Podcast
Questions and Answers
In the context of pathological proliferations of white cells, what is the primary distinction between physiological and pathological myeloid proliferation?
In the context of pathological proliferations of white cells, what is the primary distinction between physiological and pathological myeloid proliferation?
- Physiological proliferation is a normal response, such as a reaction to antigens, whereas pathological proliferation is associated with conditions like leukemia. (correct)
- Pathological proliferation is an expected reaction to antigens, while physiological proliferation results in leukemia
- Pathological proliferation occurs in response to infections, while physiological proliferation is always indicative of an underlying malignancy.
- Physiological proliferation is characterized exclusively by increased production of lymphocytes, while pathological proliferation involves only myeloid cells.
If a patient's peripheral blood smear shows a 'left shift,' what does this typically indicate?
If a patient's peripheral blood smear shows a 'left shift,' what does this typically indicate?
- A normal distribution of neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils and monocytes in the blood.
- An increased proportion of immature neutrophils, suggesting an ongoing infection or inflammatory process. (correct)
- An increased number of mature neutrophils, indicating a resolved infection.
- A decreased number of mature neutrophils in the blood.
What is the clinical significance of identifying Döhle bodies in a patient's neutrophils?
What is the clinical significance of identifying Döhle bodies in a patient's neutrophils?
- They suggest a genetic abnormality affecting neutrophil development.
- They suggest toxic changes in neutrophils, often seen in infection, inflammation, or drug toxicity. (correct)
- They are associated with severe allergic reactions.
- They are indicative of a normal, healthy neutrophil population.
In the context of neoplastic proliferations of white cells, when would basophilia most likely be observed?
In the context of neoplastic proliferations of white cells, when would basophilia most likely be observed?
What is the primary concern associated with therapy-related myelodysplastic syndrome (t-MDS)?
What is the primary concern associated with therapy-related myelodysplastic syndrome (t-MDS)?
A patient is diagnosed with leukocytosis due to a bacterial infection. Which type of white blood cell would you expect to be primarily elevated in their complete blood count (CBC)?
A patient is diagnosed with leukocytosis due to a bacterial infection. Which type of white blood cell would you expect to be primarily elevated in their complete blood count (CBC)?
What is the typical M:E ratio in a healthy individual's bone marrow, and what does a significantly elevated ratio (e.g., 5:1) suggest?
What is the typical M:E ratio in a healthy individual's bone marrow, and what does a significantly elevated ratio (e.g., 5:1) suggest?
What is the primary risk associated with myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS)?
What is the primary risk associated with myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS)?
What is the significance of Auer rods in the context of acute leukemia diagnosis?
What is the significance of Auer rods in the context of acute leukemia diagnosis?
What genetic abnormality is commonly associated with Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)?
What genetic abnormality is commonly associated with Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)?
Which of the following best describes the role of mutated tyrosine kinases in the pathogenesis of myeloproliferative disorders?
Which of the following best describes the role of mutated tyrosine kinases in the pathogenesis of myeloproliferative disorders?
What is a common clinical feature of Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML) that is related to bone marrow failure?
What is a common clinical feature of Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML) that is related to bone marrow failure?
How does increased reticulin deposition in the bone marrow contribute to the pathology of myeloproliferative neoplasms?
How does increased reticulin deposition in the bone marrow contribute to the pathology of myeloproliferative neoplasms?
What is the primary consequence of the BCR-ABL fusion gene in Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)?
What is the primary consequence of the BCR-ABL fusion gene in Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)?
Which of the following mutations is most commonly associated with Polycythemia Vera (PV)?
Which of the following mutations is most commonly associated with Polycythemia Vera (PV)?
What are the common clinical manifestations of Essential Thrombocytosis (ET)?
What are the common clinical manifestations of Essential Thrombocytosis (ET)?
What is the primary function of thrombopoietin (TPO) in hematopoiesis?
What is the primary function of thrombopoietin (TPO) in hematopoiesis?
What is the significance of calreticulin mutations in Essential Thrombocytosis (ET)?
What is the significance of calreticulin mutations in Essential Thrombocytosis (ET)?
In the context of Polycythemia Vera (PV), what does the term 'panmyelosis' refer to?
In the context of Polycythemia Vera (PV), what does the term 'panmyelosis' refer to?
A patient with Essential Thrombocytosis presents with erythromelalgia. What are the characteristic symptoms of this condition?
A patient with Essential Thrombocytosis presents with erythromelalgia. What are the characteristic symptoms of this condition?
What is the clinical significance of identifying Pseudo-Pelger-Huët cells in a peripheral blood smear?
What is the clinical significance of identifying Pseudo-Pelger-Huët cells in a peripheral blood smear?
What is the function of 'tyrosine kinases' in normal cells that makes them relevant to myeloproliferative disorders when mutated?
What is the function of 'tyrosine kinases' in normal cells that makes them relevant to myeloproliferative disorders when mutated?
Which of the following is characteristic of the spent phase of Polycythemia Vera (PV)?
Which of the following is characteristic of the spent phase of Polycythemia Vera (PV)?
Which of the causes below is most likely to cause leukopenia?
Which of the causes below is most likely to cause leukopenia?
A pathologist examines a bone marrow biopsy and notes an abundance of cells but very little fat. How would the pathologist best classify this bone marrow?
A pathologist examines a bone marrow biopsy and notes an abundance of cells but very little fat. How would the pathologist best classify this bone marrow?
Peripheral blood is examined under a microscope. What would be a normal range for WBCs?
Peripheral blood is examined under a microscope. What would be a normal range for WBCs?
A decreased number of granulocytes in the peripheral blood would be best described as:
A decreased number of granulocytes in the peripheral blood would be best described as:
What is the typical age for diagnosis of CML?
What is the typical age for diagnosis of CML?
A 48-year-old male presents for a routine physical. He has no complaints. The CBC demonstrates Leukocytosis. Further workup reveals the presence of Philadelphia chromosome. What condition is most likely occuring with this patient?
A 48-year-old male presents for a routine physical. He has no complaints. The CBC demonstrates Leukocytosis. Further workup reveals the presence of Philadelphia chromosome. What condition is most likely occuring with this patient?
A patient has a bone marrow evaluation that shows many cells of multiple lineages. The erythroid lineage is easily visible. How would a pathologist classify this bone marrow?
A patient has a bone marrow evaluation that shows many cells of multiple lineages. The erythroid lineage is easily visible. How would a pathologist classify this bone marrow?
What is the significance of 'ringed sideroblasts' in bone marrow?
What is the significance of 'ringed sideroblasts' in bone marrow?
Besides the JAK2 mutation, which of the mutations below may also be present with Essential Thrombocytosis?
Besides the JAK2 mutation, which of the mutations below may also be present with Essential Thrombocytosis?
What is one of the primary ways Advanced HIV infection can affect the bone marrow?
What is one of the primary ways Advanced HIV infection can affect the bone marrow?
What is the 'M:E' ratio?
What is the 'M:E' ratio?
A pathologist measures an organ removed at autopsy. The dimensions are 20cm x 35cm. Which of the following organs best fits that description?
A pathologist measures an organ removed at autopsy. The dimensions are 20cm x 35cm. Which of the following organs best fits that description?
Which of the conditions below is not typically related to a Myeloproliferative Neoplasm?
Which of the conditions below is not typically related to a Myeloproliferative Neoplasm?
Besides 'weakness', what is another clinical feature of Myelodysplastic Syndromes?
Besides 'weakness', what is another clinical feature of Myelodysplastic Syndromes?
A patient presents with elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. A mutation is identified with JAK2. What condition best describes this patient?
A patient presents with elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. A mutation is identified with JAK2. What condition best describes this patient?
A patient presents with increased numbers of precursors to platelets, but is notably absent of red blood cells in this area. What condition best describes what is occuring with the progenitors to platelets?
A patient presents with increased numbers of precursors to platelets, but is notably absent of red blood cells in this area. What condition best describes what is occuring with the progenitors to platelets?
A patient with a suspected hematological disorder undergoes a bone marrow examination. If the myeloid to erythroid ratio (M:E ratio) is found to be 5:1, what is the most likely interpretation?
A patient with a suspected hematological disorder undergoes a bone marrow examination. If the myeloid to erythroid ratio (M:E ratio) is found to be 5:1, what is the most likely interpretation?
In a patient diagnosed with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), which of the following cytogenetic abnormalities would be of greatest concern regarding disease progression?
In a patient diagnosed with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), which of the following cytogenetic abnormalities would be of greatest concern regarding disease progression?
A patient's peripheral blood smear reveals the presence of Pseudo-Pelger-Huët cells. In which condition are these cells most commonly observed?
A patient's peripheral blood smear reveals the presence of Pseudo-Pelger-Huët cells. In which condition are these cells most commonly observed?
A patient presents with fatigue, recurrent infections, and easy bruising. A complete blood count reveals pancytopenia. Bone marrow examination shows dysplastic changes in erythroid and myeloid lineages, with less than 20% blasts. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A patient presents with fatigue, recurrent infections, and easy bruising. A complete blood count reveals pancytopenia. Bone marrow examination shows dysplastic changes in erythroid and myeloid lineages, with less than 20% blasts. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A bone marrow biopsy from a patient with suspected myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) shows an increased number of erythroid precursors with iron-laden mitochondria forming a ring around the nucleus. What are these cells called and what do they indicate?
A bone marrow biopsy from a patient with suspected myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) shows an increased number of erythroid precursors with iron-laden mitochondria forming a ring around the nucleus. What are these cells called and what do they indicate?
Which of the following best describes the role of gene mutations in the pathogenesis of myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS)?
Which of the following best describes the role of gene mutations in the pathogenesis of myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS)?
Which of the following represents the greatest risk associated with Myelodysplastic Syndrome?
Which of the following represents the greatest risk associated with Myelodysplastic Syndrome?
Following chemotherapy treatment, a patient is diagnosed with therapy-related myelodysplastic syndrome (t-MDS). What is the primary concern associated with this condition regarding its progression?
Following chemotherapy treatment, a patient is diagnosed with therapy-related myelodysplastic syndrome (t-MDS). What is the primary concern associated with this condition regarding its progression?
A patient diagnosed with Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) is found to have a translocation between chromosomes 8 and 21. How does this cytogenetic abnormality typically impact the patient's prognosis?
A patient diagnosed with Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) is found to have a translocation between chromosomes 8 and 21. How does this cytogenetic abnormality typically impact the patient's prognosis?
In the context of Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) classification, what is the significance of identifying AML with myelodysplasia-related features?
In the context of Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) classification, what is the significance of identifying AML with myelodysplasia-related features?
Which of the following distinguishes Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML) from Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)?
Which of the following distinguishes Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML) from Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)?
A patient with Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) presents with skin and gingival infiltration. What does this clinical finding suggest about the leukemia?
A patient with Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) presents with skin and gingival infiltration. What does this clinical finding suggest about the leukemia?
A patient's bone marrow aspirate shows >20% myeloid blasts. Which of the following best describes this?
A patient's bone marrow aspirate shows >20% myeloid blasts. Which of the following best describes this?
What is the functional consequence of constitutively activated tyrosine kinases in chronic myeloproliferative disorders?
What is the functional consequence of constitutively activated tyrosine kinases in chronic myeloproliferative disorders?
Which of the following mutations is most closely associated with constitutive activation of tyrosine kinases, leading to myeloproliferative disorders?
Which of the following mutations is most closely associated with constitutive activation of tyrosine kinases, leading to myeloproliferative disorders?
Elevated numbers of which of the following cell types would be most indicative of CML?
Elevated numbers of which of the following cell types would be most indicative of CML?
In Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML), what is the mechanism by which the BCR-ABL fusion gene drives abnormal cell proliferation?
In Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML), what is the mechanism by which the BCR-ABL fusion gene drives abnormal cell proliferation?
How does increased reticulin deposition in the bone marrow contribute to the pathophysiology of CML?
How does increased reticulin deposition in the bone marrow contribute to the pathophysiology of CML?
A patient with CML in blast crisis is no longer responding to tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs). What treatment option is most likely to be considered next?
A patient with CML in blast crisis is no longer responding to tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs). What treatment option is most likely to be considered next?
A 52-year-old male presents with fatigue, splenomegaly, and night sweats. A complete blood count (CBC) reveals leukocytosis with a left shift, thrombocytosis, and a normal red blood cell count. The Philadelphia chromosome is detected by FISH. These findings are most consistent with which of the following diagnoses?
A 52-year-old male presents with fatigue, splenomegaly, and night sweats. A complete blood count (CBC) reveals leukocytosis with a left shift, thrombocytosis, and a normal red blood cell count. The Philadelphia chromosome is detected by FISH. These findings are most consistent with which of the following diagnoses?
What is the significance of detecting the JAK2 V617F mutation in a patient suspected of having a myeloproliferative neoplasm?
What is the significance of detecting the JAK2 V617F mutation in a patient suspected of having a myeloproliferative neoplasm?
A patient with Polycythemia Vera (PV) is likely to have what finding on a peripheral blood smear?
A patient with Polycythemia Vera (PV) is likely to have what finding on a peripheral blood smear?
In Polycythemia Vera (PV), what is meant by bone marrow 'panmyelosis'?
In Polycythemia Vera (PV), what is meant by bone marrow 'panmyelosis'?
What hematological parameter is most important in distinguishing polycythemia vera from other causes of erythrocytosis?
What hematological parameter is most important in distinguishing polycythemia vera from other causes of erythrocytosis?
In a patient diagnosed with essential thrombocythemia (ET), what is the significance of calreticulin (CALR) mutations?
In a patient diagnosed with essential thrombocythemia (ET), what is the significance of calreticulin (CALR) mutations?
Which of the following is a common activating mutation found in Essential Thrombocythemia other than JAK2?
Which of the following is a common activating mutation found in Essential Thrombocythemia other than JAK2?
A patient presents with erythromelalgia, characterized by burning pain and redness in the extremities. A complete blood count reveals thrombocytosis. Which of the following myeloproliferative neoplasms is most likely associated with these findings?
A patient presents with erythromelalgia, characterized by burning pain and redness in the extremities. A complete blood count reveals thrombocytosis. Which of the following myeloproliferative neoplasms is most likely associated with these findings?
In Essential Thrombocythemia (ET), what is the primary mechanism driving hyperproliferation of megakaryocytes?
In Essential Thrombocythemia (ET), what is the primary mechanism driving hyperproliferation of megakaryocytes?
A patient presents with a platelet count of 600 x 10^9/L. All of the options are related, but which of these options would be most helpful in distinguishing Essential Thrombocythemia (ET) from reactive thrombocytosis?
A patient presents with a platelet count of 600 x 10^9/L. All of the options are related, but which of these options would be most helpful in distinguishing Essential Thrombocythemia (ET) from reactive thrombocytosis?
What primary process below best describes the pathogenesis of Myeloproliferative neoplasms?
What primary process below best describes the pathogenesis of Myeloproliferative neoplasms?
Which of these is NOT a Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorder?
Which of these is NOT a Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorder?
A pathologist removes a spleen from a patient during autopsy. The dimensions are 20 cm x 35 cm. Which of the following conditions best describes this.
A pathologist removes a spleen from a patient during autopsy. The dimensions are 20 cm x 35 cm. Which of the following conditions best describes this.
If a patient is diagnosed with neutropenia, what peripheral blood finding is likely to be present?
If a patient is diagnosed with neutropenia, what peripheral blood finding is likely to be present?
Which of the following drugs is most associated with causing neutropenia due to suppression of myeloid stem cells?
Which of the following drugs is most associated with causing neutropenia due to suppression of myeloid stem cells?
Which of these WBC counts would be considered leukopenia?
Which of these WBC counts would be considered leukopenia?
What is the most likely finding in the bone marrow of a patient with neutropenia due to peripheral destruction of mature neutrophils?
What is the most likely finding in the bone marrow of a patient with neutropenia due to peripheral destruction of mature neutrophils?
In the setting of autoimmune-related neutropenia, what process is most directly responsible for the decreased number of circulating neutrophils?
In the setting of autoimmune-related neutropenia, what process is most directly responsible for the decreased number of circulating neutrophils?
What pathophysiologic process is responsible for the accelerated destruction of neutrophils in the spleen, leading to neutropenia.
What pathophysiologic process is responsible for the accelerated destruction of neutrophils in the spleen, leading to neutropenia.
What finding is typically observed in the peripheral blood during leukocytosis caused by bacterial infection?
What finding is typically observed in the peripheral blood during leukocytosis caused by bacterial infection?
After reviewing a patient's complete blood count (CBC), a hematologist notes a 'left shift' in the neutrophil population. Which feature would be most indicative of this?
After reviewing a patient's complete blood count (CBC), a hematologist notes a 'left shift' in the neutrophil population. Which feature would be most indicative of this?
A patient's blood smear reveals toxic granulation in neutrophils. What does this finding indicate?
A patient's blood smear reveals toxic granulation in neutrophils. What does this finding indicate?
Which of the scenarios below best correlates with Basophilia?
Which of the scenarios below best correlates with Basophilia?
Flashcards
Leukocytosis
Leukocytosis
An increase in total WBC count above the normal range.
Leukemoid Reaction
Leukemoid Reaction
Leukocytic response exceeding 50×10^9/L, often with a notable left shift.
Leukopenia
Leukopenia
WBC count less than 4k/uL, indicating a reduction in white blood cells.
Left Shift
Left Shift
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Toxic Granulation
Toxic Granulation
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Döhle Body
Döhle Body
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Neutropenia
Neutropenia
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Granulocytopenia
Granulocytopenia
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Splenic Sequestration
Splenic Sequestration
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Marrow Hypercellularity
Marrow Hypercellularity
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Marrow Hypocellularity
Marrow Hypocellularity
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M:E ratio
M:E ratio
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Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)
Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)
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Cytopenia
Cytopenia
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MDS Onset
MDS Onset
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Morphology in MDS
Morphology in MDS
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Ringed Sideroblasts
Ringed Sideroblasts
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Pseudo Pelger-Huët Cells
Pseudo Pelger-Huët Cells
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MDS transforms to?
MDS transforms to?
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Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)
Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)
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AML diagnosis
AML diagnosis
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Auer Rods
Auer Rods
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AML Nucleoli
AML Nucleoli
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Skin/Gingival infiltration
Skin/Gingival infiltration
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Favorable AML
Favorable AML
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Unfavorable AML
Unfavorable AML
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Myeloproliferative disorders
Myeloproliferative disorders
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BCR-ABL Fusion Gene
BCR-ABL Fusion Gene
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Chronic MPD
Chronic MPD
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Chronic MPD Include?
Chronic MPD Include?
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CML typical age is?
CML typical age is?
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Philadelphia Chromosome in CML
Philadelphia Chromosome in CML
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CML Morphology
CML Morphology
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CML Clinical
CML Clinical
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Polycythemia Vera (PV)
Polycythemia Vera (PV)
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Polycythemic Phase
Polycythemic Phase
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Bone Marrow Hypercellular
Bone Marrow Hypercellular
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Activating mutations?
Activating mutations?
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Thrombopoietin
Thrombopoietin
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Essential Thrombocytosis tyrosine kinase
Essential Thrombocytosis tyrosine kinase
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Platelet Progenitors
Platelet Progenitors
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Essential Thrombocytosis BM
Essential Thrombocytosis BM
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Essential Thrombocytosis smears
Essential Thrombocytosis smears
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Essential Thrombocytosis prevalence
Essential Thrombocytosis prevalence
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Essential Thrombocytosis signs
Essential Thrombocytosis signs
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Study Notes
- Myeloproliferative and related disorders involve pathological proliferations of white cells.
Pathological Proliferation of White Cells
- Myeloid proliferation can be physiological, such as a response to antigens, or pathological, such as leukemia.
- Myeloid cells include neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and monocytes.
- Peripheral blood sample collection and smear are important diagnostic tools.
- Normal white blood cell (WBC) count is 4-11k/uL.
- Rate of release of cells, margination pool, and blood/tissue distribution affect WBC counts.
Leukocytosis
- Leukocytosis is a reaction to inflammation and exhibits an increase in WBCs above the upper limit of normal.
- Leukocytosis with neutrophilia is the response to infection and/or stress.
- Left shift and toxic granulation are features of neutrophilic response to infection or stress.
- Leukemoid reaction involves a leukocytic response > 50x10^9/L or higher with a left shift.
- Basophilia is associated with myeloproliferative disorders.
- Monocytosis is associated with chronic bacterial infections.
- Lymphocytosis is associated with viral infections and Mycobacterium infections.
Leukopenia
- Leukopenia involves a WBC count < 4k/uL
- It is associated with advanced HIV infection, therapy with glucocorticoids or cytotoxic drugs, autoimmune disorders and malnutrition.
- Neutropenia involves a reduction in the number of granulocytes in the peripheral blood.
- Neutropenia is defined as < 1,500/uL.
- Neutropenia happens due to reduced or ineffective production of neutrophils.
- Accelerated removal of neutrophils from circulation can also cause neutropenia.
- Neutropenia can be caused by suppression of myeloid stem cells from drug exposure.
- Drugs include: Clozapine, Methimazole/Propylthiouracil, Penicillin G, Procainamide, Sulfasalazine, and Ticlopidine.
- Ineffective granulopoiesis can result in neutropenia.
- Accelerated removal or destruction of neutrophils can also cause neutropenia.
- Neutropenia results from immunologically mediated injury, splenic sequestration, and increased peripheral demand.
Bone Marrow Evaluation
- Bone marrow changes are associated with neutropenia.
- Peripheral destruction causes marrow to be hypercellular.
- Suppression/destruction of granulocytic precursors causes marrow to be hypocellular.
- Bone marrow evaluation includes bone marrow aspiration and examination.
- Bone marrow examination includes M:E ratio, which is normally 3:1.
- Myeloid to Erythroid ratio is collected from bone marrow smear.
- A 5:1 ratio suggests a myeloproliferative process.
Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)
- MDS includes refractory anemia, refractory anemia with ringed sideroblasts, refractory anemia with excess blasts, and refractory anemia with excess blasts in transformation.
- MDS typically affects older adults.
- The mean age of onset is 70 years.
- MDS is often discovered incidentally on routine blood testing but can have symptomatic presentations.
- Symptomatic presentation of MDS includes weakness, infections, hemorrhages and pancytopenia.
Characteristics of MDS
- Dysplasia in one or more myeloid lineages.
- Ineffective hematopoiesis, cytopenia and genetic abnormalities are key components.
- Increased risk of developing AML is a concern.
- Myeloblasts in periphery or bone marrow (<20%).
- Potential bone marrow replacement of pluripotent stem cells occurs.
- MDS can be idiopathic (primary) or therapy related (t-MDS).
- Pathogenesis involves gene mutations and dysregulation of the epigenome.
- Dysregulation affects DNA methylation, histone modifications, chromatin looping, RNA splicing factors, and transcription factors.
Morphology of MDS
- Morphology includes normo- or hypercellular BM.
- You might also see basophilia, Pseudo Pelger-Huet, megalablastoid maturation, ringed sideroblasts.
- Diagnostics findings of myelodysplasia may show hypercellular bone marrow, basophilia, and nucleated red cell progenitors with multilobated or multiple nuclei.
- Ringed sideroblasts are erythroid progenitors with iron-laden mitochondria, seen as blue perinuclear granules with Prussian blue stain.
- Pseudo-Pelger-Hüet cells, neutrophils with only two nuclear lobes instead of the normal three to four may be present.
- Megakaryocytes with multiple nuclei instead of the normal single multilobated nucleus can be indicators for megalablastoid maturation.
- MDS can progress to AML.
- Therapy-related MDS (t-MDS) has a rapid progression to AML.
Myeloid Neoplasms
- Myeloid neoplasms include:
- Acute Myeloid Leukemia
- Myelodysplastic Syndrome
- Myeloproliferative Neoplasms
- Chronic Myeloid Leukemia
- Polycythemia Vera
- Essential Thrombocytosis
- Primary Myelofibrosis
Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)
- The WHO classification of AML includes subtypes with genetic aberrations, MDS-like features, therapy-related AML ,and AML not otherwise specified.
- AML is diagnosed by > 20% myeloid blasts in the bone marrow.
- Auer rods are abnormal azurophilic granules associated with (M3 type) AML.
- Acute promyelocytic leukemia with the t(15;17) (FAB M3 subtype) is identified via marrow aspirate.
- Neoplastic promyelocytes exhibit coarse, numerous azurophilic granules.
Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML) Information
- Myeloblasts have 2-4 nucleoli and a volume larger than lymphoblasts.
- Myeloid markers for AML are CD 34, 38, 44, 59.
- Similar symptoms to ALL, related with bone marrow (BM) failure.
- These include anemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, and bleeding diathesis.
- Bleeding diathesis is exacerbated by procoagulant and fibrinolytic factors from leukemic cells
- Other symptoms include cutaneous petechiae and ecchymoses, and serosal hemorrhage.
- Clinical features include skin/gingival infiltration, lymphadenopathy, organomegaly, infections, and CNS involvement.
- Approximately 60% achieve complete remission with chemotherapy, and 15-30% are disease-free after 5 years.
- (8;21)t indicates good prognosis but Philadelphia chromosome (9;22)t indicates unfavorable prognosis
- Favorable abnormalities include translocation between chromosomes 8 and 21 (M2 patients) and translocation/inversion of chromosome 16.
- Also there is translocation between chromosomes 15 and 17, typical in M3 patients.
- A common pathogenic feature: mutated and constitutively activated tyrosine kinases.
- Acquired aberrations in signaling pathways lead to growth factor independence.
- Aberrations associated with Chronic myelogenous leukemia are the BCR-ABL fusion gene at 100%.
- Aberrations associated Polycythemia vera are the JAK2 point mutations at >95%.
- Aberrations associated with Essential thrombocythemia include JAK2 point mutations at 50% to 60% and MPL point mutations at 5% to 10%.
- Aberrations associated with primary myelofibrosis is JAK2 point mutations at 50% to 60%.
Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders
- The general pathogenic feature is constitutively activated tyrosine kinases leading to the the growth factor-independent proliferation and survival of marrow progenitors.
- Conditions include:
- Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)
- Polycythemia Vera (PV)
- Essential Thrombocytosis
- Primary Myelofibrosis
Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)
- CML is a disease of adults, commonly occurring between ages 25-60.
- Translocation occurs with the BCR gene on chromosome 9, and the ABL gene on chromosome 22, which form the Philadelphia chromosome.
- The BCR-ABL fusion gene results in abnormal automatic accelerated cell division.
- It features a 210 kDa protein and constitutively active tyrosine kinase.
- Autophosphorylation, autonomous and myeloproliferation are also features.
CML Morphology and Clinical Features
- Morphology includes hypercellular BM, increased reticulin fibers, and peripheral blood leukocytosis.
- Peripheral blood exhibits neutrophils, bands, eosinophils, basophils, metamyelocytes, and myelocytes.
- Clinical features include insidious onset, mild-to-moderate anemia, anemia with weight loss, hypermetabolic state, and progression to acute leukemia (blast crisis).
Polycythemia Vera (PV)
- PV features a chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm and increase in red blood cells.
- It involves mutations, specifically in JAK V617F and JAK 2 (Panmyelosis).
- There are two phases, the polycythemic phase and spent phase.
- The polycythemic phase features elevated Hgb, increased hematocrit, and increased RBC mass.
- The spent phase features Ineffective hematopoiesis, bone marrow fibrosis, extramedullary hematopoiesis, and hypersplenism.
Polycythemia Vera (PV) Microscopy
- Microscopy reveals peripheral blood proliferation.
- This includes RBCs(Normochromic normocytic), Granulocytes, and a Megakaryocytic Lineage.
- Bone marrow is usually Hypercellular, and often Panmyelosis.
- Increased erythroid precursors and megakaryocytes are the most prominent.
Essential Thrombocytosis (ET)
- ET involves activating point mutations in JAK2 (50% of cases) and MPL (5-10% of cases).
- Receptor tyrosine kinase is activated by thrombopoietin.
- Mutations in calreticulin increase JAK-STAT signaling.
- Thrombopoietin is a glycoprotein hormone regulating the production of platelets which is produced by the liver and kidney.
- Clinical manifestations include elevated platelet counts, and absence of polycythemia / marrow fibrosis.
- Absence of Tyrosine kinase mutations is important when excluding other causes of thrombocytosis.
- Also, exclude inflammatory disorders and iron deficiency.
- Platelets progenitors are, thus, thrombopoietin-independent, leading to hyperproliferation.
Essential Thrombocytosis Bone Marrow & Smears
- Bone Marrow exhibits mildly increased Megakaryocytes.
- Also, delicate reticulin fibrils are often seen.
- Note that fibrosis of primary myelofibrosis is absent.
- Peripheral smears exhibit abnormally large platelets and mild leukocytosis.
- May have extramedullary Hematopoiesis with Mild organomegaly.
Essential Thrombocytosis (ET) Demographics & Clinical Manifestations
- The incidence is 1 to 3 per 100,000 / year.
- It features an indolent course and long asymptomatic periods with age > 60.
- Median survival times are 12 to 15 years.
- Major Clinical Manifestations
- Thrombosis and Hemorrhage
- Deep Venous Thrombosis
- Portal and Hepatic Vein Thrombosis
- Myocardial Infarction and Erythromelalgia.
- Rare condition that causes episodes of burning pain and redness in the feet, and sometimes the hands, arms, legs, ears and face.
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