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Questions and Answers
a) Define assets owned at the end of period t by at. Determine the period budget constraints (there is one for each period) and the (single) budget constraint at present value.
a) Define assets owned at the end of period t by at. Determine the period budget constraints (there is one for each period) and the (single) budget constraint at present value.
The assets owned at the end of period t are denoted by $a_t$. The period budget constraint for period 1 is $c_1 + a_1 = \omega_1 + (1 + r)a_0$, and for period 2 is $c_2 + a_2 = \omega_2$. The single budget constraint at present value is $c_1 + \frac{c_2}{1 + r} = \frac{\omega_1}{1 + r} + \omega_2.
b) What is the “law of motion” for wealth/assets (of the form at = c + d at−1 ). Which restriction is missing in this consumption problem. Explain the respective condition.
b) What is the “law of motion” for wealth/assets (of the form at = c + d at−1 ). Which restriction is missing in this consumption problem. Explain the respective condition.
The law of motion for wealth/assets is of the form $a_t = c_t + (1 + r)a_{t-1}$. The missing restriction in this consumption problem is the transversality condition, which states that $\lim_{t \to \infty} \lambda_t a_t = 0$, where $\lambda_t$ is the shadow price of wealth in period t.
c) Solve the above optimization problem using the Lagrangian method and the budget constraint at.
c) Solve the above optimization problem using the Lagrangian method and the budget constraint at.
To solve the optimization problem using the Lagrangian method, we construct the Lagrangian function: $L(c_1, c_2, \lambda) = \ln(c_1) + \frac{1}{1+\rho} \ln(c_2) + \lambda \left(c_1 + \frac{c_2}{1 + r} - \frac{\omega_1}{1 + r} - \omega_2\right)$. Then, we take the first-order conditions by differentiating L with respect to $c_1$, $c_2$, and $\lambda$, and setting the derivatives equal to 0.