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Questions and Answers

What is the primary role of transcription factors in eukaryotic transcription?

  • To form a pre-initiation complex with RNA polymerase II (correct)
  • To regulate the transition from DNA replication to transcription
  • To synthesize RNA molecules directly
  • To provide energy for the transcription process
  • Which of the following statements correctly describes RNA polymerase II in eukaryotes?

  • It is responsible for synthesizing all types of RNA.
  • It is part of a multi-subunit complex needed for transcription initiation. (correct)
  • It synthesizes RNA in the 3’-to-5’ direction.
  • It directly binds to the core promoter without assistance.
  • What unique components does TFIID consist of?

  • General transcription factors and splicing factors
  • TATA-binding protein (TBP) and TBP-Associated Factors (TAFs) (correct)
  • RNA polymerase II and transcription factors A and B
  • Initiator proteins and elongation factors
  • What is the primary function of the promoter region in eukaryote transcription?

    <p>To serve as the binding site for RNA polymerase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which element is specifically associated with the formation of the preinitiation complex during transcription initiation?

    <p>TATA box (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which direction is RNA synthesized during transcription?

    <p>5'-to-3' (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many base pairs is the core promoter typically located from the transcription start site (TSS)?

    <p>About -40 to +40 base pairs (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines the template strand of DNA during RNA synthesis?

    <p>The DNA strand that is complementary to RNA (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consensus sequence for the initiator element (INR) in mammalian RNA polymerase II transcription?

    <p>YYANWYY (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which transcription factor primarily recognizes the B recognition element (BRE)?

    <p>TFIIB (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of the 5' cap added to mRNA during processing?

    <p>It aids in the transport of mRNA out of the nucleus. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the poly(A) tail contribute to mRNA stability?

    <p>By protecting mRNA from exonuclease degradation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which enzyme is responsible for adding the 5' cap to a newly synthesized mRNA molecule?

    <p>Capping enzymes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What sequence does the endonuclease cleave to initiate the addition of the poly(A) tail?

    <p>AUAAA sequence (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following components is involved in the recruitment of enzymes for the poly(A) tail addition?

    <p>Phosphorylated CTD (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are introns primarily characterized by in the context of RNA processing?

    <p>They are noncoding sequences that are removed from pre-RNA. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which splice site is associated with intron removal during mRNA processing?

    <p>3’ splice site - AG/G (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of exonic splicing enhancers (ESE)?

    <p>They help recruit small nuclear ribonuclear proteins (snRNPs). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true regarding small nuclear ribonuclear proteins (snRNPs)?

    <p>They contain small nuclear RNAs (snRNAs) and associated proteins. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Approximately what percentage of inherited diseases in humans is estimated to arise from errors in RNA splicing?

    <p>15-30% (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What primarily determines the expression of myofibers versus skin fibroblasts?

    <p>The transcriptional state governed by genes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of activator transcription factors?

    <p>To stimulate transcription of specific genes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which domain of transcription factors promotes interaction with other proteins?

    <p>Activation domain (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect do zinc finger motifs primarily have in transcription factors?

    <p>They bind to major grooves in target DNA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How are transcription factors typically characterized in terms of their regulation of genes?

    <p>Every gene is regulated by multiple transcription factors (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What structure in the nucleus is responsible for providing mechanical support and anchoring chromatin?

    <p>Lamins (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly describes a polysome?

    <p>Multiple ribosomes bound to a single mRNA (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The primary transcript (mRNA precursor) includes which of the following?

    <p>Introns (B), Poly(A) tail (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the nuclear pores in the nuclear envelope?

    <p>Facilitate RNA transport out of the nucleus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What machinery is responsible for the removal of introns during RNA processing?

    <p>Splicesome (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What disease is characterized by its impact on the muscular system and is mentioned in the list?

    <p>Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is classified under neurological diseases in the list provided?

    <p>Tourette Syndrome (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of replication occurs in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

    <p>Semi-conservative replication (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur in eukaryotic cells?

    <p>S phase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many replicons are typically engaged in DNA replication during the S phase in human cells?

    <p>10,000-100,000 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of the replication fork during DNA replication?

    <p>It is the site where nucleotides are incorporated (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the DNA polymerase holoenzyme in DNA replication?

    <p>It synthesizes the daughter strands of DNA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the function of DNA polymerase III in prokaryotes?

    <p>It extends RNA primers with new DNA nucleotides. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of single-stranded DNA-binding (SSB) proteins during DNA replication?

    <p>They stabilize the unwound DNA strands to prevent re-annealing. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following events occurs during the initiation of DNA replication in eukaryotic cells?

    <p>Pre-replication complexes are activated by protein kinases. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes the lagging strand during DNA replication?

    <p>It is synthesized discontinuously with Okazaki fragments. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which enzyme is responsible for relieving the tension caused by supercoiling during DNA unwinding in eukaryotes?

    <p>Type I topoisomerases (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of mutation results in a premature stop codon?

    <p>Nonsense mutation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which category of genetic mutation may lead to frameshifts?

    <p>Insertions and deletions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does a conservative missense mutation differ from other missense mutations?

    <p>It changes the amino acid to one with similar properties. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an example of a genetic condition caused by a nonsense mutation?

    <p>Cystic Fibrosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes a point mutation?

    <p>It is a permanent change in the DNA sequence. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What describes a missense mutation?

    <p>A mutation that causes a different amino acid to be produced (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main consequence of a trinucleotide repeat expansion?

    <p>Formation of toxic protein aggregates (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What genetic error is primarily responsible for Down Syndrome?

    <p>Nondisjunction of chromosome 21 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of mutation involves a change in the number or structure of chromosomes?

    <p>Copy number variations (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic feature of the MYC gene in relation to cancer?

    <p>It is commonly duplicated in various cancers (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs)?

    <p>To activate signaling pathways through ligand binding (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to the G protein when GDP is exchanged for GTP?

    <p>The G protein activates the effector protein (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which process is initiated after ligand binding to a GPCR?

    <p>Dissociation of G protein subunits (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following molecules can serve as ligands for GPCRs?

    <p>Peptides and proteins (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the ultimate effect of activated Gα subunit on adenylyl cyclase?

    <p>It activates adenylyl cyclase to increase ATP conversion to cAMP (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs to the Gα subunit after GTP is hydrolyzed?

    <p>It becomes inactive and associates with Gβγ. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which enzyme is primarily activated by the GTP-bound Gα subunit?

    <p>Adenylyl cyclase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What process is inhibited by the binding of arrestin protein to the receptor?

    <p>G protein activation by the receptor. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens when a ligand binds to the GPCR?

    <p>It alters receptor conformation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a consequence of G protein activation?

    <p>GDP is exchanged for GTP. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of second messengers in cell signaling?

    <p>Activate or inactivate target proteins (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which G protein is associated with the production of IP3 and DAG?

    <p>Gq (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does CREB primarily bind to in the context of cAMP signaling?

    <p>TGACGTCA (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which G protein signaling pathway leads to a decrease in cAMP levels?

    <p>Gi signaling pathway (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What cellular response is associated with the activation of Protein Kinase A (PKA)?

    <p>Increased transcription of cAMP-sensitive genes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to cGMP levels in rod cells when exposed to light?

    <p>cGMP levels decrease (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which G protein is involved in the signaling pathway related to light perception in rod cells?

    <p>Gαt (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of phospholipase C (PLC) in cell signaling?

    <p>To cleave PIP2 into IP3 and DAG (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of mutations in the RGS9 gene on visual processing?

    <p>Slower increase of cGMP leading to slower channel opening (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately describes the role of G12/13 proteins in cell signaling?

    <p>They stimulate excessive cell proliferation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does the alpha subunit of G-proteins play in G-coupled pathways?

    <p>It triggers the activation of adenylyl cyclase or phospholipase C-beta. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following receptor types is NOT part of cellular signaling mechanisms within the outlined content?

    <p>Receptor nuclear factors (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the outcome of the activation of protein kinase A (PKA) in G-coupled pathways?

    <p>Regulation of gene transcription by phosphorylating transcription factors. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What event occurs when a ligand binds to a G-protein coupled receptor (GPCR)?

    <p>Conformational change that activates G-proteins. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What molecule is produced from ATP in the cAMP signaling pathway?

    <p>cAMP (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What process allows receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) to terminate their signaling response?

    <p>Receptor-mediated endocytosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following relay proteins acts as a docking station for signaling proteins?

    <p>IRS (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens during trans-autophosphorylation in receptor tyrosine kinases?

    <p>The receptor phosphorylates itself (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which role does CBL (Casitas B-lineage Lymphoma) protein play in the signaling of receptor tyrosine kinases?

    <p>Ubiquitinates RTK for internalization (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of protein functions as a linker in a signaling complex during RTK signaling?

    <p>Adaptor proteins (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Flashcards

    Eukaryotic Transcription

    The process of creating RNA from a DNA template in eukaryotic cells, using different RNA polymerases.

    RNA Polymerase II

    One of three RNA polymerases in eukaryotes; responsible for transcribing most protein-coding genes.

    Transcription Factors (TFs)

    Proteins that bind to specific DNA sequences, influencing whether or not RNA polymerase can begin transcription.

    General Transcription Factors (GTFs)

    A group of transcription factors that are essential for the initiation of transcription by RNA polymerase II; they assemble at the core promoter.

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    TFIID

    A critical General Transcription Factor (GTF) that binds to the promoter region of a gene, initiating the assembly of other transcription factors and RNA polymerase II. Specifically comprises TBP and TAFs.

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    Core Promoter

    Region in eukaryotic DNA near the start of a gene where general transcription factors bind and RNA polymerase II attaches to initiate transcription.

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    TATA Box

    A specific DNA sequence in the core promoter region that is crucial for transcription initiation; usually recognized by the TBP protein.

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    Initiator Element (INR)

    A DNA sequence in eukaryotic promoters that overlaps with the transcription start site, assisting in RNA polymerase II binding.

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    Downstream Promoter Element (DPE)

    A DNA sequence located downstream of the transcription start site, aiding in transcription initiation by RNA polymerase II.

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    Proximal Promoter Elements

    Binding sites for specific transcription factors that control the level and timing of gene expression, located close to the core promoter.

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    mRNA factory

    A complex of proteins and enzymes that travel with RNA polymerase during transcription, carrying out mRNA processing steps.

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    5' Cap

    A modified guanine nucleotide added to the 5' end of an mRNA molecule, protecting it from degradation and helping its export from the nucleus.

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    What is the role of the 5' cap?

    It protects the mRNA from degradation by exonucleases, helps transport the mRNA out of the nucleus, and plays a role in the initiation of translation.

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    3' poly(A) tail

    A string of adenine nucleotides added to the 3' end of an mRNA molecule, protecting it from degradation and helping its export from the nucleus.

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    What is the role of the 3' poly(A) tail?

    It protects the mRNA from degradation by exonucleases, helps its export from the nucleus, and plays a role in translation.

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    Intron

    Non-coding DNA sequences within a gene that are removed during mRNA processing. They are not included in the final mature RNA product.

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    Exon

    Coding DNA sequences within a gene that are retained and spliced together to form the mature RNA product.

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    RNA Splicing

    The process of removing introns and joining exons together to form a mature messenger RNA molecule (mRNA).

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    5' splice site

    The specific nucleotide sequence at the 5' end of an intron that marks the beginning of the intron and is crucial for recognizing and cutting it out during RNA splicing.

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    3' splice site

    The specific nucleotide sequence at the 3' end of an intron that marks the end of the intron and is also important for splicing.

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    What is the primary function of the nucleus?

    The nucleus is the control center of the cell, responsible for storing and protecting DNA and orchestrating the transcription of genetic information into RNA.

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    What is the function of the nuclear envelope?

    The nuclear envelope acts as a barrier, separating the nucleus from the cytoplasm, and controls the movement of molecules in and out of the nucleus.

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    What is the role of lamins in the nuclear envelope?

    Lamins are proteins that provide structural support for the nuclear envelope, maintaining its shape and anchoring chromatin to the inner membrane.

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    Why is nuclear trafficking important?

    Nuclear trafficking refers to the controlled movement of molecules, such as proteins and RNA, between the nucleus and the cytoplasm, ensuring proper function of both compartments.

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    What are some examples of molecules transported through nuclear pores?

    Proteins involved in transcription, translation, and other nuclear functions, and RNA products like mRNA, tRNA, and ribosomal RNA (rRNA), are transported through nuclear pores.

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    Sequence Specific Transcription Factors

    Bind to regulatory sites of a particular gene to either activate or repress transcription. They can be activators or repressors.

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    Zinc Finger

    A DNA-binding motif in transcription factors, characterized by a zinc ion held by 2 cysteines and 2 histidines. It interacts with the major groove of DNA, recognizing specific base sequences.

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    Helix-Loop-Helix (HLH)

    A DNA-binding motif in transcription factors consisting of two α-helices connected by a loop. It binds to specific DNA sequences in the major groove.

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    Gene-Environment Interactions

    The interplay between an individual's genetic makeup and their environment, influencing the manifestation of traits and diseases.

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    Epigenetics

    The study of heritable changes in gene expression that occur without alterations in the DNA sequence itself.

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    Control of Gene Expression

    The regulation of which genes are activated or silenced, determining the types and amounts of proteins produced by a cell.

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    Transcription Factors

    Proteins that bind to specific DNA sequences to control the initiation and rate of gene transcription.

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    What are the two main categories of transcription factors?

    Transcription factors are broadly classified into two categories: general transcription factors (GTFs) and sequence-specific transcription factors (SSTFs). GTFs are essential for the basic machinery of transcription, while SSTFs regulate the expression of specific genes.

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    Cystic Fibrosis

    An inherited disease causing thick, sticky mucus buildup in the lungs, pancreas, and other organs, leading to breathing problems and other complications.

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    Alkaptonuria

    A rare metabolic disorder where the body cannot break down homogentisic acid, leading to a buildup in the urine and connective tissues, resulting in dark urine and joint problems.

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    Amyloidosis

    A group of diseases where abnormal proteins (amyloid) build up in organs, impacting their function.

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    Cerebral Palsy

    A disorder affecting muscle movement and coordination caused by brain damage, leading to a range of physical disabilities.

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    Crohn's Disease

    A chronic inflammatory bowel disease affecting any part of the digestive tract, leading to abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss.

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    DNA Replication

    The process of copying DNA to create two identical DNA molecules. This ensures genetic information is passed on during cell division.

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    Semi-Conservative Replication

    A model of DNA replication where each new DNA molecule consists of one original strand and one newly synthesized strand. The original strand serves as a template for the new strand.

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    Replication Fork

    The Y-shaped structure formed during DNA replication where the parental DNA strands are separated, and new strands are synthesized.

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    Replicon

    A segment of DNA that is replicated independently. Eukaryotic genomes are divided into smaller replicons, each with its own origin of replication.

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    Replication Foci

    Localized sites within the nucleus where multiple replicons are actively engaged in DNA replication. These sites can be visualized using microscopy.

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    Semi-discontinuous Replication

    The process of DNA replication where one new strand (leading strand) is synthesized continuously, while the other strand (lagging strand) is synthesized discontinuously in short fragments called Okazaki fragments.

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    Leading Strand

    The new DNA strand synthesized continuously in a 5' to 3' direction towards the replication fork.

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    Lagging Strand

    The new DNA strand synthesized discontinuously in short fragments (Okazaki fragments) away from the replication fork.

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    Okazaki Fragments

    Short DNA fragments synthesized on the lagging strand during DNA replication.

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    RNA Primer

    A short RNA sequence that provides a starting point for DNA polymerase to begin synthesizing new DNA.

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    Point Mutation

    A change in a single base pair in the DNA sequence.

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    Missense Mutation

    A point mutation that results in a change of the amino acid encoded by the DNA.

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    Nonsense Mutation

    A point mutation that creates a premature stop codon, resulting in a truncated protein.

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    Frameshift Mutation

    A mutation caused by an insertion or deletion of a number of nucleotides that is not a multiple of three. This shifts the reading frame, changing the codons and the amino acid sequence.

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    Copy Number Variations (CNVs)

    Changes in the amount of genetic material at a specific location, including insertions, deletions, duplications, and repeat expansions.

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    What are G protein-coupled receptors?

    G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs) are the largest family of membrane proteins, characterized by their 7 transmembrane helical domain structure. They are coupled to cytoplasmic G proteins, which consist of three subunits (α, ß, γ) and use GTP to activate effector proteins, triggering second messengers.

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    What kinds of ligands activate GPCRs?

    GPCRs can be activated by a diverse range of ligands, including small molecules like amino acids and their derivatives (e.g., acetylcholine, epinephrine, dopamine), gases (e.g., NO, CO), steroids, lipids (e.g., eicosanoids), peptides, and proteins.

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    What are the key steps of GPCR signal transduction?

    1. Ligand binding to the receptor changes its conformation, increasing its affinity for G protein.
    2. G protein binds to the receptor, causing a conformational change in Gα.
    3. GDP is exchanged for GTP, activating the G protein.
    4. GTP-Gα dissociates from Gßγ and binds to an effector protein, either activating or inhibiting it.
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    What are some examples of effector proteins activated by GPCRs?

    GPCRs can activate a range of effector proteins, including adenylyl cyclase (which converts ATP to cAMP), phospholipase C, and cGMP phosphodiesterase.

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    How do G proteins contribute to GPCR signaling?

    G proteins act as molecular switches. When activated by binding GTP, they relay the signal from the GPCR to downstream effector proteins. The Gα subunit can activate or inhibit effector proteins depending on the specific G protein involved.

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    Ligand Binding to Receptor

    When a ligand binds to the extracellular domain of a G protein-coupled receptor, it changes the receptor's shape, increasing its affinity for a G protein.

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    G Protein Activation

    The binding of a G protein to an activated receptor causes a conformational change in the Gα subunit, leading to GDP being replaced by GTP, activating the G protein.

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    Effector Activation

    The activated GTP-bound Gα subunit dissociates from the Gßγ subunits and binds to an effector protein, which can activate or inhibit cellular processes.

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    G Protein Deactivation

    The Gα subunit can inactivate itself by hydrolyzing GTP to GDP, causing it to re-associate with Gßγ and decreasing its affinity for the effector protein.

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    GPCR Desensitization

    GPCRs become desensitized by phosphorylation by G protein-coupled receptor kinase (GRK), which allows arrestin binding and inhibits G protein interactions.

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    What are second messengers?

    Small molecules produced inside cells that relay and amplify signals from outside the cell, often generated by effector enzymes.

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    What are effector enzymes?

    Enzymes that are activated by G proteins and produce second messengers, which are important for signal transduction pathways.

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    IP3

    Inositol triphosphate (IP3) is a second messenger that triggers the release of calcium ions from intracellular stores.

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    DAG

    Diacylglycerol (DAG) activates protein kinase C (PKC) by binding to its regulatory domain.

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    PKC

    Protein kinase C (PKC) is a kinase enzyme that is activated by DAG and calcium ions. It phosphorylates target proteins, leading to various biological effects.

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    G Protein-Coupled Receptors

    A large family of transmembrane proteins that are coupled to G proteins. GPCRs are involved in diverse cellular processes by mediating signaling pathways that involve second messengers. They are characterized by their 7 transmembrane helical domain structure.

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    cAMP (cyclic AMP)

    A second messenger produced from ATP by adenylyl cyclase, an effector enzyme. cAMP plays a role in diverse cellular processes, including signal transduction, gene transcription, and metabolism.

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    cGMP (cyclic GMP)

    A second messenger produced from GTP, often used in sensory systems, like vision. It helps regulate the activity of certain ion channels and is directly broken down by cGMP phosphodiesterase.

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    IP3 and DAG

    Two important second messengers produced by the cleavage of PIP2 by phospholipase C (PLC). IP3 mobilizes Ca2+ from intracellular stores, while DAG activates protein kinase C.

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    Trans-autophosphorylation

    The process where an activated receptor protein-tyrosine kinase (RTK) adds phosphate groups to its own intracellular domain.

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    Relay Proteins

    Proteins that bind to phosphorylated RTKs and become activated, triggering a cellular response.

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    SH2 and PTB Domains

    Specialized regions found in relay proteins that allow them to interact with phosphorylated tyrosine residues on RTKs.

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    CBL Protein in Signal Termination

    An E3 ubiquitin ligase that attaches ubiquitin to RTKs, marking them for internalization and degradation.

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    Relay Protein Types

    There are various types of relay proteins, including adaptors, docking proteins, transcription factors, and enzymes.

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    What are Receptor Protein-Tyrosine Kinases (RTKs)?

    RTKs are transmembrane receptors that have intrinsic tyrosine kinase activity, meaning they can add phosphate groups to tyrosine residues on proteins. They are involved in various signalling pathways, including cell growth, proliferation, and differentiation.

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    What is the role of Ligand-Gated Channels in cell signalling?

    Ligand-gated channels are proteins that act as gates in the cell membrane, allowing the passage of ions like sodium, potassium, and calcium. They are activated by the binding of a specific ligand, allowing for rapid changes in membrane potential and cell function.

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    What are Steroid Hormone Receptors?

    Steroid hormone receptors are intracellular proteins that bind to steroid hormones, like testosterone or estrogen. Upon binding, they act as transcription factors, controlling gene expression and regulating cellular processes.

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    How does cAMP work in G-Coupled Pathways?

    cAMP (cyclic AMP) is a second messenger that is activated by the G-protein coupled receptor (GPCR) pathway. It is produced by adenylyl cyclase, an effector enzyme. cAMP activates Protein Kinase A (PKA), which phosphorylates target proteins, leading to a range of cellular responses like increased glucose production.

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    How does cGMP work in G-Coupled Pathways?

    cGMP (cyclic GMP) is a second messenger activated by certain GPCRs. It is produced by guanylyl cyclase and can be degraded by cGMP phosphodiesterase. cGMP plays a role in vision, mediating light-induced changes in retinal cells. It also affects smooth muscle relaxation and vascular dilation.

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    Study Notes

    Molecular Mechanisms of Disease

    • HSS2305: Course covering the molecular mechanisms behind diseases.
    • Lectures 7 and 8: Focus on interactions between cells and environment, gene transcription, and translation.
    • Cellular Components: Diagram depicts various cell structures (e.g., nucleus, cytoskeleton, endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes, mitochondria, Golgi complex).

    Eukaryote Gene Transcription and Translation

    • Overview: Process of turning genetic information into proteins.
    • Central Dogma: DNA → RNA → Protein
    • Transcription: DNA sequence copied into mRNA.
    • Translation: mRNA decoded to build protein.

    From Genes to Proteins (Central Dogma)

    • Illustrates the process of DNA transcription and translation.
    • Shows the conversion of DNA to RNA to Protein.

    From Genes to Proteins (Complex)

    • Details gene to protein mechanisms, encompassing transcription and translation
    • Highlights the intricate steps in transferring information from DNA to Protein.
    • Illustrates pre-mRNA processing steps: addition of 5' cap and 3' Poly-A tail
    • Illustrates the role of mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA in protein synthesis

    From Genes to Proteins (Video)

    • Discusses protein synthesis, covering DNA transcription, translation, and folding.

    Transcription

    • Synthesis of RNA from DNA in nucleus.
      • Starting Material: DNA
      • Required machinery: RNA polymerase II, transcription factors
      • End product: Messenger RNA (mRNA) after processing.

    Translation

    • Synthesis of proteins from mRNA in cytoplasm.
      • Starting Material: mRNA
      • Required machinery: Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and ribosomal proteins, transfer RNA (tRNA)
      • End product: Polypeptide (protein).

    Sense vs Antisense DNA Strands

    • Coding strand is identical to mRNA except uracil replaces thymine.
    • Template or antisense strand serves as the DNA template.

    Transcription (Gene Structure)

    • Both DNA strands code for genes, illustrated in diagram.
    • DNA size: 3.6 x 104 bp (base pairs)
    • Replication and Transcription illustrated at gene level.

    Transcription (RNA Polymerase)

    • RNA polymerase binds to DNA.
      • Specific site: Promoter region
    • Incorporates nucleotide into RNA strand.
    • Prokaryotes: Single RNA polymerase to transcribe all RNA.
    • Eukaryotes: Three different RNA polymerases (I, II, III).

    Eukaryote Transcription (RNA Polymerase)

    • DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
    • RNA synthesis in 5' to 3' direction.
    • Template strand(3'to 5'): Read to make RNA strand

    Eukaryote Transcription (Core Promoter)

    • Site of RNA polymerase binding before transcription.
      • Determines strand used as template (anti-sense strand).
      • Has precise sequences.
      • Core and proximal elements within 250 base pairs of start site.

    Eukaryote Transcription (Core Promoter)

    • Key elements: TATA box, initiator sequences, other motifs.
    • Required for general TF's binding and RNA Pol II binding.
    • TATA box, BRE, Inr, DPE sequences.

    Eukaryote Transcription (Core Promoter Elements)

    • Initiator element (INR), flanking the start site.
    • Downstream promoter element (DPE).
      • Located downstream of transcription start site
    • Various factors binding to the core promoter.

    Eukaryote Transcription (Proximal Promoter Elements)

    • Contains binding sites for specific transcription factors.
    • Influences gene expression timing and level.
    • Important elements like CAAT box and GC box.

    Eukaryote Transcription (Enhancer Regions)

    • Far from start, regulates transcription.
    • Can be thousands of base pairs away from target gene.
    • Interact with the pre-initiation complex.

    Eukaryote Transcription (Pre-Initiation Complex (PIC))

    • Proteins assemble to initiate transcription of protein-coding genes.
    • Positions RNA polymerase II for initiation site.
    • Requires many protein components.

    Eukaryote Transcription (Pre-Initiation Complex (PIC) Formation)

    • TFIID (TBP+TAFs), binds to the TATA box.
    • TFIIA, TFIIB bind to the complex, stabilizing the complex.

    Eukaryote Transcription (Elongation)

    • RNA polymerase moves along DNA, creating RNA transcript.
    • Important for maintaining correct sequence.
    • Process aided by several elongation factors.

    Eukaryote Transcription (Termination)

    • Ends transcription process.
    • Involved in RNA processing steps to determine the final mRNA length.
    • Has no well-defined sequence like in prokaryotes.

    Biological Molecules (Proteins)

    • R groups are weakly acidic or basic.
    • Cannot form full H bonds at pH7.
    • Can form H bonds with other molecules with partial charges like H2O.

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    Description

    Explore the intricate molecular mechanisms behind diseases in this quiz based on HSS2305. Focus areas include cell-environment interactions, and the processes of gene transcription and translation. Test your knowledge of cellular components and the central dogma of molecular biology.

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