Microbial Classification and Bacterial Morphology

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following antibacterial agents specifically inhibits the enzyme DNA gyrase?

  • Trimethoprim
  • Nitrofurantoin
  • Rifampicin
  • Quinolones (correct)

Which compound serves as a precursor for folic acid synthesis and is essential for nucleic acid synthesis?

  • Acetyl-CoA
  • Nitrofurantoin
  • Para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) (correct)
  • Dihydrofolic acid

What is the primary purpose of antimicrobial prophylaxis?

  • To cure ongoing infections
  • To treat symptoms of infection
  • To prevent infection before symptoms appear (correct)
  • To enhance immune response after infection

Which of the following mechanisms leads to the production of enzymes that can deactivate antibiotics like penicillin?

<p>Inactivating enzyme production (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For which group of patients is prophylactic antibiotics recommended before dental or surgical treatment to prevent infective endocarditis?

<p>Patients with heart diseases (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of sulfonamides in relation to folic acid synthesis in microbial cells?

<p>They compete with PABA for an enzyme involved in folic acid synthesis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of antimicrobial resistance, which of the following statements is true?

<p>Resistance often results from the presence of inactivating enzymes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of pathogen prophylaxis is specifically indicated for patients with chronic respiratory diseases?

<p>Prophylaxis against infections during surgery (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about facultative anaerobes is accurate?

<p>They can grow in both the presence and absence of oxygen. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes microaerophilic bacteria from other types?

<p>They need only a very small concentration of oxygen. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following correctly defines the nature of endotoxins?

<p>Endotoxins are released when the bacterial cell disintegrates. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic about bacterial pigments is true?

<p>Both pigments support bacterial respiration. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the optimal temperature range for the growth of many bacteria?

<p>37 °C is often the optimal temperature. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one way in which microorganisms can alter their enzyme function to resist drugs?

<p>By developing an enzyme that functions independently of the drug (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which advantage is associated with the use of antimicrobial combinations?

<p>Effective treatment of severe mixed infections (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What mechanism describes the sequential blocking of a microbial pathway through drug combinations?

<p>Synergistic inhibition (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a disadvantage of using combination antimicrobial therapy?

<p>Increased risk of drug interactions (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what way can a microorganism alter its target to withstand the effects of a drug?

<p>By changing the structure of the target receptor (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can the combination of amoxicillin with clavulanic acid enhance the effectiveness of treatment?

<p>By inhibiting enzymes that destroy amoxicillin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately describes the term 'normal flora'?

<p>Microorganisms that have a symbiotic relationship with the host (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is a common characteristic of zoonotic infections?

<p>They can be transmitted from animals to humans and vice versa (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do microorganisms develop altered metabolic pathways to resist drug action?

<p>By utilizing alternative substrates that bypass drug inhibition (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about broad-spectrum antibiotics is correct?

<p>They can impact both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary mode of action for penicillin and cephalosporins?

<p>Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is primarily used against gram-positive cocci such as staphylococci?

<p>Vancomycin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which class of antimicrobials targets the bacterial ribosome without harming human cells?

<p>Aminoglycosides (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What makes polymyxins highly toxic as antimicrobial agents?

<p>Their narrow margin of selective toxicity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes an ideal antimicrobial agent?

<p>It should have selective toxicity for microorganisms only. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanism does chloramphenicol primarily utilize to inhibit bacterial growth?

<p>Inhibition of protein synthesis on the 50S ribosomal subunit. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following antibiotics acts on the 30S subunit of bacterial ribosomes?

<p>Tetracycline (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes narrow-spectrum antibiotics from broad-spectrum ones?

<p>They are effective against either gram-positive or gram-negative bacteria only. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is true about ribosomal differences between bacteria and humans?

<p>Bacteria have 70S ribosomes, whereas human cells have 80S ribosomes. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary pathway of exit for pathogens through respiratory discharges?

<p>As mucus droplets in the air (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which form of host-parasite interaction results in tissue invasion but shows no clinical signs of disease?

<p>Infection (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors does NOT relate to the host's response to infections?

<p>Virulence (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic of antiphagocytic factors in pathogenic bacteria?

<p>They enable bacteria to evade the host's immune cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do bactericidal drugs primarily function against bacteria?

<p>By disrupting cell wall integrity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of bacterial virulence factor specifically aids in adhesion to host tissues?

<p>Bacterial adhesins (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the difference between bactericidal and bacteriostatic drugs?

<p>Bactericidal drugs kill bacteria rapidly, whereas bacteriostatic drugs inhibit their multiplication. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In zoonotic infections, which of the following is true?

<p>They involve microorganisms that can be transmitted between animals and humans. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of bacterial virulence factors?

<p>Activation of host defenses (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What term describes an interaction between a host and pathogen where the pathogen multiplies without producing symptoms?

<p>Subclinical infection (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary component responsible for the rigidity of a bacterial cell wall?

<p>Peptidoglycan (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic distinguishes Gram-positive bacteria from Gram-negative bacteria?

<p>Thick peptidoglycan layer (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does lipopolysaccharide play in Gram-negative bacteria?

<p>Major surface antigen (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of bacterial cell can survive without a cell wall?

<p>Mycoplasma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to bacteria classified as L forms under specific conditions?

<p>They can revert to their normal form without inhibitors. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The presence of which acid is a characteristic feature of Gram-positive bacteria?

<p>Teichoic acid (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately describes Lipid A?

<p>An important surface antigen in Gram-negative bacteria. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following agents disrupts RNA synthesis by interacting with RNA polymerase?

<p>Rifampicin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of competitive inhibition, how do sulphonamides function as chemotherapeutic agents?

<p>By binding to the active site of the enzyme involved in folic acid synthesis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary benefit of antimicrobial prophylaxis in surgical and dental procedures?

<p>To prevent infections in high-risk patients (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanism allows bacteria to develop resistance by producing enzymes that can deactivate beta-lactam antibiotics?

<p>Inactivating enzyme production (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For which type of patients is prophylactic antibiotic treatment indicated to prevent rheumatic fever?

<p>Patients with heart disease (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic of facultative anaerobic bacteria?

<p>They can grow in both the presence and absence of oxygen. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best describes the growth requirement of microaerophilic bacteria?

<p>They require a moderate concentration of oxygen, less than atmospheric levels. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main feature distinguishing exotoxins from endotoxins?

<p>Exotoxins are proteins, whereas endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the optimal temperature for bacterial growth according to the content provided?

<p>37 °C (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant danger posed by carriers of infectious diseases?

<p>They do not show signs of infection yet spread the disease. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about bacterial pigments is true?

<p>Exopigments affect the coloration of both the bacteria and the surrounding medium. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of transmission occurs when pathogens are spread through large respiratory droplets?

<p>Direct transmission (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In terms of metabolic activity, which concentration of carbon dioxide can enhance the growth of some bacteria?

<p>10% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which portal of entry would be least likely for pathogens entering the body?

<p>Musculoskeletal tract (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of bacterial toxin is released only when the bacterial cell breaks down?

<p>Endotoxin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which organism's change in habitat can lead to urinary tract infections?

<p>Escherichia coli (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the role of bacterial pigments?

<p>They contribute to metabolic processes and can influence respiration. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what context does endocarditis typically occur following a dental procedure?

<p>When normal flora enters the bloodstream (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a minimum temperature of 10 °C indicate about bacterial growth?

<p>Bacteria cannot grow below this temperature. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic defines a zoonotic infection?

<p>It involves the transmission of microbes from animals to humans. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary factor that differentiates symptomatic disease from asymptomatic infection?

<p>The presence of clinical signs and symptoms (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is true regarding direct transmission mechanisms?

<p>It can include respiratory droplets and fecal-oral routes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can pathogenic bacteria multiply within a host after entering through a cut or burn?

<p>Locally or spread systemically through tissues and blood (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common source of infection?

<p>Sterile surgical instruments (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of broad-spectrum antibiotics?

<p>They exhibit activity against several types of microorganisms, both gram positive and gram negative. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following antibiotics primarily interferes with bacterial cell wall synthesis?

<p>Vancomycin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are polymyxins considered to be highly toxic?

<p>They disrupt the bacterial cytoplasmic membrane, affecting cellular integrity. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanism enables certain antibiotics to selectively inhibit bacterial protein synthesis?

<p>They exploit differences in bacterial and human ribosomal structures. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What describes the action of bacteriostatic drugs?

<p>They inhibit the growth and reproduction of bacteria. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary action of tetracyclines as antibiotics?

<p>Interference with bacterial protein synthesis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which class of antimicrobials primarily acts on the 50S subunit of bacterial ribosomes?

<p>Chloramphenicol (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of selective toxicity in antimicrobial agents?

<p>It allows for killing harmful bacteria without harming host cells. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following antibiotics has a narrow spectrum of activity?

<p>Vancomycin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following correctly describes a major failure of antimicrobial therapy?

<p>Bacteria can regrow when the drug is discontinued. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Quinolones' effect on DNA synthesis

Quinolones inhibit DNA synthesis by blocking DNA gyrase, a bacterial enzyme.

Nitrofurantoin's mechanism

Nitrofurantoin damages bacterial DNA.

Rifampicin's function

Rifampicin inhibits RNA synthesis by binding to RNA polymerase in bacteria.

Competitive inhibition

A type of inhibition where a drug competes with an essential metabolite for the same enzyme.

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Sulphonamides and folic acid synthesis

Sulphonamides are similar to PABA (an essential metabolite for folic acid synthesis) creating a competitive inhibition.

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Trimethoprim's action

Trimethoprim inhibits an enzyme (dihydrofolic acid reductase) crucial for bacterial nucleotide synthesis.

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Antimicrobial prophylaxis

Using antibiotics before expected infection to lower infection risk.

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Antibiotic resistance mechanism (inactivation)

Bacteria produce enzymes that break down/inactivate antibiotics (like penicillinases).

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Selective Toxicity

An ideal antimicrobial agent should kill or inhibit the growth of a microorganism without harming the host's cells.

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Bacterial Cell Wall Inhibition

Antibiotics like penicillin, cephalosporins, and vancomycin interfere with cell wall synthesis by inhibiting peptidoglycan production.

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β-lactams' Action

Penicillin and cephalosporins (β-lactams) block the formation of peptidoglycan, a key component of the bacterial cell wall.

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Cytoplasmic Membrane Disruption

Polymyxins, amphotericin B, and nystatin disrupt bacterial cell membranes, leading to leakage of essential components and cell death.

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Protein Synthesis Inhibition

Many drugs inhibit protein synthesis in bacteria by targeting their ribosomes, which are different from human ribosomes.

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70S Ribosomes

Bacteria have 70S ribosomes (with 50S and 30S subunits), making them different from human cells which have 80S ribosomes.

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Chloramphenicol, Erythromycin's Action

These drugs inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by targeting the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome.

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Tetracycline's Action

Tetracycline inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by targeting the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome.

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Broad-Spectrum Antibiotics

Active against a wide range of microorganisms, both gram-positive and gram-negative, e.g., tetracyclines, chloramphenicol, and ampicillin.

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Narrow-Spectrum Antibiotics

Active against one or a very few types of microorganisms, e.g., vancomycin against specific gram-positive cocci.

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Drug Resistance

Microorganisms develop mechanisms to resist the effects of antibiotics, like altering their permeability to the drug, target sites, or metabolic pathways.

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Altered Target Site

Microorganisms modify the structure of the target site where the antibiotic binds, preventing it from working effectively.

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Antimicrobial Combinations: Advantages

Using multiple antibiotics together offers benefits like treating severe infections, mixed infections, chronic conditions, and delaying drug resistance.

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Antimicrobial Combinations: Disadvantages

Combining antibiotics has drawbacks such as increased cost, side effects, drug interactions, and potential for superinfections.

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Drug Synergism

The combined effect of two drugs is greater than the sum of their individual effects.

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Sequential Block

Two drugs work in a sequence, blocking different points in a metabolic pathway.

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Enhanced Uptake

One drug helps the other drug enter the bacteria more effectively.

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Inhibition of Drug Destruction

One drug prevents bacterial enzymes from breaking down the other drug, making it last longer.

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Normal Flora of the Body

Microorganisms that live naturally in and on our bodies, usually without causing harm.

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Symbiosis

The close and often long-term interaction between two different organisms.

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Facultative Anaerobic

Organisms that can grow both in the presence and absence of oxygen.

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Microaerophilic

Organisms that require a low concentration of oxygen for growth.

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Endopigment

Pigments produced by bacteria and localized within the cell.

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Exopigment

Pigments produced by bacteria and released outside the cell.

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Bacterial Toxins

Harmful substances produced by bacteria that can cause disease.

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Portal of Exit

The way a pathogen leaves an infected host. Examples include urine, feces, respiratory secretions, blood, and genital discharges.

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Colonization

A relationship where a pathogen lives in a host without causing harm or symptoms. Example: Commensal bacteria in the mouth.

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Infection

A relationship where a pathogen invades host tissues, elicits an immune response, but causes minimal damage and no noticeable symptoms.

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Infectious Disease

A relationship where a pathogen invades host tissues, triggers the immune system, and causes significant damage, resulting in observable symptoms.

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Carrier

An individual who harbors a pathogen, multiplies it, but shows no outward symptoms. They can still transmit the pathogen.

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Pathogenicity

The ability of a microorganism to cause disease.

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Virulence

The degree of pathogenicity; how easily and effectively a microorganism can cause disease.

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Adhesins

Specific surface structures on bacteria that help them attach to host cells.

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Collagenase

An enzyme produced by some pathogens that breaks down collagen, a protein found in tissues.

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Antimicrobial Chemotherapy

Using drugs to target and eliminate microorganisms without harming the host.

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Carbon Dioxide Requirements

Most bacteria grow well in normal atmospheric CO2 levels, but some require higher concentrations for optimal growth. This is important for their metabolic processes.

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What is the minimum, optimal, and maximum temperature for bacterial growth?

Every bacterial species has a characteristic range of temperatures for growth. The minimum temperature is the lowest at which growth occurs, the maximum is the highest, and the optimal temperature is the one at which growth is most rapid.

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Bacterial Pigments

Some bacteria produce pigments that give them their characteristic color. These pigments can be located inside the cell (endopigment) or released outside (exopigment).

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What's the difference between exotoxins and endotoxins?

Exotoxins are proteins released by bacteria that can cause disease. Endotoxins are components of the bacterial cell wall that are released when the bacteria dies.

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What is a carrier?

A person who harbors a pathogenic organism and can spread it to others, but shows no symptoms themselves.

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Exotoxins

Proteins released by bacteria that can cause disease. They're often highly specific in their effects and can be very potent.

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Endotoxins

Components of the bacterial cell wall that are released when the bacteria dies. These are typically lipopolysaccharides and can cause severe symptoms.

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Direct Transmission

The spread of infection through direct contact, such as touching, kissing, or sexual intercourse.

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Airborne Transmission

The spread of infection through tiny particles suspended in the air

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What is a zoonotic infection?

An infection that is spread from a vertebrate animal to a human.

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What are portals of entry?

The ways in which pathogens enter the body.

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What is an opportunistic pathogen?

Organism that only causes disease when the host's immune system is weakened.

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Fecal-oral spread

Transmission of disease through contact with infected feces and then with the mouth.

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Pathogenic Organism

A microbe capable of causing disease in a healthy individual with intact immune defenses.

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What is infection?

The multiplication of an infectious agent within the body, which may or may not cause symptoms.

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Disease

The development of signs and symptoms due to a sufficient amount of damage caused by a pathogen.

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DNA Gyrase Inhibitor

Quinolones are antibiotics that block DNA gyrase, an enzyme essential for bacterial DNA replication. This prevents the bacteria from making copies of their genetic material and ultimately leads to their death.

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RNA Polymerase Inhibition

Rifampicin is an antibiotic that binds to RNA polymerase, the enzyme responsible for making RNA from DNA. This prevents bacteria from transcribing their genetic code and ultimately stops protein synthesis, leading to their death.

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Folic Acid Synthesis Inhibition

Sulphonamides and trimethoprim are antibiotics that interfere with folic acid synthesis in bacteria. Folic acid is necessary for the production of essential molecules like DNA and RNA.

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What is antimicrobial prophylaxis?

Antimicrobial prophylaxis refers to using antibiotics before a potential infection to reduce the risk of getting sick. This approach is taken when an individual is at risk of developing an infection, such as before surgical procedures.

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How do bacteria develop resistance?

Bacteria can develop resistance against antibiotics by producing enzymes that inactivate the antibiotic. For example, bacteria can produce penicillinases, which break down penicillin.

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Peptidoglycan layer

A rigid layer found in bacterial cell walls, primarily composed of sugars and amino acids. It provides structural support and maintains the shape of the cell.

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Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

A complex molecule found in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria, also known as endotoxin. It plays a role in the bacteria's structure and can trigger immune responses.

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Gram-positive vs Gram-negative

Two distinct types of bacteria categorized by their cell wall structure. Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer, while Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer and an outer membrane.

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Teichoic acid

A negatively-charged polymer found in the cell walls of Gram-positive bacteria. It plays a role in structural integrity and can act as an antigen.

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Outer membrane

A protective barrier found outside the peptidoglycan layer in Gram-negative bacteria. It contains lipopolysaccharide (LPS) and other components.

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Cell wall function

The bacterial cell wall plays a vital role in maintaining the cell's shape, protecting it from osmotic pressure, differentiating Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, and providing surface antigens.

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Mycoplasma

Bacteria that lack a cell wall, making them resistant to antibiotics that target cell wall synthesis and unable to be stained by Gram stain. They are polymorphic and can be difficult to treat.

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Study Notes

Microbial Classification

  • Microorganisms are divided into eukaryotes (containing a membrane-bound nucleus) and prokaryotes (lacking a nuclear membrane).
  • Eukaryotic cells have a true nucleus, a nucleolus, and a nuclear membrane. Their chromosomes are more than one, and their cytoplasm contains sterols. Ribosomes are 80S, and they reproduce by mitosis (e.g., fungi).
  • Prokaryotic cells lack a nucleus and a nuclear membrane. They have one chromosome, lack sterols in their cytoplasm, and have 70S ribosomes. Reproduction occurs via binary fission (e.g., bacteria and rickettsia).

Bacterial Morphology

  • Bacteria are small, unicellular prokaryotes with rigid cell walls. They multiply via binary fission.
  • Gram staining divides bacteria into two groups based on how they react to the staining process.
    • Gram-positive bacteria retain the primary stain.
    • Gram-negative bacteria lose the primary stain and take the counterstain (red).
  • Cell wall structure.
    • Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer (50-60% of the cell wall thickness), and teichoic acids.
    • Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer (5-10% of the cell wall thickness) and an outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharides.
  • Other components:
    • Lipoproteins
    • Outer membrane
    • Polysaccharide O antigen (part of LPS, Lipid A)
    • Periplasmic space

Function of the Bacterial Cell Wall

  • Cell wall preservation and osmotic sensitivity.
  • Gram-positive/negative staining reaction differentiation
  • Antigenicity.
  • Toxicity (Gram-negative endotoxin).
  • Targeting for antibiotics.

Bacterial Cell Components

  • Cytoplasmic membrane: Semi-permeable double layer composed of phospholipids and proteins.
    • Selective permeability and transport
    • Energy production (respiration)
    • Excretion of enzymes and toxins
    • Synthesis of cell wall components
  • Mesosomes: Infoldings of the cytoplasmic membrane, involved in cell division, protein secretion, and respiration.

Cytoplasmic Components, Extracellular Structures, and Appendages

  • Nucleoid: DNA concentrated in cytoplasm, no nucleus or nucleolus.
  • Plasmid: Extra-chromosomal DNA, replicates independently.
  • Ribosomes (70S): Involved in protein synthesis
  • Capsule: Covering made of polysaccharide or polypeptide; protects against phagocytosis, aids in adherence, and may be used in vaccines.
  • Flagella: Filamentous appendages composed of flagellin; responsible for bacterial motility.
  • Pili (fimbriae): Short, hair-like appendages important for attachment and adherence. Some are virulence factors and can be used as an aid to identification.

Bacterial Growth and Reproduction

  • Bacteria multiply by binary fission.
  • Steps in bacterial growth:
    • Lag phase: preparing for division
    • Log phase: rapid growth
    • Stationary phase: growth rate stabilizes
    • Death phase: death rate increases
  • Bacterial growth requirements:
    • Nutritional: Autotrophs use inorganic carbon, heterotrophs use organic carbon.
    • Gaseous: Anaerobes, aerobes: depending on oxygen needs, microaerophiles.

Bacterial Toxins

  • Exotoxins: Diffusible proteins, highly toxic, specific, destroyed by heat
  • Endotoxins: Bound to the cell wall, less toxic, weak antigen, stable to heat
  • Both are involved in the pathogenesis of bacterial infections.
  • Bacterial growth requirements: Temperature, pH, and nutrients influence bacterial growth.

Antimicrobal Chemotherapy

  • Antimicrobial agents kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms.
  • Mechanism of action: inhibition of cell wall synthesis (penicillin), inhibition of protein synthesis (aminoglycosides), inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis (quinolones).

Resistance to Antimicrobial Agents

  • Bacteria can develop resistance to antimicrobial agents through: inactivation of the drug via enzymes, alteration of the target (receptor) for the drug, alteration of metabolic pathway of the drug, and alteration of the enzyme involved in the microbial metabolic pathway.

Pathogenicity of Bacterial Infections

  • Pathogenicity: ability to cause disease.
  • Virulence: degree of pathogenicity.
  • Saprophytic bacteria: thrive on dead tissue
  • Parasitic bacteria: live on/in host tissue; classified into:
    • Commensal: no harm to the host
    • Opportunistic: cause disease under certain conditions
    • Pathogenic: cause disease in a healthy host

Sources of Infections

  • Human: Patients and carriers
  • Animals: Zoonotic infections
  • Inanimate: Soil, water, air

Microbial Ecology of the Oral Cavity

  • Normal flora: Microbes living in harmony with the host.
    • Commensalism: one benefits, other is unharmed
    • Mutualism: both benefit
    • Parasitism: one benefits, other is harmed.
  • Benefits: vitamin synthesis, pathogen prevention, and immune stimulation.
  • Harmful effects: opportunistic pathogens, disease, and discomfort.

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