L-17 Myeloproliferative Disorders: White Cell Proliferation

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Questions and Answers

In the context of pathological proliferations of white cells, what is the primary distinction between physiological and pathological myeloid proliferation?

  • Physiological proliferation is a normal response, such as a reaction to antigens, whereas pathological proliferation is associated with conditions like leukemia. (correct)
  • Pathological proliferation is an expected reaction to antigens, while physiological proliferation results in leukemia
  • Pathological proliferation occurs in response to infections, while physiological proliferation is always indicative of an underlying malignancy.
  • Physiological proliferation is characterized exclusively by increased production of lymphocytes, while pathological proliferation involves only myeloid cells.

If a patient's peripheral blood smear shows a 'left shift,' what does this typically indicate?

  • A normal distribution of neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils and monocytes in the blood.
  • An increased proportion of immature neutrophils, suggesting an ongoing infection or inflammatory process. (correct)
  • An increased number of mature neutrophils, indicating a resolved infection.
  • A decreased number of mature neutrophils in the blood.

What is the clinical significance of identifying Döhle bodies in a patient's neutrophils?

  • They suggest a genetic abnormality affecting neutrophil development.
  • They suggest toxic changes in neutrophils, often seen in infection, inflammation, or drug toxicity. (correct)
  • They are associated with severe allergic reactions.
  • They are indicative of a normal, healthy neutrophil population.

In the context of neoplastic proliferations of white cells, when would basophilia most likely be observed?

<p>In myeloproliferative disorders. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary concern associated with therapy-related myelodysplastic syndrome (t-MDS)?

<p>It is associated with a rapid progression to acute myeloid leukemia (AML). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with leukocytosis due to a bacterial infection. Which type of white blood cell would you expect to be primarily elevated in their complete blood count (CBC)?

<p>Neutrophils (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical M:E ratio in a healthy individual's bone marrow, and what does a significantly elevated ratio (e.g., 5:1) suggest?

<p>Normal 3:1, elevated suggests increased myeloid activity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary risk associated with myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS)?

<p>Transformation to acute myeloid leukemia (AML). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of Auer rods in the context of acute leukemia diagnosis?

<p>They are abnormal azurophilic granules specific to acute myeloid leukemia (AML). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What genetic abnormality is commonly associated with Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)?

<p>Philadelphia chromosome (9;22) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the role of mutated tyrosine kinases in the pathogenesis of myeloproliferative disorders?

<p>They lead to growth factor independence and promote uncontrolled proliferation of marrow progenitors. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common clinical feature of Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML) that is related to bone marrow failure?

<p>Anemia, thrombocytopenia and neutropenia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does increased reticulin deposition in the bone marrow contribute to the pathology of myeloproliferative neoplasms?

<p>It leads to bone marrow fibrosis and disruption of normal hematopoiesis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary consequence of the BCR-ABL fusion gene in Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)?

<p>Abnormal automatic and accelerated cell division. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following mutations is most commonly associated with Polycythemia Vera (PV)?

<p>JAK2 V617F (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the common clinical manifestations of Essential Thrombocytosis (ET)?

<p>Thrombosis and hemorrhage. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of thrombopoietin (TPO) in hematopoiesis?

<p>Regulating the production of platelets. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of calreticulin mutations in Essential Thrombocytosis (ET)?

<p>They increase JAK-STAT signaling. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of Polycythemia Vera (PV), what does the term 'panmyelosis' refer to?

<p>Hypercellularity involving erythroid, granulocytic and megakaryocytic lineages. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Essential Thrombocytosis presents with erythromelalgia. What are the characteristic symptoms of this condition?

<p>Episodes of burning pain and redness in the extremities. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the clinical significance of identifying Pseudo-Pelger-Huët cells in a peripheral blood smear?

<p>They are present in the setting of myelodysplasia. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of 'tyrosine kinases' in normal cells that makes them relevant to myeloproliferative disorders when mutated?

<p>Cell signaling. They help control cell division and activity. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is characteristic of the spent phase of Polycythemia Vera (PV)?

<p>Bone marrow fibrosis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the causes below is most likely to cause leukopenia?

<p>Advanced HIV infection. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pathologist examines a bone marrow biopsy and notes an abundance of cells but very little fat. How would the pathologist best classify this bone marrow?

<p>Hypercellular BM (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Peripheral blood is examined under a microscope. What would be a normal range for WBCs?

<p>4-11k/uL (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A decreased number of granulocytes in the peripheral blood would be best described as:

<p>Neutropenia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical age for diagnosis of CML?

<p>CML is typically diagnosed in patients from 25-60 years old. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 48-year-old male presents for a routine physical. He has no complaints. The CBC demonstrates Leukocytosis. Further workup reveals the presence of Philadelphia chromosome. What condition is most likely occuring with this patient?

<p>Chronic myelogenous leukemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a bone marrow evaluation that shows many cells of multiple lineages. The erythroid lineage is easily visible. How would a pathologist classify this bone marrow?

<p>Panmyelosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of 'ringed sideroblasts' in bone marrow?

<p>They are present in the setting of myelodysplasia. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides the JAK2 mutation, which of the mutations below may also be present with Essential Thrombocytosis?

<p>Calreticulin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the primary ways Advanced HIV infection can affect the bone marrow?

<p>Low WBC numbers (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the 'M:E' ratio?

<p>The Myeloid to Erythroid ratio (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pathologist measures an organ removed at autopsy. The dimensions are 20cm x 35cm. Which of the following organs best fits that description?

<p>Spleen (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the conditions below is not typically related to a Myeloproliferative Neoplasm?

<p>Refractory Anemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides 'weakness', what is another clinical feature of Myelodysplastic Syndromes?

<p>Infections (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. A mutation is identified with JAK2. What condition best describes this patient?

<p>Polycythemia Vera (PV) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with increased numbers of precursors to platelets, but is notably absent of red blood cells in this area. What condition best describes what is occuring with the progenitors to platelets?

<p>Constitutive JAK2 or MPL signalling (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a suspected hematological disorder undergoes a bone marrow examination. If the myeloid to erythroid ratio (M:E ratio) is found to be 5:1, what is the most likely interpretation?

<p>Myeloproliferative process (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient diagnosed with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), which of the following cytogenetic abnormalities would be of greatest concern regarding disease progression?

<p>Complex karyotype with multiple abnormalities (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's peripheral blood smear reveals the presence of Pseudo-Pelger-Huët cells. In which condition are these cells most commonly observed?

<p>Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MDS) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with fatigue, recurrent infections, and easy bruising. A complete blood count reveals pancytopenia. Bone marrow examination shows dysplastic changes in erythroid and myeloid lineages, with less than 20% blasts. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

<p>Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MDS) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A bone marrow biopsy from a patient with suspected myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) shows an increased number of erythroid precursors with iron-laden mitochondria forming a ring around the nucleus. What are these cells called and what do they indicate?

<p>Ringed sideroblasts, indicating ineffective erythropoiesis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the role of gene mutations in the pathogenesis of myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS)?

<p>Disrupt regulation of the epigenome, RNA splicing, and transcription factors (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following represents the greatest risk associated with Myelodysplastic Syndrome?

<p>Transformation to Acute Myeloid Leukemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following chemotherapy treatment, a patient is diagnosed with therapy-related myelodysplastic syndrome (t-MDS). What is the primary concern associated with this condition regarding its progression?

<p>Rapid progression to acute myeloid leukemia (AML) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient diagnosed with Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) is found to have a translocation between chromosomes 8 and 21. How does this cytogenetic abnormality typically impact the patient's prognosis?

<p>Associated with a more favorable prognosis and higher remission rates (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) classification, what is the significance of identifying AML with myelodysplasia-related features?

<p>Implies a higher likelihood of prior exposure to cytotoxic therapy or a pre-existing myelodysplastic syndrome (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following distinguishes Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML) from Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)?

<p>AML is characterized by cells that have myeloid markers (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) presents with skin and gingival infiltration. What does this clinical finding suggest about the leukemia?

<p>Suggests the presence of specific AML subtypes associated with extramedullary involvement (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's bone marrow aspirate shows >20% myeloid blasts. Which of the following best describes this?

<p>Acute Myeloid Leukemia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the functional consequence of constitutively activated tyrosine kinases in chronic myeloproliferative disorders?

<p>Growth factor-independent proliferation and survival of marrow progenitors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following mutations is most closely associated with constitutive activation of tyrosine kinases, leading to myeloproliferative disorders?

<p>Chromosomal translocations leading to fusion genes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Elevated numbers of which of the following cell types would be most indicative of CML?

<p>Immature Granulocytes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML), what is the mechanism by which the BCR-ABL fusion gene drives abnormal cell proliferation?

<p>Constitutive activation of a tyrosine kinase leading to accelerated cell division (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does increased reticulin deposition in the bone marrow contribute to the pathophysiology of CML?

<p>Leads to bone marrow fibrosis and impaired hematopoiesis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with CML in blast crisis is no longer responding to tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs). What treatment option is most likely to be considered next?

<p>Allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 52-year-old male presents with fatigue, splenomegaly, and night sweats. A complete blood count (CBC) reveals leukocytosis with a left shift, thrombocytosis, and a normal red blood cell count. The Philadelphia chromosome is detected by FISH. These findings are most consistent with which of the following diagnoses?

<p>Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of detecting the JAK2 V617F mutation in a patient suspected of having a myeloproliferative neoplasm?

<p>Supports the diagnosis of Polycythemia Vera (PV), Essential Thrombocytosis (ET), or Primary Myelofibrosis (PMF) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Polycythemia Vera (PV) is likely to have what finding on a peripheral blood smear?

<p>increase in red blood cells (normocytic) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Polycythemia Vera (PV), what is meant by bone marrow 'panmyelosis'?

<p>Increase in all three myeloid lineages: erythroid, myeloid, and megakaryocytic (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What hematological parameter is most important in distinguishing polycythemia vera from other causes of erythrocytosis?

<p>Increased red blood cell mass (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient diagnosed with essential thrombocythemia (ET), what is the significance of calreticulin (CALR) mutations?

<p>Mutually exclusive with JAK2 and MPL mutations and associated with distinct clinical features (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common activating mutation found in Essential Thrombocythemia other than JAK2?

<p>MPL (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with erythromelalgia, characterized by burning pain and redness in the extremities. A complete blood count reveals thrombocytosis. Which of the following myeloproliferative neoplasms is most likely associated with these findings?

<p>Essential Thrombocytosis (ET) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Essential Thrombocythemia (ET), what is the primary mechanism driving hyperproliferation of megakaryocytes?

<p>Thrombopoietin-independent activation of platelet progenitors through constitutive signaling (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a platelet count of 600 x 10^9/L. All of the options are related, but which of these options would be most helpful in distinguishing Essential Thrombocythemia (ET) from reactive thrombocytosis?

<p>Presence of a JAK2, CALR or MPL mutation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What primary process below best describes the pathogenesis of Myeloproliferative neoplasms?

<p>Acquired mutations leading to constitutive activation of tyrosine kinases (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these is NOT a Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorder?

<p>Acute Myeloid Leukemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pathologist removes a spleen from a patient during autopsy. The dimensions are 20 cm x 35 cm. Which of the following conditions best describes this.

<p>Splenomegaly (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient is diagnosed with neutropenia, what peripheral blood finding is likely to be present?

<p>Reduced white blood cell count (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following drugs is most associated with causing neutropenia due to suppression of myeloid stem cells?

<p>Clozapine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these WBC counts would be considered leukopenia?

<p>3.5k/uL (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely finding in the bone marrow of a patient with neutropenia due to peripheral destruction of mature neutrophils?

<p>Hypercellular marrow with increased myeloid precursors (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the setting of autoimmune-related neutropenia, what process is most directly responsible for the decreased number of circulating neutrophils?

<p>Accelerated removal of neutrophils from circulation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What pathophysiologic process is responsible for the accelerated destruction of neutrophils in the spleen, leading to neutropenia.

<p>Splenic sequestration (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What finding is typically observed in the peripheral blood during leukocytosis caused by bacterial infection?

<p>Neutrophils (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After reviewing a patient's complete blood count (CBC), a hematologist notes a 'left shift' in the neutrophil population. Which feature would be most indicative of this?

<p>Increased numbers of metamyelocytes and myelocytes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's blood smear reveals toxic granulation in neutrophils. What does this finding indicate?

<p>Inflammatory response (infection) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the scenarios below best correlates with Basophilia?

<p>Myeloproliferative disease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Leukocytosis

An increase in total WBC count above the normal range.

Leukemoid Reaction

Leukocytic response exceeding 50×10^9/L, often with a notable left shift.

Leukopenia

WBC count less than 4k/uL, indicating a reduction in white blood cells.

Left Shift

Response to infection/stress resulting in release of immature neutrophils.

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Toxic Granulation

Abnormally dark granules in neutrophils during infection or inflammation.

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Döhle Body

Small, pale blue-gray inclusions in the cytoplasm of neutrophils.

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Neutropenia

Reduced count of Neutrophils in the peripheral blood.

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Granulocytopenia

Reduction in granulocytes to below 1,500/uL in peripheral blood.

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Splenic Sequestration

Abnormal accumulation of blood cells occurs in the spleen.

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Marrow Hypercellularity

Bone marrow changes: Marrow is hypercellular associated with neutropenia.

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Marrow Hypocellularity

Bone marrow changes: Marrow is hypocellular associated with neutropenia.

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M:E ratio

ratio of myeloid cells to erythroid cells

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Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)

Group of disorders where ineffective hematopoiesis and cytopenias are primary features.

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Cytopenia

Low blood cell counts in Myelodysplastic Syndromes(MDS).

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MDS Onset

Disease with clinical features of older adult age, mean onset approximately 70 years.

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Morphology in MDS

Dysplasia with normo- or hypercellular bone marrow

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Ringed Sideroblasts

Erythroid progenitors with iron-laden mitochondria, seen as blue granules with Prussian blue stain.

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Pseudo Pelger-Huët Cells

Neutrophils observed with just two nuclear lobes.

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MDS transforms to?

Important considerations of the MDS: This disease can accelerate to AML

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Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)

Cancer where the bone marrow makes a lot of abnormal myeloid blasts.

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AML diagnosis

Clinical diagnostic marker >20% myeloid blasts in the bone marrow based on WHO standards.

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Auer Rods

Abnormal azurophilic granules, commonly associated with (M3 type) AML.

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AML Nucleoli

AML cells contain 2 to 4 nucleoli within myeloid blasts.

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Skin/Gingival infiltration

AML: Enlarged skin or gums due to leukemic cell infiltration.

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Favorable AML

Specific genetic changes are associated with an improved outcome

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Unfavorable AML

Philadelphia chromosome translocation is not suitable.

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Myeloproliferative disorders

Results from mutations in certain tyrosine kinases.

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BCR-ABL Fusion Gene

Mutation that leads to constitutive ABL kinase activation.

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Chronic MPD

Results from growth factor-independent proliferation and survival of marrow progenitors.

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Chronic MPD Include?

Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML), polycythemia vera (PV), essential thrombocytosis, and primary myelofibrosis.

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CML typical age is?

Chronic MPD Disease primarily diagnosed in adults, particularly between ages 25 and 60 years.

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Philadelphia Chromosome in CML

Translocation event where BCR gene on chromosome 9 and ABL gene on chromosome 22 fuse.

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CML Morphology

Is characterized by a hypercellular bone marrow.

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CML Clinical

Clinical characterized by insidious onset, mild-to-moderate anemia, and hypermetabolic state.

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Polycythemia Vera (PV)

Involves chronic MPD neoplasm that involves an increase in red blood cells.

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Polycythemic Phase

Characterized by elevated Hemoglobin(Hgb), increased hematocrit, and increased red blood cell (RBC) mass.

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Bone Marrow Hypercellular

Microscopy showing erythroid progenitors with high level, with bone marrow is hypercellular.

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Activating mutations?

Type mutations involve activating point mutations in JAK2 (50% of cases), MPL (5-10%), mutations in calreticulin.

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Thrombopoietin

Pertaining is a glycoprotein hormone, regulates platelet production.

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Essential Thrombocytosis tyrosine kinase

Tyrosine kinase absence mutation that are associated with an elevated platelet count.

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Platelet Progenitors

Disease process where platelets progenitor involves both thrombopoietin-independent, and hyperproliferation.

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Essential Thrombocytosis BM

Bone Marrow morphology mildly increased, contains megakaryocytes.

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Essential Thrombocytosis smears

smear, platelets large, mild leukocytosis is typically observed.

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Essential Thrombocytosis prevalence

Clinical demographic with incidence with one to three per 100,000/ year of blood volume.

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Essential Thrombocytosis signs

Clinical symptoms manifests as thrombosis, major bleeding and deep venous thrombosis, etc.

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Study Notes

  • Myeloproliferative and related disorders involve pathological proliferations of white cells.

Pathological Proliferation of White Cells

  • Myeloid proliferation can be physiological, such as a response to antigens, or pathological, such as leukemia.
  • Myeloid cells include neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and monocytes.
  • Peripheral blood sample collection and smear are important diagnostic tools.
  • Normal white blood cell (WBC) count is 4-11k/uL.
  • Rate of release of cells, margination pool, and blood/tissue distribution affect WBC counts.

Leukocytosis

  • Leukocytosis is a reaction to inflammation and exhibits an increase in WBCs above the upper limit of normal.
  • Leukocytosis with neutrophilia is the response to infection and/or stress.
  • Left shift and toxic granulation are features of neutrophilic response to infection or stress.
  • Leukemoid reaction involves a leukocytic response > 50x10^9/L or higher with a left shift.
  • Basophilia is associated with myeloproliferative disorders.
  • Monocytosis is associated with chronic bacterial infections.
  • Lymphocytosis is associated with viral infections and Mycobacterium infections.

Leukopenia

  • Leukopenia involves a WBC count < 4k/uL
  • It is associated with advanced HIV infection, therapy with glucocorticoids or cytotoxic drugs, autoimmune disorders and malnutrition.
  • Neutropenia involves a reduction in the number of granulocytes in the peripheral blood.
  • Neutropenia is defined as < 1,500/uL.
  • Neutropenia happens due to reduced or ineffective production of neutrophils.
  • Accelerated removal of neutrophils from circulation can also cause neutropenia.
  • Neutropenia can be caused by suppression of myeloid stem cells from drug exposure.
  • Drugs include: Clozapine, Methimazole/Propylthiouracil, Penicillin G, Procainamide, Sulfasalazine, and Ticlopidine.
  • Ineffective granulopoiesis can result in neutropenia.
  • Accelerated removal or destruction of neutrophils can also cause neutropenia.
  • Neutropenia results from immunologically mediated injury, splenic sequestration, and increased peripheral demand.

Bone Marrow Evaluation

  • Bone marrow changes are associated with neutropenia.
  • Peripheral destruction causes marrow to be hypercellular.
  • Suppression/destruction of granulocytic precursors causes marrow to be hypocellular.
  • Bone marrow evaluation includes bone marrow aspiration and examination.
  • Bone marrow examination includes M:E ratio, which is normally 3:1.
  • Myeloid to Erythroid ratio is collected from bone marrow smear.
  • A 5:1 ratio suggests a myeloproliferative process.

Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)

  • MDS includes refractory anemia, refractory anemia with ringed sideroblasts, refractory anemia with excess blasts, and refractory anemia with excess blasts in transformation.
  • MDS typically affects older adults.
  • The mean age of onset is 70 years.
  • MDS is often discovered incidentally on routine blood testing but can have symptomatic presentations.
  • Symptomatic presentation of MDS includes weakness, infections, hemorrhages and pancytopenia.

Characteristics of MDS

  • Dysplasia in one or more myeloid lineages.
  • Ineffective hematopoiesis, cytopenia and genetic abnormalities are key components.
  • Increased risk of developing AML is a concern.
  • Myeloblasts in periphery or bone marrow (<20%).
  • Potential bone marrow replacement of pluripotent stem cells occurs.
  • MDS can be idiopathic (primary) or therapy related (t-MDS).
  • Pathogenesis involves gene mutations and dysregulation of the epigenome.
  • Dysregulation affects DNA methylation, histone modifications, chromatin looping, RNA splicing factors, and transcription factors.

Morphology of MDS

  • Morphology includes normo- or hypercellular BM.
  • You might also see basophilia, Pseudo Pelger-Huet, megalablastoid maturation, ringed sideroblasts.
  • Diagnostics findings of myelodysplasia may show hypercellular bone marrow, basophilia, and nucleated red cell progenitors with multilobated or multiple nuclei.
  • Ringed sideroblasts are erythroid progenitors with iron-laden mitochondria, seen as blue perinuclear granules with Prussian blue stain.
  • Pseudo-Pelger-Hüet cells, neutrophils with only two nuclear lobes instead of the normal three to four may be present.
  • Megakaryocytes with multiple nuclei instead of the normal single multilobated nucleus can be indicators for megalablastoid maturation.
  • MDS can progress to AML.
  • Therapy-related MDS (t-MDS) has a rapid progression to AML.

Myeloid Neoplasms

  • Myeloid neoplasms include:
    • Acute Myeloid Leukemia
    • Myelodysplastic Syndrome
    • Myeloproliferative Neoplasms
    • Chronic Myeloid Leukemia
    • Polycythemia Vera
    • Essential Thrombocytosis
    • Primary Myelofibrosis

Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)

  • The WHO classification of AML includes subtypes with genetic aberrations, MDS-like features, therapy-related AML ,and AML not otherwise specified.
  • AML is diagnosed by > 20% myeloid blasts in the bone marrow.
  • Auer rods are abnormal azurophilic granules associated with (M3 type) AML.
  • Acute promyelocytic leukemia with the t(15;17) (FAB M3 subtype) is identified via marrow aspirate.
  • Neoplastic promyelocytes exhibit coarse, numerous azurophilic granules.

Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML) Information

  • Myeloblasts have 2-4 nucleoli and a volume larger than lymphoblasts.
  • Myeloid markers for AML are CD 34, 38, 44, 59.
  • Similar symptoms to ALL, related with bone marrow (BM) failure.
  • These include anemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, and bleeding diathesis.
  • Bleeding diathesis is exacerbated by procoagulant and fibrinolytic factors from leukemic cells
  • Other symptoms include cutaneous petechiae and ecchymoses, and serosal hemorrhage.
  • Clinical features include skin/gingival infiltration, lymphadenopathy, organomegaly, infections, and CNS involvement.
  • Approximately 60% achieve complete remission with chemotherapy, and 15-30% are disease-free after 5 years.
  • (8;21)t indicates good prognosis but Philadelphia chromosome (9;22)t indicates unfavorable prognosis
  • Favorable abnormalities include translocation between chromosomes 8 and 21 (M2 patients) and translocation/inversion of chromosome 16.
  • Also there is translocation between chromosomes 15 and 17, typical in M3 patients.
  • A common pathogenic feature: mutated and constitutively activated tyrosine kinases.
  • Acquired aberrations in signaling pathways lead to growth factor independence.
  • Aberrations associated with Chronic myelogenous leukemia are the BCR-ABL fusion gene at 100%.
  • Aberrations associated Polycythemia vera are the JAK2 point mutations at >95%.
  • Aberrations associated with Essential thrombocythemia include JAK2 point mutations at 50% to 60% and MPL point mutations at 5% to 10%.
  • Aberrations associated with primary myelofibrosis is JAK2 point mutations at 50% to 60%.

Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders

  • The general pathogenic feature is constitutively activated tyrosine kinases leading to the the growth factor-independent proliferation and survival of marrow progenitors.
  • Conditions include:
    • Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)
    • Polycythemia Vera (PV)
    • Essential Thrombocytosis
    • Primary Myelofibrosis

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)

  • CML is a disease of adults, commonly occurring between ages 25-60.
  • Translocation occurs with the BCR gene on chromosome 9, and the ABL gene on chromosome 22, which form the Philadelphia chromosome.
  • The BCR-ABL fusion gene results in abnormal automatic accelerated cell division.
  • It features a 210 kDa protein and constitutively active tyrosine kinase.
  • Autophosphorylation, autonomous and myeloproliferation are also features.

CML Morphology and Clinical Features

  • Morphology includes hypercellular BM, increased reticulin fibers, and peripheral blood leukocytosis.
  • Peripheral blood exhibits neutrophils, bands, eosinophils, basophils, metamyelocytes, and myelocytes.
  • Clinical features include insidious onset, mild-to-moderate anemia, anemia with weight loss, hypermetabolic state, and progression to acute leukemia (blast crisis).

Polycythemia Vera (PV)

  • PV features a chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm and increase in red blood cells.
  • It involves mutations, specifically in JAK V617F and JAK 2 (Panmyelosis).
  • There are two phases, the polycythemic phase and spent phase.
  • The polycythemic phase features elevated Hgb, increased hematocrit, and increased RBC mass.
  • The spent phase features Ineffective hematopoiesis, bone marrow fibrosis, extramedullary hematopoiesis, and hypersplenism.

Polycythemia Vera (PV) Microscopy

  • Microscopy reveals peripheral blood proliferation.
    • This includes RBCs(Normochromic normocytic), Granulocytes, and a Megakaryocytic Lineage.
  • Bone marrow is usually Hypercellular, and often Panmyelosis.
  • Increased erythroid precursors and megakaryocytes are the most prominent.

Essential Thrombocytosis (ET)

  • ET involves activating point mutations in JAK2 (50% of cases) and MPL (5-10% of cases).
  • Receptor tyrosine kinase is activated by thrombopoietin.
  • Mutations in calreticulin increase JAK-STAT signaling.
  • Thrombopoietin is a glycoprotein hormone regulating the production of platelets which is produced by the liver and kidney.
  • Clinical manifestations include elevated platelet counts, and absence of polycythemia / marrow fibrosis.
  • Absence of Tyrosine kinase mutations is important when excluding other causes of thrombocytosis.
  • Also, exclude inflammatory disorders and iron deficiency.
  • Platelets progenitors are, thus, thrombopoietin-independent, leading to hyperproliferation.

Essential Thrombocytosis Bone Marrow & Smears

  • Bone Marrow exhibits mildly increased Megakaryocytes.
  • Also, delicate reticulin fibrils are often seen.
  • Note that fibrosis of primary myelofibrosis is absent.
  • Peripheral smears exhibit abnormally large platelets and mild leukocytosis.
  • May have extramedullary Hematopoiesis with Mild organomegaly.

Essential Thrombocytosis (ET) Demographics & Clinical Manifestations

  • The incidence is 1 to 3 per 100,000 / year.
  • It features an indolent course and long asymptomatic periods with age > 60.
  • Median survival times are 12 to 15 years.
  • Major Clinical Manifestations
  • Thrombosis and Hemorrhage
    • Deep Venous Thrombosis
    • Portal and Hepatic Vein Thrombosis
    • Myocardial Infarction and Erythromelalgia.
    • Rare condition that causes episodes of burning pain and redness in the feet, and sometimes the hands, arms, legs, ears and face.

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