment, difficulty with abstract thinking, misplacing items frequently, significant mood swings or personality changes, increasing passivity or withdrawal.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is flaccidity?

<p>A complete loss or significant decrease in muscle tone, resulting in limp muscles and limbs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe cogwheel rigidity.

<p>A type of rigidity where the resistance to passive movement feels like a series of catches or jerks, similar to a ratchet or cogwheel.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are fasciculations?

<p>Brief, spontaneous, involuntary contractions or twitches of muscle fibers that are often visible under the skin (described as random flinching).</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is myoclonus?

<p>Rapid, sudden, involuntary muscle jerks or contractions that can be rhythmic or irregular.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is chorea?

<p>Involuntary, irregular, rapid, jerky movements that appear to flow randomly from one body part to another; they are non-rhythmic.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is athetosis?

<p>Slow, continuous, involuntary writhing or twisting movements, often likened to a snake's movement, typically affecting the hands and feet.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What types of tremors are particularly noted for potentially interfering with Activities of Daily Living (ADLs)?

<p>Tremor in general, rest tremor (occurring when the limb is relaxed), and intention tremor (occurring during purposeful movement towards a target).</p> Signup and view all the answers

What conditions commonly result in a spastic hemiparesis gait?

<p>Conditions causing unilateral upper motor neuron damage, such as stroke or traumatic brain injury.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the typical gait pattern seen in cerebellar ataxia.

<p>A wide-based stance with unsteady, staggering, and uncoordinated movements; often described as 'drunken' gait.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the characteristic features of a Parkinsonian gait?

<p>Stooped posture, small shuffling steps (festination), decreased arm swing, and often accompanied by persistent tremors, especially rest tremors.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe a scissor gait and identify a condition often associated with it.

<p>A gait where the legs cross over each other with each step, often with the knees touching or scraping together. It is commonly associated with spastic cerebral palsy.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes a steppage or footdrop gait?

<p>The inability to dorsiflex the foot, causing the toes to drag. The patient compensates by lifting the knee higher than normal during the swing phase of walking, as if climbing stairs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the defining characteristic of muscular dystrophy?

<p>Progressive degeneration and weakness of skeletal muscles.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does hemiplegia mean?

<p>Paralysis affecting one side (left or right) of the body.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the underlying pathology of Multiple Sclerosis (MS).

<p>MS involves the destruction of the myelin sheath (demyelination) surrounding nerve fibers in the central nervous system (CNS). This is replaced by areas of scar tissue (plaques or sclerosis), which disrupts or blocks nerve signal transmission.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is peripheral neuropathy?

<p>Damage or dysfunction of one or more peripheral nerves, typically causing numbness, tingling, muscle weakness, and pain, often starting in the hands and feet.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the characteristic sensory deficits in Brown-Sequard syndrome?

<p>Loss of pain and temperature sensation on the side of the body opposite (contralateral) to the spinal cord lesion, and loss of vibration sense, proprioception (position sense), and fine touch on the same side (ipsilateral) as the lesion.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key feature of acute spinal cord compression?

<p>Symmetric loss of sensation below a distinct horizontal (circumferential) boundary.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What pattern of sensory loss is typically associated with a lesion in the thalamus?

<p>Loss of all sensory modalities (pain, temperature, touch, vibration, proprioception) on the contralateral side of the body, affecting the face, arm, and leg.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of sensory loss is characteristic of a lesion in the sensory cortex (parietal lobe)?

<p>Loss of discriminative sensations on the contralateral side, such as impaired stereognosis (object identification by touch), graphesthesia (number/letter recognition on skin), two-point discrimination, and point location. Basic sensations like pain and touch might be relatively intact.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the posture seen in decorticate rigidity.

<p>Upper extremities are flexed at the elbows and wrists, with fingers flexed and arms adducted tightly against the thorax. Lower extremities are internally rotated and extended, with plantar flexion of the feet.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of brain lesion typically causes decorticate rigidity?

<p>A lesion affecting one or both cerebral hemispheres, specifically damage to the corticospinal tracts above the level of the red nucleus in the midbrain.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does flaccid quadriplegia indicate?

<p>Complete loss of muscle tone and paralysis affecting all four extremities. It typically indicates a nonfunctional brainstem or a high cervical spinal cord injury.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is opisthotonos, and what condition does it often indicate?

<p>A state of severe hyperextension and spasticity in which an individual's head, neck, and spinal column enter into a complete 'bridging' or 'arching' position. It often indicates meningeal irritation (e.g., meningitis) or severe brainstem dysfunction.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Babinski reflex, and what is its significance in adults?

<p>The reflex occurs when the sole of the foot is firmly stroked, causing the big toe to move upward (dorsiflex) and the other toes to fan out. While normal in infants, its presence in adults is abnormal and indicates damage to the corticospinal tract (an upper motor neuron lesion).</p> Signup and view all the answers

What constitutes the central nervous system (CNS)?

<p>The brain and spinal cord.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

<p>All nerve fibers outside the brain and spinal cord.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the cerebral cortex and its functions.

<p>The cerebrum's outer layer, serving as the center of thought, memory, reasoning, sensation, and voluntary movement.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the basal ganglia?

<p>Gray matter that forms the subcortical associated motor system (extrapyramidal system).</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of the thalamus?

<p>It acts as the main relay station for sensory information.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the hypothalamus?

<p>It serves as a major respiratory center and controls basic functions and coordination.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the brain stem, what functions does it control, and what parts does it contain?

<p>The brain stem controls vital functions and contains the midbrain, pons, and medulla.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of reflexes in the nervous system?

<p>They serve as basic defense mechanisms.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is another name for deep tendon reflexes, and provide an example?

<p>Myotatic reflexes; an example is the knee jerk reflex.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is another name for superficial reflexes, and what do they assess?

<p>Cutaneous reflexes; they assess sensory receptors in the skin, not muscles. An example is the plantar reflex.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is another name for visceral reflexes, and provide an example?

<p>Organ reflexes; examples include the pupillary response to light and accommodation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of CN I (olfactory nerve) and is it routinely tested?

<p>Sense of smell; it is not routinely tested.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What functions and tests are associated with CN II (optic nerve)?

<p>Visual acuity, confrontation test (visual fields), and ophthalmoscope examination.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cranial nerves are assessed together for checking PERRLA and the 6 cardinal fields of gaze?

<p>CN III (oculomotor), CN IV (trochlear), and CN VI (abducens).</p> Signup and view all the answers

What assessments are performed for CN V (trigeminal nerve)?

<p>TMJ motor assessment, sensation (light touch, pinprick) on the face, and potentially the corneal reflex if abnormalities are found.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What assessment is commonly used for CN VII (facial nerve)?

<p>Facial gymnastics (e.g., smiling, frowning, puffing cheeks, closing eyes tightly).</p> Signup and view all the answers

What tests are used to assess CN VIII (acoustic or vestibulocochlear nerve)?

<p>Whisper test, Weber test, and Rinne test.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What functions are assessed for CN IX (glossopharyngeal) and CN X (vagus) nerves?

<p>Speech quality, swallowing ability, gag reflex, taste sensation (posterior tongue), and uvula movement ('ahh').</p> Signup and view all the answers

What movements are assessed for CN XI (spinal accessory nerve)?

<p>Shoulder shrug, head rotation, and lateral head bending, both without and against resistance.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What movement is assessed for CN XII (hypoglossal nerve)?

<p>Tongue movement (protrusion, side-to-side).</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does RAM stand for in neurological testing, and provide examples of tests?

<p>Rapid alternating movements; examples include flipping hands rapidly on the thighs, touching thumb to each finger, finger-to-nose test, and heel-down-shin test.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe tandem walking.

<p>Walking in a straight line by placing the heel of one foot directly in front of the toe of the other foot.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the Romberg test and what is observed.

<p>The patient stands with feet together and eyes closed; the examiner observes for swaying or falling.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What sensations are mediated by the anterolateral (spinothalamic) tract?

<p>Pain (pinprick), temperature, and light touch.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What sensations are mediated by the posterior (dorsal) column tract?

<p>Vibration sense (using a tuning fork) and kinesthesia (position sense).</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is stereognosis and which tract does it primarily assess?

<p>The ability to recognize familiar objects placed in the hand without looking; it assesses the posterior (dorsal) column tract.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is graphesthesia and which tract does it primarily assess?

<p>The ability to recognize numbers or letters traced on the skin; it assesses the posterior (dorsal) column tract.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is two-point discrimination and which tract does it primarily assess?

<p>The ability to distinguish the separation of two simultaneous pinpricks on the skin; it assesses the posterior (dorsal) column tract.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the extinction test in neurological assessment and which tract function does it involve?

<p>Simultaneously touching both sides of the body at the same point; the patient should feel both touches. Failure to feel one side (extinction) indicates a cortical sensory issue, dependent on intact posterior column tract pathways.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the point location test and which tract function does it involve?

<p>Touching the skin and withdrawing the stimulus, then asking the patient to identify the spot that was touched. It assesses the posterior (dorsal) column tract and cortical sensory function.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe a Deep Tendon Reflex Scale (DTRS) score of 4.

<p>Very brisk, hyperactive reflex, often with clonus; indicative of disease.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which spinal cord segments does the biceps reflex assess?

<p>C5-C6</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which spinal cord segments does the brachioradialis reflex assess?

<p>C5-C6</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which spinal cord segments does the quadriceps reflex (knee jerk) assess?

<p>L2-L4</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which spinal cord segments does the Achilles reflex (ankle jerk) assess?

<p>L5-S2 (primarily S1)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Sustained clonus is associated with what type of disease?

<p>Upper motor neuron (UMN) disease.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which spinal cord segments are assessed by the lower abdominal reflexes?

<p>T10-T12</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which spinal cord segments are assessed by the plantar reflex?

<p>L4-S2</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a normal Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?

<p>15</p> Signup and view all the answers

Below what Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score should a patient typically be considered for intubation?

<p>8</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the acronym FAST stand for in the context of stroke recognition?

<p>F = face drooping, A = arm weakness, S = speech difficulty, T = time to call 911.</p> Signup and view all the answers

List some warning signs of Alzheimer's disease.

<p>Memory loss disrupting daily life, losing track of things/tasks, difficulty finding words, getting lost, poor judgment, difficulty with abstract thinking, misplacing things and being unable to retrace steps, mood swings, personality changes, growing passive or withdrawn.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define flaccidity in relation to muscle tone.

<p>Loss of muscle tone, resulting in limp muscles.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is myoclonus? Provide an example.

<p>Rapid, sudden, involuntary muscle jerks or movements, which can be rhythmic or irregular. An example is hiccups.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe athetosis.

<p>Slow, twisting, writhing, snake-like involuntary movements, typically affecting the limbs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Name the types of tremors mentioned that can affect Activities of Daily Living (ADLs).

<p>Tremor (general), rest tremor, and intention tremor.</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what conditions is spastic hemiparesis often seen?

<p>Stroke or trauma affecting one hemisphere of the brain.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the gait associated with cerebellar ataxia.

<p>Wide-stance, staggering, unsteady gait.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the characteristics of a Parkinsonian gait.

<p>Stooped posture, small shuffling steps (festination), decreased arm swing, and often persistent tremors.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe a scissor gait and a condition it might be associated with.

<p>A gait where the knees cross or are held tightly together, and the legs swing forward in a stiff, circumducted manner, like scissors. It is often associated with cerebral palsy.</p> Signup and view all the answers

When might a steppage or footdrop gait be observed?

<p>Often seen when someone is learning to walk again after neurological injury or in conditions causing weakness of ankle dorsiflexors.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary characteristic of muscular dystrophy?

<p>Progressive muscle weakness.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define hemiplegia.

<p>Paralysis or severe impairment on one side of the body.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the pathology of Multiple Sclerosis (MS).

<p>Destruction of the myelin sheath (demyelination) on neurons in the CNS, replaced by plaques of sclerotic (hard) tissue, leading to spotty or slowed nerve signal transmissions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the sensory loss pattern in Brown-Sequard syndrome.

<p>Loss of pain and temperature sensation on the side contralateral (opposite) to the spinal cord hemisection, and loss of vibration and position sense (proprioception) on the ipsilateral (same) side.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the typical sensory loss pattern in acute spinal cord compression and list some potential causes.

<p>Symmetric loss of sensation below a specific dermatomal level (circumferential boundary). Causes include trauma, fractured vertebrae, herniated discs, tumors, or abscesses.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What pattern of sensory loss occurs with a lesion in the thalamus?

<p>Loss of all sensory modalities (touch, pain, temperature, vibration, proprioception) on the face, arm, and leg on the side of the body contralateral (opposite) to the lesion.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of sensory loss occurs with a lesion in the sensory cortex?

<p>Loss of fine discriminative sensations on the contralateral side, such as impaired graphesthesia, stereognosis, recognition of shapes/weights, and finger finding, while basic sensations like pain and light touch might be intact.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the posture associated with decorticate rigidity.

<p>Flexion of the arms, wrists, and fingers; adduction of the arms tight against the thorax; internal rotation of the legs; plantar flexion of the feet.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of lesion typically causes decorticate rigidity?

<p>A hemispheric lesion of the cerebral cortex or damage above the level of the red nucleus in the midbrain.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is flaccid quadriplegia and what does it often indicate?

<p>Complete loss of muscle tone and paralysis of all four extremities; often indicates a completely nonfunctional brainstem or a high cervical spinal cord injury.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe opisthotonos and what it indicates.

<p>Prolonged arching of the back, with the head and heels bent backward. It indicates meningeal irritation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the Babinski reflex and its significance in adults.

<p>Stroking the lateral sole of the foot causes the big toe to extend upward (dorsiflexion) and the other toes to fan out. It is normal in infants but abnormal in adults.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the central nervous system (CNS) consist of?

<p>Brain and spinal cord</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is included in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

<p>All nerve fibers outside the brain and spinal cord</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which part of the brain is the center of higher-level functions like thought, memory, reasoning, sensation, and voluntary movement?

<p>Cerebral Cortex (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the basal ganglia?

<p>They form the subcortical associated motor system, also known as the extrapyramidal system, which helps control movement.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which brain structure acts as the main relay station for sensory information?

<p>Thalamus</p> Signup and view all the answers

The _____ is a major respiratory center and also controls basic functions like temperature, appetite, and sleep.

<p>hypothalamus</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the main functions of the cerebellum?

<p>Motor coordination, equilibrium/balance, and muscle tone of voluntary movements.</p> Signup and view all the answers

The brain stem is responsible for vital functions and contains the midbrain, pons, and medulla.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is meant by 'crossed representation' in the nervous system?

<p>Each side of the brain receives sensory information from and controls motor function of the opposite side of the body.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Reflexes are basic _____ mechanisms of the nervous system.

<p>defense</p> Signup and view all the answers

Superficial (cutaneous) reflexes, like the plantar reflex, primarily assess sensory receptors in the _____ rather than muscles.

<p>skin</p> Signup and view all the answers

Pupillary response to light and accommodation is an example of which type of reflex?

<p>Visceral (organ) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the sense of smell?

<p>CN I (olfactory)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What tests are typically used to assess the function of CN II (optic)?

<p>Visual acuity (Snellen chart), visual fields (confrontation test), and examination of the optic disc (ophthalmoscope).</p> Signup and view all the answers

Assessing PERRLA (Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light and Accommodation) and the 6 cardinal fields of gaze evaluates which cranial nerves?

<p>CN III (oculomotor), CN IV (trochlear), and CN VI (abducens)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cranial nerve is assessed by testing jaw movement (TMJ motor assessment), facial sensation, and potentially the corneal reflex?

<p>CN V (trigeminal)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Testing 'facial gymnastics' (e.g., smiling, frowning, puffing cheeks) assesses which cranial nerve?

<p>CN VII (facial)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The whisper test, Weber test, and Rinne test are used to assess which cranial nerve?

<p>CN VIII (acoustic or vestibulocochlear)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Assessing speech quality, swallowing ability, gag reflex, taste on the posterior tongue, and observing palate elevation when the patient says 'ahh' primarily tests which two cranial nerves?

<p>CN IX (glossopharyngeal) and CN X (vagus)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Testing shoulder shrug, head rotation, and lateral bending against resistance assesses which cranial nerve?

<p>CN XI (spinal accessory)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cranial nerve controls tongue movement?

<p>CN XII (hypoglossal)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are examples of tests for rapid alternating movements (RAM)?

<p>Asking the patient to pat their knees with both hands, alternating palm up and palm down; touching thumb to each finger rapidly; tapping the foot rapidly.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of walking test involves placing the heel of one foot directly in front of the toe of the opposite foot?

<p>Tandem walking</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Romberg test primarily assess?

<p>Balance and proprioception (the sense of body position).</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which major sensory pathway is tested using pinprick (pain), temperature sensation, and light touch?

<p>Anterolateral (spinothalamic) tract</p> Signup and view all the answers

Testing vibration sense (using a tuning fork) and kinesthesia (position sense) assesses which major sensory pathway?

<p>Posterior (dorsal) column tract</p> Signup and view all the answers

The ability to identify familiar objects placed in the hand solely by touch, without looking, is called _____.

<p>stereognosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

_____ assesses the ability to distinguish the separation between two simultaneous pinpricks on the skin.

<p>Two-point discrimination</p> Signup and view all the answers

What sensory test involves simultaneously touching corresponding points on both sides of the body and asking if the touch is felt on one or both sides?

<p>Extinction</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which sensory test requires the patient to identify the specific spot where they were touched after the stimulus is withdrawn?

<p>Point location</p> Signup and view all the answers

A deep tendon reflex (DTR) grade of 4+ indicates what?

<p>Very brisk, hyperactive response, often with clonus; indicative of disease (e.g., upper motor neuron lesion).</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a DTR grade of 3+ signify?

<p>Brisker than average; possibly indicative of disease, but can be normal in some individuals.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is considered a normal or average DTR grade?

<p>2+</p> Signup and view all the answers

A DTR grade of 1+ indicates what?

<p>Diminished or low normal response; may require reinforcement (e.g., Jendrassik maneuver) to elicit.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a DTR grade of 0 indicate?

<p>No response.</p> Signup and view all the answers

The biceps reflex primarily assesses which spinal nerve roots?

<p>C5-C6</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which spinal nerve roots are tested by the brachioradialis reflex?

<p>C5-C6</p> Signup and view all the answers

The quadriceps reflex (knee jerk) primarily assesses which spinal nerve roots?

<p>L2-L4</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which spinal nerve roots are assessed by the Achilles reflex (ankle jerk)?

<p>L5-S2 (primarily S1)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Sustained clonus is often associated with what type of neurological disease?

<p>Upper motor neuron (UMN) disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

The upper abdominal superficial reflexes assess which spinal cord segments?

<p>T8-T10</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which spinal segments are tested by the cremasteric reflex (stroking inner thigh causes testicular elevation)?

<p>L1-L2</p> Signup and view all the answers

The plantar reflex (stroking the sole of the foot) assesses which spinal segments?

<p>L4-S2 (primarily S1)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is considered a normal, maximum score on the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?

<p>15</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a Glasgow Coma Scale score below _____ is generally considered to be in a coma and typically requires intubation.

<p>8</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the acronym FAST stand for in the context of recognizing a potential stroke?

<p>F = Face drooping, A = Arm weakness, S = Speech difficulty, T = Time to call 911.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Memory loss that disrupts daily life, challenges in planning or problem-solving, and changes in mood or personality are potential warning signs of which condition?

<p>Alzheimer's Disease (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What term describes a complete loss of muscle tone, resulting in limpness?

<p>Flaccidity</p> Signup and view all the answers

_____ is characterized by increased muscle tone causing stiffness and resistance to passive movement.

<p>Spasticity</p> Signup and view all the answers

What term describes constant muscle stiffness and resistance to passive movement, regardless of velocity?

<p>Rigidity</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of rigidity involves increased muscle tone that gives way in brief jerks during passive movement?

<p>Cogwheel rigidity</p> Signup and view all the answers

Random, spontaneous, brief twitches or contractions of muscle fibers visible under the skin are called _____.

<p>fasciculations</p> Signup and view all the answers

What term describes rapid, sudden, brief, and often repetitive muscle jerks, such as hiccups or jerks during sleep onset?

<p>Myoclonus</p> Signup and view all the answers

What term describes involuntary, non-rhythmic, rapid, jerky, and unpredictable movements that seem to flow from one body part to another?

<p>Chorea</p> Signup and view all the answers

Slow, continuous, involuntary twisting or writhing movements, resembling those of a snake and often affecting distal limbs, are called _____.

<p>athetosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

Tremors, particularly those present at rest (rest tremor) or during voluntary movement towards a target (intention tremor), can significantly interfere with activities of daily living (ADLs).

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Spastic hemiparesis, a gait pattern where the affected arm is flexed and adducted and the leg is extended and circumducted, is commonly seen after what types of neurological events?

<p>Stroke or traumatic brain injury affecting one hemisphere.</p> Signup and view all the answers

A gait characterized by a wide stance, staggering, and unsteadiness, often worsening with turns, is typical of _____.

<p>cerebellar ataxia</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the typical characteristics of a Parkinsonian gait.

<p>Stooped posture, small shuffling steps (festination), decreased arm swing, and often a persistent tremor.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of gait involves stiff leg movement with thighs crossing over each other (adduction) with each step?

<p>Scissor gait</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of gait is characterized by lifting the knee higher than normal to clear the foot due to weakness in dorsiflexion (footdrop)?

<p>Steppage or footdrop gait</p> Signup and view all the answers

Muscular dystrophy is a group of genetic diseases characterized by progressive muscle weakness and _____.

<p>degeneration (or loss of muscle mass)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What term describes paralysis or significant motor impairment affecting one side of the body (arm and leg)?

<p>Hemiplegia</p> Signup and view all the answers

Impairment or paralysis affecting the lower part of the body, typically both legs, is known as _____.

<p>paraplegia</p> Signup and view all the answers

What autoimmune neurological disorder involves the destruction of the myelin sheath surrounding nerve fibers in the central nervous system (CNS)?

<p>Multiple sclerosis (MS)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Damage to peripheral nerves, often causing numbness, tingling, pain, and weakness, particularly in the hands and feet (stocking-glove distribution), is known as _____.

<p>peripheral neuropathy</p> Signup and view all the answers

Brown-Sequard syndrome, resulting from hemisection (damage to one half) of the spinal cord, causes loss of pain and temperature sensation on the _____ side below the lesion, and loss of proprioception and vibration sense on the _____ side below the lesion.

<p>contralateral, ipsilateral</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition can cause symmetric sensory loss below a distinct horizontal level around the body (a sensory level), often accompanied by motor weakness and bowel/bladder dysfunction?

<p>Acute spinal cord compression (or transverse myelitis)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A lesion in the thalamus typically causes loss of all sensory modalities (pain, temperature, touch, vibration, proprioception) on which side of the body relative to the lesion?

<p>The contralateral (opposite) side.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Sensory loss primarily affecting discriminative sensations, such as graphesthesia, stereognosis, two-point discrimination, and point location, points towards a lesion in the _____.

<p>sensory cortex (parietal lobe)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the abnormal posturing known as decorticate rigidity.

<p>Upper extremities are flexed at the elbows and wrists, with arms adducted tight against the thorax. Lower extremities are internally rotated and extended with plantar flexion.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Decorticate rigidity generally indicates a lesion located where?

<p>Above the red nucleus, typically involving the cerebral hemispheres, internal capsule, or thalamus.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Decerebrate rigidity generally indicates a lesion in the _____ or upper _____.

<p>midbrain, pons</p> Signup and view all the answers

Complete loss of muscle tone and paralysis involving all four extremities, indicating a nonfunctional brainstem or high cervical spinal cord lesion, is termed _____.

<p>flaccid quadriplegia</p> Signup and view all the answers

What term describes a posture characterized by prolonged arching of the back, with the head and heels bent backward?

<p>Opisthotonos</p> Signup and view all the answers

A positive Babinski reflex (dorsiflexion/extension of the great toe and fanning of other toes when the lateral sole is stroked) is a normal finding in adults.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Central Nervous System (CNS)

Brain and spinal cord.

Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)

All nerve fibers outside the brain and spinal cord.

Cerebral Cortex

Cerebrum's outer layer; center of thought, memory, reasoning, sensation, and voluntary movement.

Basal Ganglia

Gray matter; subcortical associated motor system (extrapyramidal system).

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Thalamus

Main relay station for sensory information.

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Hypothalamus

Major respiratory center with basic function control and coordination.

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Cerebellum

Controls motor coordination, equilibrium/balance, and muscle tone of voluntary movements.

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Brain Stem

Vital functions; contains midbrain, pons, and medulla.

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Crossed Representation

Sides of the brain receive sensory information and control motor function of the opposite side of the body.

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Reflexes

Basic defense mechanisms of the nervous system.

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Superficial (Cutaneous) Reflexes

Assesses sensory receptors in skin, not muscles (e.g., plantar reflex).

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Visceral (Organ) Reflexes

Pupillary response to light and accommodation.

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CN I (Olfactory)

Sense of smell, not routinely tested.

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CN II (Optic)

Visual acuity, confrontation test, ophthalmoscope.

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CN III, IV, VI (Oculomotor, Trochlear, Abducens)

PERRLA; 6 cardinal fields of gaze.

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CN V (Trigeminal)

TMJ motor assessment; sensation; corneal reflex if anything abnormal is found.

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CN VII (Facial)

Facial gymnastics.

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CN VIII (Acoustic)

Whisper test, Weber test, Rinne test.

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CN IX and X (Glossopharyngeal, Vagus)

Speech, swallow, gag, taste, "ahh".

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CN XI (Spinal Accessory)

Shoulder shrug, head rotation, lateral bending (all against resistance).

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CN XII (Hypoglossal)

Tongue movement.

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Rapid Alternating Movements (RAM)

Hand flipping, finger to nose, heel down shin.

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Tandem Walking

Heel to toe walking.

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Romberg Test

Close eyes and stand up straight, observe for swaying and/or falling.

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Anterolateral (Spinothalamic) Tract

Pinprick (pain), temperature, light touch at random sites on body.

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Posterior (Dorsal) Column Tract

Tuning fork vibration sense, kinesthesia sense.

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Stereognosis

Familiar objects; assesses posterior (dorsal) column tract.

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Graphesthesia

Numbers and letters traced on skin; assesses posterior (dorsal) column tract.

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Two-Point Discrimination

Ability to distinguish the separation of two simultaneous pinpricks on the skin; assesses posterior (dorsal) column tract.

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Extinction

Simultaneously touch both sides of body at same point; both sides should be felt; assesses posterior (dorsal) column tract.

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Point Location

Touch skin and withdraw stimulus and ask patient to identify spot that was touched; assesses posterior (dorsal) column tract.

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DTRS 4

Very brisk, hyperactive with clonus, indicative of disease.

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DTRS 3

Brisker than average, may indicate disease.

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DTRS 2

Average, normal.

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DTRS 1

Diminished, low normal, or occurs with reinforcement.

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DTRS 0

No response.

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Biceps Reflex assesses...

C5-C6

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Triceps Reflex assesses...

C7-C8

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Brachioradialis Reflex assesses...

C5-C6

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Quadriceps Reflex (Knee Jerk) assesses...

L2-L4

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Achilles Reflex assesses...

L5-S2

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Clonus

Rapidly alternating involuntary contraction and relaxation of a muscle in response to reflex test; indicates hyperactive reflexes.

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What disease is sustained clonus associated with?

Upper motor neuron (UMN) disease.

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Upper Abdominal Reflexes

T8-T10

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Lower Abdominal Reflexes

T10-T12

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Cremasteric Reflex

L1-L2

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Plantar Reflex

L4-S2

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Normal Glasgow Coma Scale Score

15

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Below what score on the Glasgow coma scale should the patient be intubated?

8

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Study Notes

  • The central nervous system (CNS) consists of the brain and spinal cord.
  • The peripheral nervous system (PNS) includes all nerve fibers outside the brain and spinal cord.

Cerebral Cortex

  • The cerebral cortex is the cerebrum's outer layer.
  • It functions as the center of thought, memory, reasoning, sensation, and voluntary movement.

Basal Ganglia

  • Basal ganglia are gray matter that forms the subcortical associated motor system, also known as the extrapyramidal system.

Thalamus

  • The thalamus serves as the main relay station in the brain.

Hypothalamus

  • The hypothalamus is a major respiratory center that controls and coordinates basic bodily functions.

Cerebellum

  • The cerebellum controls motor coordination, equilibrium/balance, and muscle tone of voluntary movements.

Brain Stem

  • The brain stem is responsible for vital functions.
  • It contains the midbrain, pons, and medulla.

Crossed Representation

  • In crossed representation, each side of the brain receives sensory information from and controls motor function of the opposite side of the body.

Reflexes

  • Reflexes are basic defense mechanisms of the nervous system.

Deep Tendon Reflexes

  • An example of a deep tendon reflex is the knee jerk.

Superficial Reflexes

  • Superficial reflexes, such as the plantar reflex, assess sensory receptors in the skin, not muscles.

Visceral Reflexes

  • Visceral reflexes include pupillary response to light and accommodation.

Cranial Nerve I

  • Cranial Nerve I (olfactory) is responsible for the sense of smell, but is not routinely tested.

Cranial Nerve II

  • Cranial Nerve II (optic) is assessed through visual acuity tests, the confrontation test, and ophthalmoscopy.

Cranial Nerves III, IV, VI

  • Cranial Nerves III (oculomotor), IV (trochlear), and VI (abducens) are evaluated using PERRLA and the six cardinal fields of gaze.

Cranial Nerve V

  • Cranial Nerve V (trigeminal) is assessed via temporomandibular joint (TMJ) motor assessment, sensation tests, and the corneal reflex if abnormalities are found.

Cranial Nerve VII

  • Cranial Nerve VII (facial) is evaluated through facial gymnastics.

Cranial Nerve VIII

  • Cranial Nerve VIII (acoustic) is tested using the whisper test, Weber test, and Rinne test.

Cranial Nerves IX and X

  • Cranial Nerves IX (glossopharyngeal) and X (vagus) are assessed through speech, swallow, gag reflex, taste evaluation, and observing the "ahh" response.

Cranial Nerve XI

  • Cranial Nerve XI (spinal accessory) is evaluated by testing shoulder shrug and head rotation strength, with and without resistance.

Cranial Nerve XII

  • Cranial Nerve XII (hypoglossal) is assessed by observing tongue movement.

Rapid Alternating Movements

  • Rapid alternating movements (RAM) are tested by hand flipping, finger-to-nose movements, and heel-down-shin tests.

Tandem Walking

  • Tandem walking involves walking heel to toe.

Romberg Test

  • The Romberg test requires the patient to close their eyes and stand straight, observing for swaying or falling.

Anterolateral Tract

  • The anterolateral (spinothalamic) tract is evaluated by testing pinprick (pain), temperature, and light touch at random sites on the body.

Posterior Column Tract

  • The posterior (dorsal) column tract is assessed through tuning fork vibration sense and kinesthesia sense.

Stereognosis

  • Stereognosis is the ability to recognize familiar objects by touch, assessing the posterior (dorsal) column tract.

Graphesthesia

  • Graphesthesia is the ability to recognize numbers and letters traced on the skin, assessing the posterior (dorsal) column tract.

Two-Point Discrimination

  • Two-point discrimination is the ability to distinguish the separation of two simultaneous pinpricks on the skin.
  • It assesses the posterior (dorsal) column tract.

Extinction

  • Extinction is tested by simultaneously touching both sides of the body at the same point, ensuring both sides are felt.
  • It assesses the posterior (dorsal) column tract.

Point Location

  • Point location involves touching the skin, withdrawing the stimulus, and asking the patient to identify the spot touched.
  • It assesses the posterior (dorsal) column tract.

DTRS 4

  • DTRS 4 indicates very brisk, hyperactive reflexes with clonus, indicative of disease.

DTRS 3

  • DTRS 3 indicates reflexes that are brisker than average and may indicate disease.

DTRS 2

  • DTRS 2 represents average, normal reflexes.

DTRS 1

  • DTRS 1 indicates diminished, low normal reflexes, or reflexes that occur with reinforcement.

DTRS 0

  • DTRS 0 indicates no reflex response.

Biceps Reflex

  • The biceps reflex assesses C5-C6.

Triceps Reflex

  • The triceps reflex assesses C7-C8.

Brachioradialis Reflex

  • The brachioradialis reflex assesses C5-C6.

Quadriceps Reflex

  • The quadriceps reflex (knee jerk) assesses L2-L4.

Achilles Reflex

  • The Achilles reflex assesses L5-S2.

Clonus

  • Clonus is a rapidly alternating involuntary contraction and relaxation of a muscle in response to a reflex test, indicating hyperactive reflexes.

Sustained Clonus

  • Sustained clonus is associated with upper motor neuron (UMN) disease.

Upper Abdominal Reflexes

  • Upper abdominal reflexes are associated with T8-T10.

Lower Abdominal Reflexes

  • Lower abdominal reflexes are associated with T10-T12.

Cremasteric Reflex

  • The cremasteric reflex is associated with L1-L2.

Plantar Reflex

  • The plantar reflex is associated with L4-S2.

Normal Glasgow Coma Scale Score

  • A normal Glasgow Coma Scale score is 15.

Glasgow Coma Scale & Intubation

  • Patients with a Glasgow Coma Scale score below 8 should be intubated.

FAST

  • FAST is an acronym for:
  • F = Face drooping
  • A = Arm weakness
  • S = Speech difficulty
  • T = Time to call 911

Warning Signs of Alzheimer's

  • Warning signs of Alzheimer's include:
  • Memory loss
  • Losing track
  • Forgetting words
  • Getting lost
  • Poor judgement
  • Abstract failing
  • Losing things
  • Mood swings
  • Personality change
  • Growing passive

Flaccidity

  • Flaccidity is a loss of muscle tone, resulting in limpness.

Spasticity

  • Spasticity is increased muscle tone.

Rigidity

  • Rigidity is stiffness.

Cogwheel Rigidity

  • Cogwheel rigidity is resistance to movement, decreasing to stiffness after movement begins.

Fasciculations

  • Fasciculations are random flinching movements.

Myoclonus

  • Myoclonus refers to rhythmic, rapid, sudden movements, such as hiccups.

Chorea

  • Chorea involves non-rhythmic, rapid, sudden movements.

Athetosis

  • Athetosis is twisting or writhing movements, similar to a snake.

Tremors Affecting ADLs

  • Tremors that affect activities of daily living (ADLs) include tremor, rest tremor, and intention tremor.

Spastic Hemiparesis

  • Spastic hemiparesis is commonly seen in stroke/trauma patients.

Cerebellar Ataxia

  • Cerebellar ataxia presents as wide-stance staggering.

Parkinsonian Gait

  • Parkinsonian gait is characterized by stooped posture, small shuffling steps, and persistent tremors.

Scissor Gait

  • Scissor gait involves knees touching and is associated with cerebral palsy.

Steppage/Footdrop

  • Steppage/footdrop is seen when learning to walk again.

Muscular Dystrophy

  • Muscular dystrophy is associated with increased muscle weakness.

Hemiplegia

  • Hemiplegia is one-sided impairment.

Paraplegia

  • Paraplegia is waist-down impairment.

Multiple Sclerosis

  • Multiple sclerosis (MS) involves the destruction of the myelin sheath on neurons in the CNS, replaced by plaques of sclerotic tissue, causing spotty signal transmissions.

Peripheral Neuropathy

  • Peripheral neuropathy is the loss of sensation in the peripheries.

Brown-Sequard Syndrome

  • Brown-Sequard syndrome results from spinal cord hemisection, leading to loss of pain and temperature sensation on the contralateral side and loss of vibration and position discrimination on the ipsilateral side.

Acute Spinal Cord Compression

  • Acute spinal cord compression causes symmetric loss of sensation under a circumferential boundary.
  • It can be caused by trauma, fractured vertebrae, herniated discs, tumors, abscesses, etc.

Thalamus Sensory Loss

  • Thalamus sensory loss results in the loss of all sensory modalities on the face, arm, and leg on the opposite side of the lesion.

Cortex Sensory Loss

  • Cortex sensory loss leads to loss of discrimination on the contralateral side, including graphesthesia, stereognosis, recognition of shapes/weights, and finger finding.

Decorticate Rigidity

  • Decorticate rigidity involves flexion of the arm, wrist, and fingers, adduction of the arm tight against the thorax, internal rotation of the legs, and plantar flexion.

Cause of Decorticate Rigidity

  • Decorticate rigidity is caused by a hemispheric lesion of the cerebral cortex.

Decerebrate Rigidity

  • Decerebrate rigidity is characterized by arms stiffly extended, abducted, and internally rotated, palms pronated, legs stiffly extended, plantar flexion, clenched teeth, and hyperextended back.

Cause of Decerebrate Rigidity

  • Decerebrate rigidity is caused by a midbrain or upper pons lesion.

Flaccid Quadriplegia

  • Flaccid quadriplegia involves complete loss of muscle tone and paralysis of all four extremities, indicating a completely nonfunctional brainstem, usually at the cervical level.

Opisthotonos

  • Opisthotonos is prolonged arching of the back with the head and heels bent backward.
  • It indicates meningeal irritation.

Babinski Reflex

  • The Babinski reflex involves the big toe moving upward or toward the top surface of the foot and the other toes fanning out in response to stroking the sole of the foot.
  • This reflex should not occur in adults.

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