MICR 270 Module 4: Immune Defects Quiz
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Questions and Answers

What is the primary characteristic of B-cell deficiencies?

  • Dysfunctional B lymphocytes or decreased their prevalence (correct)
  • Decreased T lymphocyte function
  • Normal levels of immunoglobulins
  • Increased antibody production

    • At what age do symptoms of B-cell deficiencies typically first appear?

  • At 1-2 years
  • At birth
  • In early childhood
  • Around 7-9 months (correct)

    • Which lifestyle phase contributes to the onset of symptoms in B-cell deficiencies?

  • During pregnancy
  • Once the child begins eating solids
  • Post-weaning (correct)
  • During breastfeeding

    • What type of infections are patients with X-linked agammaglobulinemia (XLA) particularly susceptible to?

    <p>Bacterial infections</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why are males predominantly affected by X-linked agammaglobulinemia (XLA)?

    <p>It is X-linked and recessive</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of B lymphocytes in the immune system?

    <p>Producing large quantities of antibodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What remains normal in patients with XLA despite their B-cell deficiency?

    <p>Cell-mediated immune responses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most studied secondary immunodeficiency that affected over 35 million people?

    <p>Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary consequence of T-cell deficiencies in individuals?

    <p>Increased susceptibility to viral, protozoan, and fungal infections</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is commonly associated with DiGeorge Syndrome?

    <p>Absent or underdeveloped thymus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component of the complement system, when deficient, leads to the most severe symptoms?

    <p>C3</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Hereditary angioedema (HAE) primarily results from a deficiency in which of the following?

    <p>Regulators of C1 complement proteins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why do patients with T-cell deficiencies tend to show frequent infections starting at 3-4 months after birth?

    <p>Maternal antibodies are lost after that period</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of infections are patients with complement deficiencies particularly prone to?

    <p>Severe bacterial infections</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a common clinical manifestation of DiGeorge Syndrome?

    <p>Severe allergic reactions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Symptoms of hereditary angioedema include swelling in which areas?

    <p>Swelling of the face, lips, and larynx</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary characteristic of Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD)?

    <p>Defective phagocyte function leading to frequent infections.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which population is most affected by severe combined inherited immunodeficiency (SCID)?

    <p>Children within the first year of life.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What method did David Vetter require to avoid infections associated with SCID?

    <p>A sterile living environment.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which immune response is compromised in individuals with combined T- and B-cell deficiencies?

    <p>Both humoral and cell-mediated responses.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common outcome for patients with CGD?

    <p>Frequent and severe bacterial or fungal infections.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the tendency of the body in response to infections seen in CGD?

    <p>Formation of non-malignant granulomas.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of immune cells are dysfunctional in patients with SCID?

    <p>Both T-cells and B-cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why might mild diseases, like chickenpox, be life-threatening for those with combined T- and B-cell deficiencies?

    <p>They lack any immune defense against such pathogens.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the CD4+ T helper cell threshold that indicates a diagnosis of AIDS?

    <p>200 cells/m m3</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant consequence of untreated AIDS after diagnosis?

    <p>Patients become more susceptible to opportunistic infections.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does antiretroviral therapy (ART) play in HIV treatment?

    <p>It reduces the viral load but does not eradicate the virus.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How has the introduction of highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) impacted the progression of HIV to AIDS?

    <p>It has almost completely prevented HIV from progressing into AIDS.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the expected survival duration of untreated AIDS patients after diagnosis?

    <p>Approximately 3 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is combination retroviral therapy significant in HIV treatment?

    <p>It prevents drug resistance from rapidly mutating viruses.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement regarding the impact of ART in low- and middle-income countries is accurate?

    <p>700,000 lives were estimated saved due to ART availability in 2010.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to the CD4+ T helper cells during clinical latency in chronic HIV infection?

    <p>They become exhausted and depleted.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic clinical manifestation of a type III hypersensitivity reaction?

    <p>Delayed symptoms such as fever and generalized vasculitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What primarily mediates type IV hypersensitivity reactions?

    <p>CD8+ T-cells and macrophages</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main factor that causes symptoms to subside in serum sickness?

    <p>The total breakdown of the antigen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which blood type is considered a universal donor?

    <p>O negative</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can type III hypersensitivity reactions contribute to, aside from serum sickness?

    <p>Autoimmune diseases such as arthritis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the role of antitoxins?

    <p>They counteract toxins in the bloodstream</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of cell is NOT a key player in type IV hypersensitivity?

    <p>B Lymphocytes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How long can it take for symptoms of serum sickness to manifest after exposure?

    <p>Days to weeks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main histological finding in the biopsy of a patient with Crohn’s disease?

    <p>Severe infiltration of mucosa with mononuclear cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of hypersensitivity is associated with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?

    <p>Type IV hypersensitivity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the immune response associated with IBD, which type of T-cells are primarily activated?

    <p>Helper T-cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom of IBD as a result of the inflammatory response?

    <p>Blood in the stool</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What process causes the direct cellular damage in the bowel associated with IBD?

    <p>Activation of cytotoxic T-cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement is true regarding the role of immunoglobulins in IBD?

    <p>IBD does not involve immunoglobulins as it is cell-mediated.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The inflammation caused by IBD can lead to which of the following complications?

    <p>Abscess formation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the initial response of T-cells to exposure to an antigen in IBD?

    <p>Activation and subsequent cytokine release</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary clinical use of immunophilins like cyclosporine?

    <p>Prevention of organ rejection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common side effect associated with the use of cyclosporine?

    <p>Nephrotoxicity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which therapy is characterized as killing activated T-cells in a non-specific manner?

    <p>Lymphocyte-depleting therapy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following cytotoxic drugs is associated with significant nausea and vomiting as side effects?

    <p>Methotrexate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What potential effect does long-term use of corticosteroids like prednisone have on bone health?

    <p>Decreased bone density</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of immunosuppressive drugs, which drug is likely to cause hair loss as a side effect?

    <p>Methotrexate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which immunosuppressive drug is known for causing gastrointestinal side effects such as stomach ache and diarrhea?

    <p>Cyclophosphamide</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which class of immunosuppressive drugs is highlighted as acting specifically to block T-cell responses?

    <p>Immunophilins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes the clinical latency phase of chronic HIV infection?

    <p>Depletion of CD4+ T helper cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes AIDS from other stages of HIV infection?

    <p>CD4+ T helper cell level below 200 cells/m m3</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary difference between acquired and primary immunodeficiency diseases?

    <p>Acquired immunodeficiencies develop due to external factors.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic do all AIDS patients share regarding their immune system?

    <p>Breakdown of their immune system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant outcome of the introduction of highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)?

    <p>Decrease in AIDS-related mortality</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a notable clinical outcome of advanced AIDS infection?

    <p>Death from opportunistic infections</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical survival duration for untreated AIDS patients after diagnosis?

    <p>Approximately 3 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term best describes the collection of conditions related to weakened immune defenses in AIDS patients?

    <p>Opportunistic infections</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary action of antiretroviral therapy (ART) in the treatment of HIV?

    <p>Inhibits HIV from replicating</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is combination retroviral therapy important in HIV treatment?

    <p>It reduces the mutation rate of HIV</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is HIV primarily transmitted in many regions of the world?

    <p>Intimate contact or body fluids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately describes the term 'Secondary Immunodeficiency'?

    <p>It can result from an underlying infection.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What was the impact of antiretroviral therapy in low- and middle-income countries in 2010 according to WHO estimates?

    <p>700,000 lives were saved</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does HIV evade immune defenses as the infection progresses?

    <p>Through rapid mutation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant factor in the definition of AIDS?

    <p>It indicates the final stage following acute HIV infection.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What do encapsulated bacteria have in common that makes them unique?

    <p>They produce a polysaccharide capsule.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which characteristic distinguishes Crohn's disease from ulcerative colitis based on colonoscopic findings?

    <p>Multiple lacerations throughout the intestine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of hypersensitivity reaction is inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) classified as?

    <p>Type IV hypersensitivity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary immune mechanism leading to tissue damage in patients with IBD?

    <p>Cytotoxic damage mediated by activated T-cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What histological feature is observed in the mucosa of patients with Crohn's disease?

    <p>Presence of granulomas</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following cytokines is typically released by activated helper T-cells in IBD?

    <p>Tumor necrosis factor-alpha</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of IBD, which symptom is most directly linked to the inflammatory process?

    <p>Blood in the stool</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which mechanism do cytotoxic T-cells utilize to inflict damage during the immune response in IBD?

    <p>Release of perforin and granzymes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common misconception regarding the role of antibodies in inflammatory bowel disease?

    <p>Antibodies play a significant role in causing tissue damage in IBD</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is least likely to be directly associated with gastrointestinal infection?

    <p>Joint stiffness in multiple areas</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) indicate?

    <p>Presence of inflammation in the body</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test is specifically used to evaluate for the presence of parasites?

    <p>Ova/Parasite investigation and stool culture</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following examinations would be least likely to reveal any abnormalities in the given patient assessment?

    <p>Rectal examination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant characteristic of C-reactive protein levels?

    <p>It serves as a marker for inflammation in the body.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What could the presentation of three ulcers noted in the oral mucosa suggest?

    <p>An autoimmune disorder that affects mucous membranes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom would most likely suggest the progression of a chronic condition?

    <p>Ongoing relapsing pain episodes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the likely outcome of a complete blood count (CBC) in a patient with suspected systemic issues?

    <p>Detection of a wide range of disorders'</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What physiological changes occur in the airways during an asthma attack?

    <p>Airway contraction and inflammation of the walls</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of hypersensitivity is primarily involved in asthma?

    <p>Type I anaphylactic hypersensitivity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which immunoglobulin plays a critical role in the asthmatic reaction?

    <p>IgE</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs upon secondary exposure to an allergen in asthma patients?

    <p>Memory B-cells rapidly produce IgE antibodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary effect of mast cell degranulation in asthma?

    <p>Vasodilation and smooth muscle contraction leading to bronchoconstriction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cell type is primarily activated during allergic inflammation in asthma?

    <p>T-helper 2 cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which process is responsible for increased mucus secretion during asthma attacks?

    <p>Cross-linking of membrane-bound IgE on mast cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does inflammation develop during an allergic response such as asthma?

    <p>Via an interplay between immune cells and respiratory epithelium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the reason for the initial negative p 24/g p120 antibody/antigen HIV test result in David?

    <p>David had not produced a sufficient antibody response yet.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which immune cells primarily experience a decrease following HIV infection?

    <p>CD4+ helper T-cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs to HIV levels in David's blood after initial infection?

    <p>They increase significantly despite the immune response.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of immune response does David's body produce in reaction to HIV infection?

    <p>Both humoral and cell-mediated immune responses.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of HIV, which protein is NOT detected by the initial antibody/antigen test?

    <p>HIV RNA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which immune cell type is primarily targeted and replicated in by HIV?

    <p>Helper T-cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mode of HIV transmission in sub-Saharan Africa?

    <p>Heterosexual sex and vertical transmission</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant challenge for David's immune system in combating HIV?

    <p>The virus mutates rapidly, evading immune detection.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During which stage of HIV infection do CD4+ T cell levels experience an initial drastic decrease?

    <p>Acute infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens within the first few weeks of HIV infection regarding T-cells?

    <p>There is a temporary decline in CD4+ T-cell levels.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What remains detectable during the clinical latency stage of HIV infection?

    <p>Anti-HIV antibodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What causes the eventual ineffectiveness of the immune response against HIV over time?

    <p>The mutation of HIV antigens</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical duration within which flu-like symptoms appear post initial HIV exposure?

    <p>2 to 4 weeks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the immune response during the acute infection phase?

    <p>CD4+ T cells are targeted and depleted</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What significant outcome can occur if HIV infection goes untreated?

    <p>Immunosuppression and death</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What fundamental change occurs to the immune system over the course of HIV infection?

    <p>Consistent depletion of CD4+ T cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which immunosuppressive drug is primarily used to prevent rejection in organ transplantation?

    <p>Cyclosporine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a notable potential side effect associated with corticosteroids like prednisone?

    <p>Osteoporosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of therapy specifically kills activated T-cells without targeting them directly?

    <p>Lymphocyte-depleting Therapy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug is associated with the side effects of mouth sores, lung sores, and increased risk of skin infections?

    <p>Methotrexate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What mechanism do immunophilins, such as cyclosporine, use to inhibit T-cell responses?

    <p>Inhibit lymphocyte activation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which side effect is commonly associated with the use of cyclosporine?

    <p>Hirsutism</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Corticosteroids such as prednisone may lead to which condition due to their metabolic effects?

    <p>Insulin resistance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic side effect of cytotoxic drugs like cyclophosphamide?

    <p>Chills and dizziness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential consequence of immunosuppressive therapy concerning infections?

    <p>Increased risk of both latent and opportunistic infections</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which pathogen is commonly associated with latent infections in immunocompromised patients?

    <p>Cytomegalovirus (CMV)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic of opportunistic infections in patients on immunosuppressive therapy?

    <p>They can arise from both reactivation of existing pathogens and new infections</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following opportunistic infections is caused by a parasitic pathogen?

    <p>Toxoplasmosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which opportunistic infection primarily affects the respiratory system in immunosuppressed patients?

    <p>Tuberculosis (TB)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT typically classified as a latent infection?

    <p>Cryptococcus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mode of transmission for pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP)?

    <p>Airborne transmission from the environment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes latent infections?

    <p>Infections that remain dormant and asymptomatic in the host</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of immune response is most likely involved in John's wheezing episodes?

    <p>Type I hypersensitivity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is most likely associated with John's hypersensitivity condition?

    <p>Intermittent sneezing episodes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what age did John first experience wheezing that was preceded by a viral infection?

    <p>3 years old</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What medication is NOT mentioned as part of John's management plan for his symptoms?

    <p>Leukotriene receptor antagonist</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What could be a potential reason for John not responding effectively to his albuterol inhaler during episodes?

    <p>Persistent bacterial infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the nature of John's cough?

    <p>Chronic cough exacerbated during certain conditions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which examination finding would likely be most alarming in this case of a hypersensitivity reaction?

    <p>Presence of pus in nasal discharge</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the likely cause of a possible exacerbation in John's symptoms during the spring?

    <p>Exposure to allergens like pollen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of cell is primarily responsible for pathogen recognition in the innate immune system?

    <p>Dendritic cell</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of immunotherapy, which component is primarily exploited to enhance the immune response?

    <p>Cytokines</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What mechanism is involved in the differentiation of B-cells into plasmocytes?

    <p>T-cell activation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which immune cell type is specifically associated with immediate hypersensitivity reactions?

    <p>Basophil</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component primarily contributes to the recognition of danger signals from damaged cells in the immune system?

    <p>Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRR)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What major population impact does HIV/AIDS have globally since 1981?

    <p>Over 70 million people have been infected with HIV worldwide, leading to over 35 million deaths.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of maternal IgG transfer in infants regarding B-cell deficiencies?

    <p>Maternal IgGs provide passive immunity to infants, which declines between 7-9 months, exposing them to infection if they have B-cell deficiencies.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is X-linked agammaglobulinemia (XLA) particularly prevalent in males?

    <p>XLA is an X-linked disorder, and males have only one X chromosome, making them more susceptible to its effects.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of infections remain unchanged in patients with XLA despite their B-cell deficiency?

    <p>Patients with XLA have normal susceptibility to viral and fungal infections due to intact cell-mediated immune responses.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What critical immune function is impaired in individuals with T-cell deficiencies?

    <p>T-cell deficiencies primarily impair cell-mediated immunity, leading to increased susceptibility to viral and certain bacterial infections.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What leads to increased susceptibility to encapsulated bacteria in B-cell deficiencies?

    <p>A deficiency in B-cell development reduces antibody production, which is essential for targeting encapsulated bacteria.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During which period do infants start exhibiting symptoms of B-cell deficiencies?

    <p>Symptoms typically appear around 7-9 months when maternal antibodies wane and B-cell production is insufficient.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the immune response remain normal in patients with XLA despite their B-cell deficiency?

    <p>The cell-mediated immune response remains operational, maintaining normal T-cell function and responses.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What mediators are primarily involved in Type I hypersensitivity?

    <p>IgE, basophils, and mast cells are the key mediators.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Describe the difference between primary and secondary exposure to an allergen in Type I hypersensitivity.

    <p>Primary exposure leads to IgE production, while secondary exposure causes IgE cross-linking and degranulation of mast cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    List at least two common examples of Type I hypersensitivity reactions.

    <p>Food allergies and allergic reactions to pollen are common examples.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do allergens play in Type I hypersensitivity?

    <p>Allergens stimulate an abnormal immune response leading to allergic reactions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the potential consequences of a Type I hypersensitivity reaction?

    <p>Consequences can include severe allergic reactions like anaphylaxis, which can be fatal.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How quickly can a Type I hypersensitivity reaction occur after exposure to an allergen?

    <p>A Type I hypersensitivity reaction can occur within minutes of allergen exposure.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one autoimmune disease associated with Type III hypersensitivity?

    <p>Systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disease linked to Type III hypersensitivity.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the relationship between CD4+ T-helper cell count and the diagnosis of AIDS?

    <p>A CD4+ T-helper cell count below 200 cells/mm³ indicates a diagnosis of AIDS.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of hypersensitivity reaction is primarily characterized by skin reactions and delayed responses?

    <p>Type IV hypersensitivity is characterized by delayed-type skin reactions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What autoimmune mechanism leads to the development of autoimmune diseases?

    <p>Autoimmune diseases arise when the immune system mistakenly attacks its own healthy cells due to failure in recognizing self from nonself.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What percentage of individuals affected by autoimmune diseases are women?

    <p>Approximately 78% of individuals with autoimmune diseases are women.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the immune response differ between immunodeficiency and autoimmunity?

    <p>Immunodeficiency involves a weakened immune system, while autoimmunity involves an overactivated immune response against healthy cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the impact of low-level HIV multiplication on CD4+ T-helper cells over time?

    <p>Low-level HIV multiplication leads to a continuous decrease in CD4+ T-helper cell count over time.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines the clinical onset of opportunistic infections in AIDS patients?

    <p>Opportunistic infections in AIDS patients occur primarily due to a critically low CD4+ T-helper cell count.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What process allows the immune system to maintain a healthy state regarding self-recognition?

    <p>Self-recognition is maintained by the immune system through recognizing and differentiating its own healthy cells from infected or abnormal cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of distinguishing self from nonself in the immune response?

    <p>Distinguishing self from nonself is essential to prevent autoimmune reactions where the immune system attacks its own cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What specific symptom associated with Victor’s abdominal pain might suggest an inflammatory condition?

    <p>The presence of bloody stools suggests an inflammatory condition.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why might the physician order an Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) test for Victor?

    <p>The ESR test is ordered to assess the level of inflammation in Victor's body.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the presence of ulcers in Victor’s oral mucosa indicate in the context of his symptoms?

    <p>The ulcers may indicate an underlying inflammatory condition, such as Crohn's disease.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does joint pain with stiffness relate to gastrointestinal symptoms in Victor's case?

    <p>Joint pain with stiffness can indicate an inflammatory response, which may be linked to a condition affecting both the joints and gastrointestinal tract.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What information does a Complete Blood Count (CBC) provide in Victor’s evaluation?

    <p>A CBC provides insight into Victor's overall health and can reveal potential disorders like anemia or infection.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of identifying parasites through an Ova/Parasite investigation in Victor's case?

    <p>Identifying parasites can rule out gastrointestinal infections that could be causing abdominal pain and loose stools.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Discuss the relevance of Victor being underweight for his age in relation to his gastrointestinal symptoms.

    <p>Being underweight suggests malnutrition, often a consequence of chronic gastrointestinal issues, such as inflammation or malabsorption.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In Victor's case, what could the combination of fatigue and relapsing abdominal pain suggest?

    <p>It could suggest a chronic inflammatory process or autoimmune condition affecting the gut.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of an AGPAR score of 7 or above for a newborn?

    <p>A score of 7 or above indicates that the newborn child is considered to be in normal health.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does John's family medical history potentially impact his condition?

    <p>John's family history of asthma and eczema may predispose him to similar allergic or inflammatory responses.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the typical vital sign abnormalities observed in John's physical examination?

    <p>John exhibited marked respiratory distress, an elevated respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min, and a heart rate of 100 beats/min.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes asthma in terms of its inflammatory response?

    <p>Asthma is characterized by an abnormal inflammatory response in the bronchial lining, leading to airway obstruction.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Identify two physical examination findings that suggest an immune reaction in John.

    <p>John displayed congested swollen sinuses and a mildly red throat, indicating an immune response.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which aspect of John’s symptoms suggests an acute asthma attack?

    <p>The easily audible wheezing and respiratory distress are indicative of an acute asthma attack.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does family environment play in the exacerbation of asthma symptoms?

    <p>Family environment, including exposure to allergens or irritants, can trigger or worsen asthma symptoms in predisposed individuals.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum score possible on the AGPAR scale and what does it represent?

    <p>The maximum AGPAR score is 10, which indicates an optimal health status of the newborn.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Explain how autoimmunity differs from normal immune response.

    <p>Autoimmunity occurs when the immune system mistakenly attacks the body's own cells, unlike normal immune response which targets foreign pathogens.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Identify one example of a Type II hypersensitivity reaction.

    <p>An example of a Type II hypersensitivity reaction is hemolytic anemia, where antibodies target red blood cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What factor is primarily responsible for the onset of symptoms in Graves disease?

    <p>Graves disease symptoms are primarily caused by autoantibodies that stimulate the thyroid gland, leading to hyperthyroidism.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Discuss the significance of immunosuppressive therapy in organ transplants.

    <p>Immunosuppressive therapy is essential in organ transplants to prevent the recipient's immune system from rejecting the donor organ.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Describe a potential downside of long-term immunosuppressive drug use.

    <p>Long-term immunosuppressive drug use can increase the risk of opportunistic infections due to a weakened immune response.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common type of hypersensitivity reaction associated with asthma?

    <p>Type I hypersensitivity is the most common type associated with asthma, characterized by allergic reactions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Explain the role of T-cells in Type IV hypersensitivity reactions.

    <p>In Type IV hypersensitivity reactions, T-cells are responsible for mediating delayed-type responses to antigens without the involvement of antibodies.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What pathological condition can arise from Type III hypersensitivity reactions?

    <p>Type III hypersensitivity reactions can lead to conditions such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) due to immune complex deposition.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the classification of autoimmune diseases enhance therapeutic approaches?

    <p>Classifying autoimmune diseases helps identify targeted therapies that address specific immune mechanisms involved in each condition.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are opportunistic infections and why are they a concern in immunocompromised patients?

    <p>Opportunistic infections are caused by pathogens that take advantage of a weakened immune system, posing significant risks to immunocompromised patients.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Identify a key feature of rheumatoid arthritis in terms of immune response.

    <p>Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by chronic inflammation of the joints due to autoimmune attacks on synovial tissue.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of action of immunosuppressants?

    <p>Immunosuppressants work by inhibiting the immune system's ability to mount an inflammatory response against perceived threats or transplanted organs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Explain how blood tests can assist in diagnosing autoimmune diseases.

    <p>Blood tests can detect specific autoantibodies associated with autoimmune diseases, aiding in diagnosis and management.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the timing of symptoms manifest in Type I hypersensitivity reactions?

    <p>Symptoms of Type I hypersensitivity typically manifest immediately after exposure to the allergen.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What underlying mechanism leads to the development of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?

    <p>SLE develops due to a combination of genetic predisposition and environmental triggers that provoke an inappropriate immune response.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Module 4: Adverse Reactions and Immune Defects

    • This course is designed for interaction with online modules
    • The Module Companion Guide complements the online slides
    • Refer to the online module if there are discrepancies between the guide and the slides
    • Do not distribute the Module Companion Guide to students not enrolled in MICR 270
    • This is a violation of Queen's University's Academic Integrity Policy
    • Students found in violation may face sanctions

    Table of Contents (Module 4 Companion Guide)

    • Introduction (includes Course Toolbox, Learning Outcomes, Module Assignments)
    • Journal Article Assignment
    • Scientific Poster Assignment
    • Module Outline
    • Section 1: Immunodeficiency
      • Immunodeficiency
      • Classification of Primary Immunodeficiencies
      • Secondary Immunodeficiency: The Case of HIV/AIDS (mode of transmission, immune response, antiretroviral therapy)
      • Questions: Primary Immunodeficiencies, Testing the Immune Response
      • Blood Test Results, Interpreting Negative Results, Clinical History and Initial Examination,
      • Screening Techniques, Complete Blood Counts, Infection vs. Immunodeficiency
    • Section 2: Autoimmunity
      • Autoimmunity
      • Classification of Autoimmune Diseases (Organ-Specific and Systemic)
      • Graves Disease, Rheumatoid Arthritis, Immunosuppressants and Organ Transplants, Impact of Immunosuppression on the Host, opportunistic infections
    • Section 3: Hypersensitivity
      • Classification of Hypersensitivities (Type I, Type II, Type III, Type IV)
      • Hypersensitivity - Patient Case #1 (Test Results, Diagnosis)
      • Questions relating to Hypersensitivity and Patient Cases
    • Conclusion
      • Module Summary
      • Concept Map: List of Immunology Terminology
      • Learning Outcomes
      • Module Assignments

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    MICR 270 Module 4 Companion Guide PDF

    Description

    Test your knowledge on adverse reactions and immune defects in Module 4 of MICR 270. This quiz covers topics such as immunodeficiency, its classifications, and HIV/AIDS. Ensure you understand the material thoroughly as it aligns with the course's learning outcomes and assignments.

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