Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

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Questions and Answers

Which bacterial characteristic is associated with Tuberculosis (TB)?

  • Acid-fast bacilli (correct)
  • Spore-forming anaerobes
  • Gram-positive cocci
  • Gram-negative spirochetes

Latent tuberculosis is characterized by active symptoms and contagiousness.

False (B)

What is the name of the vaccine used to prevent tuberculosis?

BCG vaccine

A common symptom of spinal tuberculosis, also known as Pott's disease, is spinal ______.

<p>pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following terms related to tuberculosis with their definitions:

<p>Miliary tuberculosis = Disseminated TB disease Extrapulmonary tuberculosis = TB disease outside the lungs Cold abscess = Painless abscess, often in the neck Latent tuberculosis = TB infection without symptoms</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which population group is LEAST likely to be offered the BCG vaccine as part of a routine vaccination schedule?

<p>People from areas with low TB prevalence (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Mantoux test involves injecting live tuberculosis bacteria into the skin.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical appearance of disseminated miliary tuberculosis on a chest X-ray?

<p>Millet seeds</p> Signup and view all the answers

In hospitals, ______ pressure rooms are used to prevent the airborne spread of tuberculosis.

<p>negative</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following symptoms with the condition they are most closely associated with in tuberculosis:

<p>Haemoptysis = Pulmonary tuberculosis Erythema nodosum = Tuberculosis Spinal pain = Spinal tuberculosis Night sweats = Tuberculosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST common site of TB infection?

<p>Lungs (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A positive Mantoux test result is indicated by an induration of less than 5mm after 72 hours.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does NAAT stand for in the context of diagnosing tuberculosis?

<p>Nucleic Acid Amplification Test</p> Signup and view all the answers

The treatment for active tuberculosis includes rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ______.

<p>ethambutol</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the tuberculosis drug with its MOST common side effect:

<p>Rifampicin = Red/orange discolouration of secretions Isoniazid = Peripheral neuropathy Pyrazinamide = Hyperuricaemia Ethambutol = Colour blindness</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately describes 'acid-fast' bacteria?

<p>They retain dye despite acid treatment. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The BCG vaccine provides complete protection against pulmonary tuberculosis.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of co-prescribing pyridoxine (vitamin B6) with isoniazid in TB treatment?

<p>Prevent peripheral neuropathy</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Ziehl-Neelsen stain causes acid-fast bacilli to appear ______ red against a blue background.

<p>bright</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following investigations with their role in diagnosing tuberculosis:

<p>Chest X-ray = Detects lung abnormalities Mantoux test = Assesses immune response to TB infection Cultures = Identifies the presence of TB bacteria IGRA = Detects interferon-gamma release</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a chronic cough, night sweats, and weight loss. Sputum culture grows 'acid-fast bacilli' that stain red with 'Ziehl-Neelsen staining'. Which condition is MOST likely?

<p>Tuberculosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Rifampicin increases the effectiveness of drugs metabolised by the cytochrome P450 enzymes.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first step in managing a suspected case of active tuberculosis, besides starting treatment?

<p>Isolating patients</p> Signup and view all the answers

A deep cough sputum sample can be induced with nebulised ______ saline if a patient is not producing enough sputum.

<p>hypertonic</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following descriptions with the appropriate stage or type of tuberculosis:

<p>Immediate clearance = Bacteria are cleared by the body Primary active tuberculosis = Active infection after exposure Latent tuberculosis = Bacteria present without symptoms Secondary tuberculosis = Reactivation of latent tuberculosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of the BCG vaccine?

<p>Stimulates the immune system through live attenuated bacteria (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A negative IGRA result always rules out the possibility of a TB infection.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of testing culture samples for drug resistance before starting TB treatment?

<p>Guide treatment and manage MDR-TB</p> Signup and view all the answers

Testing contacts for tuberculosis and notifying the ______ of suspected cases are crucial steps in TB management.

<p>UK Health Security Agency (UKHSA)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following chest X-ray findings with their associated type of tuberculosis:

<p>Patchy consolidation, pleural effusions, hilar lymphadenopathy = Primary tuberculosis Patchy or nodular consolidation with cavitation = Reactivated tuberculosis Millet seeds uniformly distributed across lung fields = Disseminated miliary tuberculosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on RIPE therapy reports new onset of difficulty distinguishing between red and green. Which medication is MOST likely responsible?

<p>Ethambutol (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Extrapulmonary tuberculosis only occurs in immunocompromised individuals.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to assess patients for immunosuppression and HIV before administering the BCG vaccine?

<p>Risk related to live vaccine</p> Signup and view all the answers

When latent tuberculosis reactivates, leading to an active infection, it is typically due to ______.

<p>immunosuppression</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following diagnostic procedures for tuberculosis with their specific method of sample collection:

<p>Sputum cultures = Deep cough or sputum induction Mycobacterium blood cultures = Special blood culture bottle Lymph node aspiration = Needle biopsy Bronchoalveolar lavage = Bronchoscopy</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing treatment for active TB develops numbness and tingling in their feet. Which medication is MOST likely the cause, and what should be co-administered?

<p>Isoniazid; Co-administer pyridoxine (vitamin B6) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Multidrug-resistant TB (MDR-TB) is defined as resistance to isoniazid only.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides drug therapy, what other management considerations are essential for patients with active tuberculosis?

<p>Testing contacts, Notify UKHSA, Isolation</p> Signup and view all the answers

After starting treatment for tuberculosis, a patient notices ______ discolouration of their urine. This is most likely due to Rifampicin.

<p>red/orange</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following risk factors with their increased susceptibility to tuberculosis:

<p>Close contact with active tuberculosis = Increased exposure to the bacteria Immunocompromised = Weakened immune system capacity to fight infection Malnutrition = Compromised immune function Immigrants from areas with high tuberculosis prevalence = Higher likelihood of TB exposure</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the causative agent of tuberculosis?

<p>Mycobacterium tuberculosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

M. tuberculosis is a fast-dividing bacterium.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What staining method is used to identify M. tuberculosis due to its waxy coating?

<p>Ziehl-Neelsen stain</p> Signup and view all the answers

A sputum culture that grows 'acid-fast bacilli' that stain red with '______ staining' is indicative of TB.

<p>Ziehl-Neelsen</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match each term with its corresponding description in the context of tuberculosis:

<p>MDR-TB = Resistant to multiple TB drugs Latent TB = Presence of bacteria without symptoms Miliary TB = Disseminated and severe TB Extrapulmonary TB = TB outside of the lungs</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following outcomes is LEAST likely following exposure to M. tuberculosis?

<p>Rapid, widespread infection control by the immune system (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Patients with latent tuberculosis are symptomatic and contagious.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a 'cold abscess' associated with tuberculosis?

<p>Firm, painless abscess</p> Signup and view all the answers

Reactivation of latent tuberculosis, often due to ______, is known as secondary tuberculosis.

<p>immunosuppression</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these is NOT a typical risk factor for tuberculosis?

<p>Living in an area with low tuberculosis prevalence (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The BCG vaccine uses live, attenuated Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of injection is the BCG vaccine?

<p>Intradermal</p> Signup and view all the answers

The BCG vaccine is typically administered after a _______ test returns negative.

<p>Mantoux</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of the BCG vaccine?

<p>To protect against severe and complicated TB (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The BCG vaccine is part of the routine vaccination schedule in most countries.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Name one dermatological presentation that may be associated with tuberculosis.

<p>Erythema nodosum</p> Signup and view all the answers

Spinal pain in spinal tuberculosis is also known as _______ disease of the spine.

<p>Pott's</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a chronic cough, night sweats, and weight loss. Which of the following investigations is MOST appropriate to initiate?

<p>Chest X-ray (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Gram staining is an effective method for identifying M. tuberculosis.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is measured 72 hours after a Mantoux test to determine the result?

<p>Induration</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the Mantoux test, an induration of _______ or more is considered a positive result.

<p>5mm</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a positive Interferon-Gamma Release Assay (IGRA) indicate?

<p>Sensitized white blood cells releasing interferon-gamma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The tuberculin used in the Mantoux test contains live bacteria.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic appearance of disseminated miliary tuberculosis on a chest x-ray?

<p>Millet seeds</p> Signup and view all the answers

Reactivated tuberculosis may show patchy or nodular consolidation with _______, typically in the upper zones on a chest x-ray.

<p>cavitation</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to collect culture samples before starting treatment for tuberculosis?

<p>To enable testing for drug resistance (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Sputum induction involves the use of hypotonic saline.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of sample is collected during a bronchoalveolar lavage?

<p>Saline</p> Signup and view all the answers

_______ assess for the genetic material of a pathogen and can rapidly detect tuberculosis DNA.

<p>NAAT</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which patient populations is NAAT particularly useful for diagnosing tuberculosis?

<p>Patients with HIV or aged under 16 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Rifampicin treatment for tuberculosis lasts for 3 months.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the RIPE mnemonic, name the four drugs used in the initial treatment of active tuberculosis.

<p>Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol</p> Signup and view all the answers

Isoniazid can cause _______, and therefore _______ is co-prescribed to help prevent this side effect.

<p>peripheral neuropathy, pyridoxine</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a recommended management option for tuberculosis?

<p>Encouraging normal daily activities to prevent isolation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Negative pressure rooms are used in hospitals to increase the risk of airborne spread of infections.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the notable effect of rifampicin on bodily secretions?

<p>Red/orange discoloration</p> Signup and view all the answers

Rifampicin is a potent inducer of the _______ enzymes, which can reduce the effectiveness of drugs metabolized by this system.

<p>cytochrome P450</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on TB treatment reports difficulty recognising colours. Which medication is MOST likely causing this?

<p>Ethambutol (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Hyperuricemia is a side effect of isoniazid.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Name three drugs used in TB treatment that are associated with hepatotoxicity.

<p>Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient recently started treatment for tuberculosis and notices numbness or unusual sensations in their feet. The medication most likely implicated is _______.

<p>isoniazid</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on rifampicin presents with reduced efficacy of their oral contraceptive pill. What is the mechanism behind this?

<p>Rifampicin induces cytochrome P450 enzymes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Individuals vaccinated with BCG invariably test positive on the Mantoux test for the remainder of their lives.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with suspected pulmonary tuberculosis is unable to produce a deep cough sputum sample. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step?

<p>Proceed with sputum induction using nebulized hypertonic saline (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

While treating active tuberculosis with the standard RIPE therapy, a patient develops jaundice and dark urine. Given the risk of hepatotoxicity with multiple drugs in the regimen, the MOST prudent initial step would be to immediately perform _______.

<p>liver function tests</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Tuberculosis (TB)

Infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Small rod-shaped bacteria that causes tuberculosis.

Acid-fast bacilli

A bacterium's resistance to decolorization by acids during staining procedures.

Ziehl-Neelsen stain

Staining technique that turns acid-fast bacilli bright red against a blue background.

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Multidrug-resistant TB (MDR-TB)

TB strains resistant to more than one TB drug, like isoniazid and rifampicin.

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Primary active tuberculosis

Active infection immediately after exposure to TB.

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Latent tuberculosis

The presence of TB bacteria without symptoms or contagiousness.

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Secondary tuberculosis

Reactivation of latent tuberculosis to an active infection.

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Miliary tuberculosis

Severe and disseminated TB disease.

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Extrapulmonary tuberculosis

TB infection outside the lungs.

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Cold abscess

Firm, painless abscess caused by tuberculosis, usually in the neck.

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BCG Vaccine

A vaccine using live attenuated Mycobacterium bovis bacteria given intradermally.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mantoux test

Injection of tuberculosis proteins in the intradermal space on the forearm.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Interferon-Gamma Release Assay (IGRA)

Immune assay mixing blood with M. tuberculosis antigens.

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Chest X-ray Appearance: Primary TB

Shows patchy consolidation, pleural effusions, and hilar lymphadenopathy.

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Chest X-ray Appearance: Reactivated TB

Shows patchy or nodular consolidation with cavitation, typically in the upper zones.

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Chest X-ray Appearance: Miliary TB

Shows 'millet seeds' uniformly distributed across the lung fields.

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TB Culture Samples

Samples collected to test for drug resistance.

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Nucleic Acid Amplification Tests (NAAT)

Tests assessing for the genetic material of TB.

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Treatment for latent TB

Isoniazid and rifampicin for 3 months, or isoniazid for 6 months.

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RIPE Therapy

Rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol

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Side Effects: Rifampicin

Causes red/orange discoloration of secretions; potent inducer of cytochrome P450 enzymes.

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Side Effects: Isoniazid

Causes peripheral neuropathy; pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is co-prescribed.

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Side Effects: Pyrazinamide

Causes hyperuricemia, potentially leading to gout and kidney stones.

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Side Effects: Ethambutol

Causes color blindness and reduced visual acuity.

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Tuberculosis Symptom: Cough

A chronic, gradually worsening cough.

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Tuberculosis Symptom: Haemoptysis

Coughing up blood.

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Tuberculosis Symptom: Lethargy

A feeling of fatigue or lack of energy.

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Tuberculosis Symptom: Fever/Night Sweats

Elevated body temperature, often with night sweats.

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Tuberculosis Symptom: Weight Loss

Unintentional loss of body mass.

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Tuberculosis Symptom: Lymphadenopathy

Swollen lymph nodes.

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Tuberculosis Symptom: Erythema nodosum

Tender, red nodules on the shins due to inflammation of subcutaneous fat.

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Tuberculosis Symptom: Spinal Pain

Spinal pain characteristic of spinal tuberculosis.

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Spinal Tuberculosis

Also known as Pott's disease of the spine.

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Mantoux Test Procedure

Injecting tuberculin into the intradermal space on the forearm.

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Tuberculin

Collection of tuberculosis proteins isolated from the bacteria.

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Positive Mantoux Test

Induration of 5mm or more at the injection site after 72 hours.

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IGRA Procedure

Antigens from M. tuberculosis mixed with blood.

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Positive IGRA Result

Release of interferon-gamma when white blood cells contact TB antigens.

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Sputum Induction

A procedure using nebulized hypertonic saline to help produce a sputum sample.

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Bronchoscopy

Bronchoalveolar lavage.

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What do NAATs do?

Assess for the genetic material of a pathogen.

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Isoniazid and Vitamin B6

Isoniazid causes peripheral neuropathy, and pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is co-prescribed to help prevent this.

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Co-infection testing

Testing for HIV, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C.

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UK Health Security Agency

UKHSA must be notified for surveillance.

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Negative Pressure Rooms

Prevents airborne spread of infection.

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Rifampicin side effect

Red/orange discolouration of urine and tears.

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Rifampicin: Enzyme Induction

Potent inducer of cytochrome P450 enzymes.

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Study Notes

  • Tuberculosis (TB) is an infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
  • M. tuberculosis is a slow-dividing, rod-shaped bacterium (bacillus) with high oxygen requirements.
  • Culture is difficult because of slow dividing and high oxygen requirements.

Identifying M. tuberculosis

  • The waxy coating makes gram staining ineffective, thus requiring special staining.
  • It is acid-fast, meaning it resists acids used in staining.
  • Ziehl-Neelsen stain turns the bacteria bright red against a blue background.
  • Chronic cough and night sweats, with red-staining acid-fast bacilli, signal TB.

Multidrug-Resistant TB

  • Multidrug-resistant TB (MDR-TB) strains resist multiple TB drugs, such as isoniazid and rifampicin, making them harder to treat.

Disease Course

  • Tuberculosis spreads mainly by inhaling saliva droplets from infected individuals.
  • Possible outcomes after exposure include immediate clearance, primary active tuberculosis, latent tuberculosis, or secondary tuberculosis (reactivation).
  • Uncontrolled infections can lead to disseminated, severe miliary tuberculosis.
  • Latent tuberculosis involves the immune system encapsulating the bacteria, preventing disease progression, and is non-contagious.
  • Secondary tuberculosis occurs when latent TB reactivates, often due to immunosuppression.
  • The lungs are the most common site for TB infection because of the high levels of oxygen
  • Extrapulmonary tuberculosis affects areas outside the lungs, such as lymph nodes, pleura, the central nervous system, pericardium, gastrointestinal and genitourinary systems, bones, joints and skin.

Cold Abscesses

  • Cold abscesses are firm, painless abscesses often in the neck caused by TB, lacking typical inflammation.

Risk Factors

  • Risk factors include close contact with active TB, immigration from high-prevalence areas, immunocompromised status, malnutrition, homelessness, drug use, and smoking.
  • People with relatives/close contacts from countries with high TB rates are also at risk.
  • Alcoholism is also a risk factor

BCG Vaccine

  • The Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine uses a live, weakened Mycobacterium bovis to create immunity against M. tuberculosis.
  • It is administered via intradermal injection.
  • It protects against severe TB but less so against pulmonary TB.
  • Patients are tested with the Mantoux test and screened for immunosuppression/HIV before vaccination due to it being a live vaccine.
  • The BCG vaccine is offered to those at increased risk, such as those from high-prevalence areas or close contacts.
  • It is also offered it to healthcare workers.

Presentation

  • Tuberculosis usually presents with chronic, gradually worsening symptoms, and often pulmonary disease with systemic symptoms.
  • Symptoms include cough, hemoptysis, lethargy, fever, night sweats, weight loss, lymphadenopathy, erythema nodosum, and spinal pain (Pott’s disease).

Investigations

  • Diagnosing TB is challenging due to slow bacterial growth and the need for specialized stains like Ziehl-Neelsen.
  • An immune response from previous, latent or active TB can be detected with the Mantoux test or interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA).
  • Suspected active disease can be investigated with chest x-rays and cultures.

Mantoux Test Details

  • Involves injecting tuberculin (TB proteins) intradermally on the forearm, causing a bleb.
  • After 72 hours, the test is read by measuring induration; 5mm or more indicates a positive result.

Interferon-Gamma Release Assays

  • IGRA mixes blood with M. tuberculosis antigens; sensitized white blood cells release interferon-gamma upon contact.
  • The release of interferon-gamma indicates a positive result.

Chest X-Ray

  • Primary TB may show patchy consolidation, pleural effusions, and hilar lymphadenopathy.
  • Reactivated TB may show patchy or nodular consolidation with cavitation, usually in the upper zones.
  • Disseminated miliary tuberculosis shows an appearance of millet seeds, uniformly distributed across the lung fields.

Cultures and Collection Methods

  • Culture samples are ideally collected before treatment to test for drug resistance, but treatment often starts while awaiting results due to the slow growth.
  • Sputum samples (3 separate), mycobacterium blood cultures, or lymph node aspiration/biopsy are used for collection.
  • Deep cough sputum samples are preferred.
  • If sputum production is insufficient, sputum induction with nebulized hypertonic saline or bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage is used.

Nucleic Acid Amplification Tests

  • Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) detect TB DNA in samples quickly and provide information on drug resistance.
  • NAAT is used when diagnosing tuberculosis in patients with HIV, aged under 16, or with risk factors for multidrug resistance.

Treatment

  • Latent TB is treated with isoniazid and rifampicin for 3 months or isoniazid alone for 6 months.
  • Active TB treatment involves the RIPE regimen: rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol; rifampicin and isoniazid are for 6 months, and pyrazinamide and ethambutol are for 2 months.
  • Isoniazid causes peripheral neuropathy, so pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is co-prescribed.
  • Testing for HIV, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C, and also testing contacts, are also important.

Additional Management

  • UK Health Security Agency (UKHSA) must be notified of suspected cases.
  • Patients with active TB should be isolated for at least 2 weeks of treatment.
  • A specialist MDT guides management and follow-up.
  • Individualized regimens are required for multidrug-resistant TB and extrapulmonary disease.
  • Negative pressure rooms are used in hospitals to prevent airborne spread.
  • These negative pressure rooms have ventilation systems that actively remove air to prevent it from spreading onto the ward.

Side Effects of Treatment

  • Rifampicin can cause red/orange discoloration of secretions and reduces the effectiveness of drugs metabolized by cytochrome P450 enzymes, like combined contraceptive pills.
  • Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy, managed with pyridoxine (vitamin B6).
  • Pyrazinamide can cause hyperuricemia, leading to gout and kidney stones.
  • Ethambutol can cause colour blindness and reduced visual acuity.
  • Rifampicin, isoniazid, and pyrazinamide can all cause hepatotoxicity.
  • Numbness/tingling suggests isoniazid, difficulty with colors suggests ethambutol, and red/orange secretions suggests rifampicin.

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