Molecular Biology of Cell Cycle and Signaling
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Questions and Answers

What is the primary function of the p53 protein in the cell cycle?

  • Inducing apoptosis in all cells
  • Promoting cell cycle progression
  • Regulating the G1-to-S checkpoint (correct)
  • Stimulating growth factor production
  • How does p53 contribute to DNA repair and cell cycle regulation?

  • By activating oncogenes that overlook DNA damage
  • By inhibiting the expression of repair genes
  • By inducing the expression of CDK inhibitor p21 (correct)
  • By promoting rapid entry into the S phase
  • What happens to Rb when p21 is expressed?

  • Rb remains unphosphorylated to inhibit E2F (correct)
  • Rb is phosphorylated to promote S phase
  • Rb is degraded to prevent any cell cycle arrest
  • Rb activates E2F leading to cell cycle progression
  • Which statement best describes the outcome of severe DNA damage in cells?

    <p>Cells may undergo apoptosis to avoid further mutations (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a feature of steroid signaling compared to extracellular protein signaling?

    <p>Steroid signaling involves direct entry into the nucleus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of ATAC-seq in genomic studies?

    <p>To identify accessible chromatin regions, such as promoters and enhancers. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor primarily defines the activity state of a gene in relation to chromatin structure?

    <p>The sensitivity of the promoter to enzymatic digestion. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do histone modifications affect chromatin structure?

    <p>They lead to the addition or removal of specific chemical groups on histone tails. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of Tn5 transposase in ATAC-seq?

    <p>To cut DNA at high frequency and insert sequencing primers. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the remodeling of chromatin typically involve?

    <p>Repositioning or removal of nucleosomes by chromatin remodeling enzymes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a cotransduction frequency of 0.29 indicate for the genes arg1 and ser3?

    <p>The genes are closely linked. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which process allows for the uptake of DNA from the environment by recipient bacteria?

    <p>Transformation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What conclusion can be drawn about the distance between arg1 and trp2 genes?

    <p>They are more than 2 minutes apart. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following methods does NOT involve the transfer of genes between bacteria?

    <p>Replication (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary difference between vertical gene transfer and horizontal gene transfer?

    <p>Vertical gene transfer involves inheritance across generations. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the factors that can contribute to the origin of cancer?

    <p>Intrinsic factors, extrinsic factors, and hereditary factors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of cyclins in the cell cycle?

    <p>To activate cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which phase of the cell cycle is characterized by cells preparing for replication?

    <p>G1 phase (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens at the G1-to-S checkpoint?

    <p>Cells that receive improper signals will stop division (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which environmental factor has been correlated with an increased risk for certain types of cancer?

    <p>Tobacco smoke (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is true about molecular signatures of cancer-associated mutations?

    <p>They appear non-age related for most mutations (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key requirement for cell proliferation?

    <p>Increase in cell size and activation of cell cycle genes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of growth factors in the extracellular signals regulating the cell cycle?

    <p>They activate genes required for cell growth and progression (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of mutation can occur due to non-homologous end-joining (NHEJ)?

    <p>Indels (insertions or deletions) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the components required for the CRISPR/Cas9 active complex?

    <p>Cas9, crRNA, and tracrRNA (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which process allows for precise gene editing using the CRISPR/Cas system?

    <p>Homology directed repair (HDR) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about the CRISPR/Cas system is accurate?

    <p>It generates double strand breaks in eukaryotic genomes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of PAM (Protospacer Adjacent Motif) in the CRISPR/Cas9 system?

    <p>It facilitates the binding of Cas9 to target DNA. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who were recognized with the Nobel Prize in 2020 for their work on the CRISPR/Cas system?

    <p>Emmanuelle Charpentier and Jennifer Doudna (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What process occurs in bacteria as a defense mechanism against bacteriophage?

    <p>Spacer integration into CRISPR locus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is double strand break (DSB) induced in targeted sites using CRISPR/Cas9?

    <p>By targeting a specific PAM sequence (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of expressing enzymes in response to food sources?

    <p>To utilize the food when it is present (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements best describes how gene expression is regulated in eukaryotes?

    <p>Pre-mRNA undergoes RNA processing before becoming mRNA (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the expression of repressible genes typically change?

    <p>They are turned off in response to specific factors (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do transcription factors play in gene expression?

    <p>They enhance or inhibit the ability of RNA polymerase to transcribe genes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it inaccurate to assume that a gene being transcribed means a functional protein is present in a cell?

    <p>mRNA processing can prevent protein formation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes constitutive gene expression?

    <p>Expression is continuously high regardless of environmental conditions (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of an activation domain (AD) in transcription factors?

    <p>It enhances the transcription process by RNA polymerase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the expression of genes differ in response to pathogens compared to nutrients?

    <p>Pathogen-resistance proteins are required only when challenged (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what way can gene expression levels be modulated?

    <p>They can be increased or decreased, even if constitutive (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one outcome of deregulated gene expression in multicellular organisms?

    <p>Uncontrolled cell proliferation, potentially leading to cancer (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the lacY gene in lactose utilization?

    <p>It encodes Lac Permease for lactose transport. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of adding lactose in the presence of low glucose on lacZ and lacY expression levels?

    <p>There is a 1000-fold increase in their expression. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes the function of lacI and lacO mutants?

    <p>They lead to high levels of lacY and lacZ expression regardless of lactose presence. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the lacP promoter within the lac operon?

    <p>It acts as a binding site for the sigma factor. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How can one test whether lacI or lacO encodes a protein or a DNA binding site?

    <p>By knocking out the gene and analyzing the downstream effects. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to Rb when p21 is activated by p53?

    <p>Rb remains unphosphorylated and inhibits E2F. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does p53 contribute to the cellular response to DNA damage?

    <p>It activates genes that control apoptosis and DNA repair. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential consequence of mutations in TP53?

    <p>Premature entry of cells into the cell cycle. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately reflects the role of signaling pathways in cell proliferation?

    <p>Extracellular signaling pathways are typically more complex than steroid signaling pathways. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key role of the Wnt signaling pathway in cell growth?

    <p>It is involved in the transduction of extracellular signals for growth. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of both copies of a tumor suppressor gene being mutated?

    <p>Loss of function mutations lead to cancer. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about tumor suppressor mutations is true?

    <p>Both gene copies must be mutated to have an effect. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of mutation requires only one copy of a gene to be mutated?

    <p>Dominant oncogenic mutation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do mutations in somatic cells affect germ cells?

    <p>Somatic mutations do not affect germ cells. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which mechanism can lead to cancer via mutations?

    <p>Both intrinsic and extrinsic mechanisms. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of using gene-specific primers in the process described?

    <p>To ensure that specific transcripts are amplified (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary advantage of using real-time PCR compared to traditional gel PCR?

    <p>Real-time PCR does not require gel electrophoresis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which step is essential for the detection of a specific RNA transcript using in situ hybridization?

    <p>Synthesis of a complementary probe labeled with a detectable marker (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does alkaline phosphatase play in the in situ hybridization process?

    <p>It converts a colorless substrate into a visible product (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main advantage of using RNA-seq for transcript analysis?

    <p>It provides direct analysis of transcripts without requiring cloning (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of RNA extraction, what is the significance of using a fixed embryo for in situ hybridization?

    <p>It allows for the preservation of spatial RNA distribution (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During RNA-seq, what happens after cDNA generation from an RNA sample?

    <p>The cDNA is sequenced directly using next-generation sequencing (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a crucial requirement for successfully hybridizing a probe to target mRNA?

    <p>The probe must be single-stranded and labeled with a reporter (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the eyeless gene in transgenic research?

    <p>It is responsible for generating ectopic eyes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of microRNAs in gene expression?

    <p>They prevent the translation or cause degradation of specific mRNAs. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component is NOT required for the expression of human growth hormone in E. coli?

    <p>Beta-lactoglobulin enhancer (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does RNA interference (RNAi) mainly facilitate gene regulation?

    <p>By introducing in vitro synthesized double-stranded RNAs into cells. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does glyphosate play in genetically modified crops?

    <p>It inhibits the EPSPS enzyme in plants. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of the hairpin structure formed in microRNAs?

    <p>It allows the formation of a ribonucleoprotein complex for gene silencing. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant advantage of using transgenic sheep for human protein production?

    <p>They are capable of post-translational modifications. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about genetically modified organisms (GMOs) is true?

    <p>GMOs can contribute to disease resistance in crops. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes a potential outcome when an mRNA has high complementarity with a microRNA?

    <p>The mRNA will be completely degraded. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What limits the effectiveness of RNAi as a gene regulation tool?

    <p>Variable knockdown effects and possible off-target effects. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes a major obstacle in producing certain human proteins in E. coli?

    <p>Inability to perform post-translational modifications (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What process is used to produce antithrombin III in transgenic sheep?

    <p>Injection of modified DNA into sheep ova (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic distinguishes microRNAs from other types of RNAs?

    <p>They are small and regulate gene expression through rRNA mechanisms. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why might not all genes be regulated by microRNAs in eukaryotes?

    <p>Specific genes may lack complementary target sites in their 3’ UTR. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary benefit of transgenic crops designed to carry bacterial EPSPS?

    <p>Resistance to herbicides, allowing for easier weed control. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which feature of microRNAs allows them to regulate multiple genes simultaneously?

    <p>They have partial complementarity with multiple mRNAs. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Flashcards

    Cotransduction frequency

    The proportion of phage particles that carry two or more genes simultaneously during transduction.

    Genetic distance (cotransduction)

    The measure (in minutes) of the physical separation between two genes based on cotransduction frequency.

    Horizontal gene transfer

    The transfer of genetic material between different organisms or species. It's not the transmission from parent to offspring.

    Transformation

    Mechanism of horizontal gene transfer where bacteria take up free DNA fragments from the environment.

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    Transduction

    Horizontal gene transfer process where bacteriophages (viruses that infect bacteria) carry bacterial DNA from a donor to a recipient bacterium.

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    What is ATAC-seq used for?

    ATAC-seq identifies regions of open chromatin, which are accessible to proteins like transcription factors. This helps locate promoters and enhancers, regions involved in gene regulation.

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    How does ATAC-seq work?

    ATAC-seq utilizes a hyperactive transposase, Tn5, which inserts sequencing primers into open chromatin regions. These fragments are then sequenced and aligned to the genome, revealing areas of accessibility.

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    Chromatin Remodeling

    Chromatin remodeling involves repositioning or removing nucleosomes by specialized enzymes. This influences gene expression by changing the accessibility of DNA to transcription factors.

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    Covalent Modification

    This refers to the dynamic addition or removal of chemical groups like acetyl, methyl, phosphate, or small proteins like ubiquitin to histone tails. This process alters chromatin structure and gene activity.

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    Histone Modifications

    Chemical modifications to histone proteins, like acetylation or methylation, impact chromatin structure and gene expression. They can either activate or repress gene transcription.

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    Gene expression regulation

    The process of controlling which genes are turned on (expressed) and off in a cell, determining the proteins produced and the cell's function.

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    Inducible gene expression

    Genes that are only expressed when a specific factor is present, like a signal or molecule.

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    Repressible gene expression

    Genes that are normally expressed but are turned off when a specific factor is present, like a signal or molecule.

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    Transcription factors

    Proteins that bind to specific DNA sequences and regulate the transcription of genes, controlling gene expression.

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    Activator transcription factor

    A transcription factor that increases the rate of transcription of a gene.

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    Repressor transcription factor

    A transcription factor that decreases the rate of transcription of a gene.

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    DNA binding domain (DBD)

    Part of a transcription factor that binds to specific DNA sequences.

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    Regulatory domain (RegD)

    Part of a transcription factor that controls its activity, often by interacting with regulatory molecules.

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    Activation domain (AD) or Repression domain (RD)

    Parts of a transcription factor that influence the rate of transcription, either increasing it (AD) or decreasing it (RD).

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    Constitutive gene expression

    Genes that are always expressed, regardless of environmental conditions.

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    Double Strand Breaks (DSB)

    Breaks in both strands of DNA that can lead to mutations or be used for gene replacement. They are more efficient in creating gene knockouts and replacements than homologous recombination.

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    Non-Homologous End-Joining (NHEJ)

    A DNA repair pathway that joins broken DNA ends without using a template. Often results in small insertions or deletions (indels) at the repair site.

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    Homology Directed Repair (HDR)

    A DNA repair pathway that uses a homologous template to accurately repair broken DNA ends. Can be used for precise gene editing.

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    CRISPR/Cas System

    An adaptive immune system found in bacteria that protects against bacteriophages. Uses CRISPR loci and Cas9 protein to recognize and cleave invading phage DNA.

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    Cas9

    A double-stranded nuclease enzyme in the CRISPR/Cas system. It cleaves DNA at specific sites guided by the crRNA.

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    crRNA

    A small CRISPR RNA containing a spacer sequence complementary to the target DNA and a repeat sequence. Guides Cas9 to the target site.

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    PAM Sequence

    A short DNA sequence recognized by Cas9. Must be present immediately downstream of the target sequence for successful cleavage.

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    What is the role of p53?

    p53 is a tumor suppressor protein that acts as a gatekeeper, preventing cells with damaged DNA from entering the cell cycle. It does this by inducing cell cycle arrest at the G1-to-S checkpoint, allowing time for DNA repair.

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    How does p53 activate cell cycle arrest?

    Upon sensing DNA damage, p53 activates the transcription of genes, including the CDK inhibitor p21. This p21 protein then binds to and inhibits the activity of CDK4-cyclinD complexes, preventing phosphorylation of Rb. This keeps Rb active, which in turn prevents E2F from activating genes needed for S phase entry.

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    What happens if both copies of TP53 gene are mutated?

    Mutations in both copies of TP53 gene, which encodes p53, lead to a loss of function. This disables the cell's ability to arrest the cell cycle in response to DNA damage, allowing damaged cells to proliferate. This increases the risk of cancer.

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    What are signaling pathways?

    Signaling pathways are chains of molecular events that relay information from outside the cell, like hormones or growth factors, to the nucleus, ultimately affecting gene expression and cell behavior.

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    How do steroid hormones work?

    Steroid hormones like estrogen and testosterone can directly enter the cell and bind to specific receptors. This complex then translocates to the nucleus, where it regulates gene expression, potentially promoting cell division.

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    Cancer Origin: Intrinsic vs. Extrinsic

    Cancer arises from both internal and external factors. Intrinsic factors include cell division rates and age, while extrinsic factors encompass environmental influences and genetic inheritance.

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    Intrinsic Cancer Support

    Evidence suggesting cancer originates within the body includes: higher cancer rates in organs with frequent stem cell division, increased risk with age, and replication-related mutations.

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    Extrinsic Cancer Support

    Evidence suggesting cancer arises from outside factors includes: clear environmental causes like smoking and sun exposure, rising cancer rates, and non-age-related mutations.

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    Hereditary Cancer

    Inheriting specific mutations in tumor suppressor genes can increase the risk of developing cancer.

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    Cell Cycle: G1 Phase

    The G1 phase in the cell cycle is where a cell grows in size and prepares for replication. It's like a factory stocking up before production.

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    G0 Phase

    If a cell doesn't receive proper signals or nutrients, it enters the G0 phase, a resting state outside the active cell cycle.

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    G1-to-S Checkpoint

    This checkpoint acts as the 'point of no return', deciding if a cell commits to replication. It can also pause the cycle for repairs.

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    Extracellular Signals Control Cell Growth

    Signals from outside the cell, like growth factors, can activate or deactivate genes involved in cell growth and progression into the cell cycle.

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    Lac Operon

    A group of genes in bacteria responsible for lactose metabolism. It includes the genes for lactose permease (lacY) and beta-galactosidase (lacZ), which are needed to transport and break down lactose, respectively.

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    Negative Regulation

    A type of gene regulation where a repressor protein binds to a specific DNA sequence, preventing the transcription of the gene. The lac operon is negatively regulated by the LacI repressor, which binds to the lac operator.

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    Constitutive Mutants

    Mutants that have genes expressed continuously, regardless of the presence of a specific inducer. In the case of the lac operon, constitutive mutants of lacI or lacO result in the continuous production of LacZ and LacY, even in the absence of lactose.

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    How do you test if a gene encodes a protein or a binding site?

    To determine whether a gene encodes a protein or functions as a binding site, researchers can use techniques like complementation analysis. If a mutated gene can be complemented by a wild-type copy of the same gene, it indicates the gene encodes a protein. Conversely, if a mutated gene can be complemented by a DNA segment containing a binding site, it suggests that the mutated gene acts as a binding site.

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    LacI Repressor

    A protein that binds to the lac operator region of the lac operon, blocking the transcription of the lac genes. This prevents the expression of lactose-utilizing enzymes when lactose is absent.

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    What are microRNAs?

    Naturally occurring small double-stranded RNAs that regulate gene expression by binding to the 3' UTR of mRNAs, either preventing translation or causing degradation.

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    How do microRNAs regulate translation?

    MicroRNAs bind to the 3'UTR of mRNAs, often with incomplete complementarity, preventing translation. This blocks protein production without degrading the mRNA.

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    What is RNAi?

    A technique that uses double-stranded RNAs (dsRNAs) to silence gene expression. It mimics natural microRNA pathways to knock down specific genes.

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    How do RNAi and microRNAs work together?

    Both RNAi and microRNAs utilize dsRNAs to target and silence specific genes. RNAi uses artificially introduced dsRNAs, while microRNAs are naturally occurring.

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    Why is RNAi useful for research?

    RNAi allows researchers to study gene function by specifically knocking down genes in various organisms. This helps understand gene function and impacts on phenotypes.

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    What are the limitations of RNAi?

    RNAi can have variable effects, sometimes not completely mirroring a gene knockout, and off-target effects where other genes with similar sequences are silenced.

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    What is gene expression regulation?

    The control of which genes are turned on or off in a cell, determining the proteins produced and the cell's functions.

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    Why is gene expression regulation important?

    Gene expression regulation ensures cells produce the right proteins at the right time and in the right amounts, allowing for cell specialization and proper functioning.

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    Tumor suppressor gene mutation

    An error in a gene that helps control cell growth, causing it to lose its ability to stop uncontrolled cell division.

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    Recessive mutation

    A mutation that only affects a cell when both copies of the gene are faulty. A single good copy is usually enough for normal function.

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    Somatic mutation

    A genetic change that occurs in a regular body cell, not in the cells that produce eggs or sperm. These mutations can cause cancer, but can't be passed on to offspring.

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    Oncogenic mutation

    A mutation in a gene that promotes uncontrolled cell growth, leading to cancer. Often only one copy of the gene needs to be mutated to cause problems.

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    Germline mutation

    A mutation in the cells that produce eggs or sperm. These mutations are passed on to offspring. They can increase risk for cancer.

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    What is RNA expression analysis?

    A technique used to determine which genes are being transcribed in a specific tissue or cell type. It provides information about the expression levels of different genes and their potential role in the cell.

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    How does RT-PCR work?

    RT-PCR uses reverse transcriptase (RT) to convert RNA into cDNA, which is then amplified using PCR. This allows measuring gene expression levels, detecting splicing variants, and comparing expression between different samples.

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    What is the function of In Situ Hybridization (ISH)?

    ISH allows visualization of specific RNA transcripts within a fixed tissue or embryo. It helps determine the location and distribution of a particular gene's expression within a cell or tissue.

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    How does In Situ Hybridization (ISH) work?

    A labeled probe complementary to the target RNA is synthesized and hybridized to the fixed tissue. The probe is detected using antibodies against the label, producing a color change at the site of hybridization.

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    What is RNA sequencing (RNA-seq)?

    RNA-seq is a high-throughput sequencing technique that analyzes all the RNA transcripts present in a sample. It provides a comprehensive profile of gene expression, including identification of novel transcripts and splicing variants.

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    How does RNA sequencing (RNA-seq) work?

    RNA is extracted from tissue, converted to cDNA, and sequenced using NGS technology. The sequenced reads are then aligned to the genome, allowing quantification of transcript abundance and identification of transcript isoforms.

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    What are some applications of RNA expression analysis?

    RNA expression analysis tools like RT-PCR, ISH, and RNA-seq are used to study gene expression in various contexts, including developmental biology, disease diagnosis, and drug discovery.

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    How does RNA expression help us understand diseases?

    By analyzing the expression of specific genes, researchers can identify potential disease biomarkers, understand disease mechanisms, and develop targeted therapies.

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    What is the G1-to-S checkpoint?

    The G1-to-S checkpoint is a control point in the cell cycle that decides if a cell should commit to DNA replication and enter the S phase. It ensures that the cell has grown adequately and that its DNA is undamaged before proceeding.

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    What is p53's role in cell cycle control?

    p53 is a tumor suppressor protein that acts as a guardian of the genome. It detects DNA damage and, if necessary, arrests the cell cycle at the G1-to-S checkpoint, allowing time for DNA repair. If the damage is too severe, p53 can trigger apoptosis, programmed cell death.

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    How does p53 arrest the cell cycle?

    p53 induces the production of p21, a protein that inhibits the activity of CDK4-cyclinD complexes. This prevents the phosphorylation of Rb, a key protein for cell cycle progression. Unphosphorylated Rb blocks E2F, a transcription factor needed for S phase entry.

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    What happens with mutations in TP53?

    Mutations in both copies of TP53, the gene that encodes p53, can lead to a loss of its tumor suppressor function. This allows cells with damaged DNA to bypass the G1-to-S checkpoint and continue dividing, increasing the risk of cancer development.

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    What are signaling pathways in cell growth?

    Signaling pathways are chains of events that relay information from outside the cell (e.g., hormones, growth factors) to the nucleus. This information can activate or deactivate genes that influence cell growth and the decision to enter the cell cycle.

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    Eyeless Gene

    A gene that acts as a master control for eye development in organisms. Its expression can lead to the formation of eyes in unexpected locations.

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    Transgenics (GMOs)

    Organisms that have been genetically modified to carry new genes, typically for desirable traits such as disease resistance or increased yield.

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    Human Proteins in E.coli

    Human proteins can be produced in bacteria like E.coli but require specific elements like a promoter and ribosome binding site for expression.

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    Human Proteins in Farm Animals

    Some human proteins need post-translational modifications that bacteria can't provide. This is often done by introducing the gene into a farm animal for milk production.

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    Glyphosate Resistance

    Transgenic crops can be engineered to contain a bacterial gene that provides resistance to the herbicide glyphosate.

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    GMOs: Advantages

    Genetically modified organisms can offer several benefits such as enhanced disease resistance, increased yield, longer shelf-life, and reduced reliance on pesticides.

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    GMOs: Controversy

    While GMOs offer potential benefits, concerns exist regarding their safety, environmental impact, and potential for unintended consequences.

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    Study Notes

    Bacterial and Organellar Genetics

    • Tree of Life includes Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. Archaea domain is missing from the diagram provided.
    • Eukaryotes have multiple, paired, linear chromosomes (in diploids).
    • Bacteria have single, circular chromosomes.
    • Eukaryotes have two copies of each gene (in diploids); Bacteria have one copy per gene.
    • Recombination in eukaryotes includes sex, meiosis, segregation, independent assortment, and crossing over. Bacterial recombination includes conjugation, transformation, and transduction.
    • Bacteria are highly variable in size, structure, habitat, and metabolism.
    • Bacterial chromosomes differ from eukaryotic chromosomes in several aspects, including DNA location, lack of membrane-bound organelles, and DNA tertiary structure.
    • Recombination, concept of “species” is more vague for bacteria, individuals may show high variability in genes.
    • Bacteria, as a common ancestor with eukaryotes, share some characteristics for DNA technology, but detail differences exist.
    • Escherichia coli is used as a standard bacterium in lab studies, found normally in mammals and birds; also, usually harmless but some pathogenic strains exist.
    • Bacteria can be grown in liquid culture or on agar plates.
    • Biofilms are groups of microorganisms that adhere to a surface and reside in a secreted matrix.

    Conjugation

    • Bacteria transfer genetic material through cell-to-cell contact.
    • F+ strains act as donors, and F– strains act as recipients, they contain the F-factor plasmid (a minichromosome) that replicates independently of the main chromosome.
    • Plasmids may contain genes for resistance to antibiotics.
    • F+ can only transfer the F plasmid to a recipient F- cell.
    • Hfr strains have the F factor integrated into the main bacterial chromosome, allowing for the transfer of host chromosomal genes to the recipient.

    Transduction

    • Accidental transfer of genetic material occurs when a bacteriophage incorporates bacterial DNA into its phage capsid.
    • Genes are located closer together that are more likely to be co-transduced.
    • Cotransduction frequency = (# of transducing phage containing both genes) / (# of transducing phage containing one gene)
    • d = distance between two genes; L = size of the chromosome piece in minutes.

    Transformation

    • Bacteria pick up free DNA from the environment (not via physical contact).
    • Recombinant bacterial colonies can be selected on media.
    • The presence of a marker gene can help identify cells that have been transformed.

    Auxotrophs

    • Auxotrophs: cannot grow in the absence of a specific chemical substance required for their growth. Specifically refers to carbon source mutants.
    • Often involve sugars.

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