Pharm I: Infectious Diseases
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Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Empiric therapy?

  • Antibiotic selection based on knowledge of typical pathogens
  • May involve combination therapy to target most common pathogens
  • Therapy started before culture results are available
  • Always involves monotherapy with a narrow-spectrum antibiotic (correct)
  • Which bacterial genus is a Gram-positive cocci and is commonly associated with skin infections?

  • Clostridium
  • Corynebacterium
  • Streptococcus
  • Staphylococcus (correct)
  • Which bacterial genus is a Gram-positive rod that is commonly associated with food poisoning and can be a serious concern for pregnant women?

  • Corynebacterium
  • Listeria (correct)
  • Clostridium
  • Enterococcus
  • Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Definitive therapy?

    <p>Always involves combination therapy with broad-spectrum antibiotics (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately describes the differences between Gram stain and bacterial culture?

    <p>Bacterial culture is more time-consuming, but provides definitive identification of the organism while Gram stain only indicates the presence of bacteria (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an atypical bacteria that is NOT a spirochete?

    <p>Mycoplasma (B), Legionella (C), Mycobacterium (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is TRUE about the use of antibiotics?

    <p>The overuse and misuse of antibiotics can contribute to the development of antibiotic resistance. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What makes the treatment of fungal infections challenging?

    <p>All of the above. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why are many antifungal drugs designed to slow the growth of the fungus rather than killing it?

    <p>Slowing growth allows the host's immune system to effectively combat the infection. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT an opportunistic fungal infection?

    <p>Histoplasmosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of ergosterol?

    <p>It is essential for the synthesis of DNA and RNA in fungi. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following bacterial species is typically associated with urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

    <p>Escherichia coli (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a commensal fungal species that is part of the normal flora of humans?

    <p>Candida albicans (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to be bactericidal?

    <p>Vancomycin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following antibiotic classes is known to be effective against a broad spectrum of bacteria, including Gram-positive, Gram-negative, and atypical organisms?

    <p>Fluoroquinolones (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is TRUE about bacteriostatic antibiotics?

    <p>They prevent bacterial growth but do not eliminate existing bacteria. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which one of these bacterial species is known to be a nitrite reducer?

    <p>Salmonella enterica (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following antibiotics is a narrow-spectrum antibiotic?

    <p>Cefazolin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following bacterial species is considered a non-fermenter?

    <p>Pseudomonas aeruginosa (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements best describes a patient who should NOT receive a bacteriostatic antibiotic?

    <p>A patient with a severe infection and compromised immune system. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a key principle of effective antibiotic use?

    <p>Determining the patient's blood type for compatibility. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following antibiotic classes primarily targets bacterial protein synthesis?

    <p>Aminoglycosides (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following mechanisms of antibiotic resistance involves the alteration of the target site?

    <p>MRSA's alteration of the beta-lactam binding protein (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following antibiotic classes is commonly affected by reduced permeability in gram-negative bacteria?

    <p>Fluoroquinolones (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following mechanisms of antibiotic resistance is commonly associated with multidrug resistance (MDR) efflux pumps?

    <p>Efflux pump activity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following antibiotic classes is specifically mentioned as being resistant in cases of Rifampin resistance due to alterations in the binding site?

    <p>Rifampin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of antibiotic resistance discussed in the provided text?

    <p>Increased bacterial cell division rate (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a crucial step in the systematic approach to selection of antimicrobial agents?

    <p>Identification of the causative pathogen (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a common approach to guiding empiric antibiotic therapy?

    <p>Direct microscopic examination of the patient's blood (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a critical aspect of monitoring therapeutic response in patients receiving antimicrobial treatment?

    <p>Monitoring for signs of potential antibiotic resistance (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following mechanisms of antibiotic resistance is particularly common in gram-negative bacteria, especially Pseudomonas, and often affects beta-lactams, fluoroquinolones, and aminoglycosides?

    <p>Reduced permeability (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a consequence of Reverse Transcriptase's error-prone nature?

    <p>Increased efficiency of viral protein synthesis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary target of Antiretroviral Therapy (ART) in HIV patients?

    <p>Reverse Transcriptase (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately describes the function of Integrase?

    <p>Integrase integrates HIV DNA into the host cell's chromosome (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason why HIV cannot be cured with current treatments?

    <p>The integration of HIV DNA into the host cell's genome (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main reason why continuous ART is necessary for managing HIV?

    <p>To control viral load and prevent transmission (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a retrovirus?

    <p>Replication through a DNA intermediate (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a consequence of HIV's rapid mutation rate?

    <p>Inability to integrate viral DNA into the host genome (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the goal of achieving undetectable levels of HIV-RNA in patients undergoing ART?

    <p>Suppressing HIV replication to a point where it cannot harm the immune system (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it important to suppress HIV replication to maximal levels in patients receiving ART?

    <p>To minimize the risk of transmission to others (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which enzyme is NOT unique to retroviruses?

    <p>DNA Polymerase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of shock is characterized by a loss of vascular tone leading to vasodilation and hypoperfusion, despite a normal cardiac output?

    <p>Distributive/Vasodilatory Shock (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately describes the pathophysiology of Septic Shock?

    <p>Uncontrolled systemic inflammation triggered by infection causes vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, leading to tissue hypoperfusion despite normal cardiac output. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Septic Shock?

    <p>Reduced cardiac output due to decreased contractility of the heart muscle (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a key component of treatment for Sepsis?

    <p>Early recognition of the condition and initiation of appropriate interventions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason for the use of vasopressors in the treatment of Septic Shock?

    <p>To constrict blood vessels and increase blood pressure, restoring adequate tissue perfusion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a hallmark of a patient with Septic Shock who is receiving appropriate care?

    <p>Sustained improvement in blood pressure and tissue perfusion with adequate fluid resuscitation and vasopressor support (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a typical sign of tissue hypoperfusion in a patient with shock?

    <p>Increased urine output (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of the decreased venous return seen in Hypovolemic Shock?

    <p>Loss of fluid volume due to hemorrhage or dehydration (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following BEST summarizes the concept of 'The Tank is Empty' in the context of Hypovolemic Shock?

    <p>There is a lack of adequate fluid volume in the circulatory system, creating a shortage of blood to pump. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following antibiotic classes is primarily known for its bactericidal activity against a wide range of bacteria, including Gram-positive, Gram-negative, and atypical organisms?

    <p>Fluoroquinolones (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following scenarios would be LEAST appropriate for the use of a bacteriostatic antibiotic?

    <p>A patient with a compromised immune system suffering from a serious bacterial infection. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following groups of bacteria are commonly associated with urinary tract infections (UTIs) and are known as nitrite producers?

    <p>coli, Proteus, Klebsiella (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following antibiotic classes is known to be effective against a broad spectrum of bacteria, including Gram-positive, Gram-negative, and atypical organisms, making them useful for empiric therapy?

    <p>Fluoroquinolones (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of patient should not receive a bacteriostatic antibiotic?

    <p>A patient recovering from surgery with a compromised immune system (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes a non-fermenter bacteria, such as Pseudomonas, as it relates to its metabolic characteristics?

    <p>They lack the ability to use glucose as an energy source. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately describes a key principle of effective antibiotic use?

    <p>Understanding the causative organism and its susceptibility to the chosen antibiotic is crucial for effective treatment. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of action for Nucleotide Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NRTIs)?

    <p>Terminate DNA elongation by binding to Reverse Transcriptase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which class of antiretroviral drugs is particularly associated with increased risk of developing a rash that may lead to serious conditions like DRESS or SJS?

    <p>Non-nucleotide Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For patients with a CD4 count less than 200, what is the recommended first-line prophylactic therapy against Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP)?

    <p>Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common consequence when using Integrase Strand Transfer Inhibitors (InSTIs) and antacids together?

    <p>Decreased bioavailability of InSTIs (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a major limitation in the use of non-nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs) in HIV treatment?

    <p>High incidence of resistance development with any mutation that changes binding site (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a crucial safety concern associated with the use of Ganciclovir and Valganciclovir?

    <p>Myelosuppression and potential for infertility (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about Acyclovir is incorrect?

    <p>It becomes active outside cells infected with herpes virus. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism by which Remdesivir acts against viral infections?

    <p>Inhibiting RNA polymerase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For which patient population is Daily Suppressive Therapy for HSV most recommended?

    <p>Patients with frequent HSV outbreaks (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which class of antiviral drugs is primarily used to treat Cytomegalovirus infections?

    <p>Nucleoside Analogues (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common adverse effect of Remdesivir that requires monitoring during treatment?

    <p>Elevated liver function tests (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes Valacyclovir from Acyclovir?

    <p>Valacyclovir is a prodrug with better oral bioavailability (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a recommended treatment for COVID-19?

    <p>Probenecid (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why are Adamantanes not recommended for treating influenza?

    <p>They only work against Influenza A H1N1, which is now predominantly resistant. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of Reverse Transcriptase in the lifecycle of a retrovirus?

    <p>To convert RNA into DNA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What consequence does the poor fidelity of Reverse Transcriptase have on HIV?

    <p>It contributes to rapid mutation and drug resistance (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of Integrase in HIV infection?

    <p>To integrate viral DNA into the host cell's genome (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is ART (Antiretroviral Therapy) required to be taken continuously?

    <p>Because of the persistent latent infection established by Integrase (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the primary goals of ART in HIV patients?

    <p>Restore immune function and prevent transmission (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What challenge arises from the integration of HIV DNA into the host’s chromosome?

    <p>It creates a reservoir for latent infection (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what way does the retrovirus lifecycle differ from typical viral replication?

    <p>It uses RNA as a template to synthesize DNA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is primarily targeted by ART to reduce HIV replication?

    <p>Reverse Transcriptase enzyme (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What makes developing a vaccine against HIV particularly complicated?

    <p>The high mutation rate due to Reverse Transcriptase errors (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What percentage of people with HIV are estimated to be unaware of their infection?

    <p>13% (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Antimicrobial Therapy

    • Antibiotics are life-saving drugs.
    • Antibiotics only treat bacterial infections.
    • Many sore throats do not require an antibiotic.
    • Some ear infections do not require an antibiotic.
    • Green colored mucus is not a sign that an antibiotic is needed.
    • Risks exist when taking prescription drugs.
    • Consult a clinician about safe antibiotic use.

    Some Semantics

    • Antibiotics inhibit or kill pathogens.
    • Antibacterial drugs target bacteria.
    • Antifungal drugs target fungi.
    • Antiviral drugs target viruses.

    Empiric Therapy

    • Empiric therapy is the common use of antibiotics in clinical medicine.
    • Therapy is started before culture and sensitivity results are known.
    • Antibiotic selection is based on typical pathogens associated with an infection.
    • Definitive identification of a causative organism takes up to 48 hours.
    • Delay in treatment can be harmful.
    • Combination therapy is sometimes used.
    • Broader spectrum antibiotics are often used.

    Definitive Therapy

    • Definitive therapy is tailored to culture and sensitivity results.
    • The provider knows exactly which antibiotics will work.
    • Adjustments to empiric therapy may be needed.
    • Monotherapy is preferred.
    • Narrow spectrum antibiotics are preferred to reduce drug resistance.

    Gram Stain vs. Bacterial Culture

    • Gram stain indicates the possible bacterial cause of an illness.
    • It differentiates bacteria based on cell wall characteristics.
    • Gram stain results are quicker than bacterial culture results.
    • Bacterial culture can take 24-48 hours.
    • Culture results allow for targeted therapy against the specific organism.

    Bacteria Review

    • Gram-positive bacteria are one type of bacteria.
    • Gram-negative bacteria are another type of bacteria.
    • Atypical bacteria include Spirochetes, Rickettsia, Mycobacteria, Mycoplasma, and Legionella.

    Gram-Positive Cocci

    • Staphylococcus aureus
    • Staphylococcus epidermis
    • Streptococcus pneumonia
    • Streptococcus pyogenes (GAS)
    • Streptococcus agalactiae (GBS)
    • Enterococci
    • E. faecalis

    Gram-Positive Rods

    • Clostridia
    • C. tetani
    • C. botulinum
    • C. difficile
    • Corynebacterium
    • C. diphtheria
    • Listeria
    • L. monocytogenes

    Gram-Negative Bacteria

    • Enterobacteriaceae
    • E. coli
    • Proteus
    • Klebsiella
    • Shigella
    • Salmonella
    • Yersinia
    • Citrobacter
    • UTI
    • Pneumonia
    • Diarrhea
    • Sepsis
    • Nitrite producers
    • Non-fermenters
    • Moraxella
    • Pseudomonas
    • Antibiotic resistance
    • Neisseria
    • Chlamydia
    • Haemophilus
    • H. pylori

    Gram Positive vs. Gram Negative

    • Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer.
    • Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer.

    Bactericidal vs. Bacteriostatic

    • Bactericidal drugs kill bacteria.
    • Bacteriostatic drugs prevent bacteria from growing and reproducing.
    • Penicillins, Cephalosporins, Aminoglycosides, Vancomycin, Fluoroquinolones, and Metronidazole are bactericidal drugs.
    • Bactericidal drugs frequently interrupt cell wall or DNA synthesis.
    • Chloramphenicol, Erythromycin, Clindamycin, Sulfonamides, Trimethoprim, and Tetracyclines are bacteriostatic.

    Mnemonic

    • ECSTaTiC – refers to bacteriostatic drugs
    • Very ProFicient At Complete Cell Murder – refers to bacteriocidal drugs

    Spectrum of Activity

    • Broad spectrum covers a wide range of bacteria (gram +, gram-, and atypicals).
    • This is good for empiric therapy, but increases infections and resistance.
    • Narrow spectrum is preferred when the causative organism is known.
    • It reduces resistance and superinfections, and is targeted therapy.

    Keys to Effective Antibiotic Use

    • Identify the organism causing the disease.
    • Confirm if the drug is effective against the organism.
    • Evaluate if there are any risks to the patient.
    • Confirm the drug can reach the site of infection in the body.
    • Assess if the drug stays in the body long enough for effectiveness.

    Antibiotic Targets

    • Cell wall synthesis, Folate synthesis, Nucleic acid synthesis, Cell membrane, Protein synthesis.

    Mechanisms of Antibiotic Resistance

    • Enzymatic or metabolic inactivation.
    • Alteration of target site
    • Efflux pumps
    • Reduced permeability
    • Alteration of metabolic pathways
    • Biofilms formation
    • Horizontal Gene Transfer

    How Antibiotic Resistance Happens

    • Resistant germs exist and when antibiotics kill pathogens, they also kill beneficial bacteria in the body, weakening the body's ability to resist infection.
    • Antibiotic-resistant bacteria increase and take over.
    • Resistant bacteria can spread that resistance to other bacteria, creating further issues.

    Other sections (as provided in the prompt)

    • All the other sections (MRSA, Pseudomonas, EMRA Antibiotic Guide...etc) are here with the provided information.
    • Note:* There was no new information provided about these sections to add more details.

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    Description

    Test your knowledge on microbiology with this quiz focusing on empirical and definitive therapy, characteristics of various bacteria, and antifungal treatments. Each question challenges your understanding of pathogens, their classifications, and treatment complexities.

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