MICR 270 Module 4: Immune Defects Quiz
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Questions and Answers

What is the primary characteristic of B-cell deficiencies?

  • Dysfunctional B lymphocytes or decreased their prevalence (correct)
  • Decreased T lymphocyte function
  • Normal levels of immunoglobulins
  • Increased antibody production

At what age do symptoms of B-cell deficiencies typically first appear?

  • At 1-2 years
  • At birth
  • In early childhood
  • Around 7-9 months (correct)

Which lifestyle phase contributes to the onset of symptoms in B-cell deficiencies?

  • During pregnancy
  • Once the child begins eating solids
  • Post-weaning (correct)
  • During breastfeeding

What type of infections are patients with X-linked agammaglobulinemia (XLA) particularly susceptible to?

<p>Bacterial infections (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are males predominantly affected by X-linked agammaglobulinemia (XLA)?

<p>It is X-linked and recessive (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of B lymphocytes in the immune system?

<p>Producing large quantities of antibodies (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What remains normal in patients with XLA despite their B-cell deficiency?

<p>Cell-mediated immune responses (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most studied secondary immunodeficiency that affected over 35 million people?

<p>Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary consequence of T-cell deficiencies in individuals?

<p>Increased susceptibility to viral, protozoan, and fungal infections (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is commonly associated with DiGeorge Syndrome?

<p>Absent or underdeveloped thymus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component of the complement system, when deficient, leads to the most severe symptoms?

<p>C3 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Hereditary angioedema (HAE) primarily results from a deficiency in which of the following?

<p>Regulators of C1 complement proteins (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why do patients with T-cell deficiencies tend to show frequent infections starting at 3-4 months after birth?

<p>Maternal antibodies are lost after that period (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of infections are patients with complement deficiencies particularly prone to?

<p>Severe bacterial infections (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common clinical manifestation of DiGeorge Syndrome?

<p>Severe allergic reactions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Symptoms of hereditary angioedema include swelling in which areas?

<p>Swelling of the face, lips, and larynx (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary characteristic of Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD)?

<p>Defective phagocyte function leading to frequent infections. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which population is most affected by severe combined inherited immunodeficiency (SCID)?

<p>Children within the first year of life. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What method did David Vetter require to avoid infections associated with SCID?

<p>A sterile living environment. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which immune response is compromised in individuals with combined T- and B-cell deficiencies?

<p>Both humoral and cell-mediated responses. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common outcome for patients with CGD?

<p>Frequent and severe bacterial or fungal infections. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the tendency of the body in response to infections seen in CGD?

<p>Formation of non-malignant granulomas. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of immune cells are dysfunctional in patients with SCID?

<p>Both T-cells and B-cells. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might mild diseases, like chickenpox, be life-threatening for those with combined T- and B-cell deficiencies?

<p>They lack any immune defense against such pathogens. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the CD4+ T helper cell threshold that indicates a diagnosis of AIDS?

<p>200 cells/m m3 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant consequence of untreated AIDS after diagnosis?

<p>Patients become more susceptible to opportunistic infections. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does antiretroviral therapy (ART) play in HIV treatment?

<p>It reduces the viral load but does not eradicate the virus. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How has the introduction of highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) impacted the progression of HIV to AIDS?

<p>It has almost completely prevented HIV from progressing into AIDS. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the expected survival duration of untreated AIDS patients after diagnosis?

<p>Approximately 3 years (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is combination retroviral therapy significant in HIV treatment?

<p>It prevents drug resistance from rapidly mutating viruses. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement regarding the impact of ART in low- and middle-income countries is accurate?

<p>700,000 lives were estimated saved due to ART availability in 2010. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to the CD4+ T helper cells during clinical latency in chronic HIV infection?

<p>They become exhausted and depleted. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic clinical manifestation of a type III hypersensitivity reaction?

<p>Delayed symptoms such as fever and generalized vasculitis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What primarily mediates type IV hypersensitivity reactions?

<p>CD8+ T-cells and macrophages (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main factor that causes symptoms to subside in serum sickness?

<p>The total breakdown of the antigen (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which blood type is considered a universal donor?

<p>O negative (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can type III hypersensitivity reactions contribute to, aside from serum sickness?

<p>Autoimmune diseases such as arthritis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the role of antitoxins?

<p>They counteract toxins in the bloodstream (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of cell is NOT a key player in type IV hypersensitivity?

<p>B Lymphocytes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How long can it take for symptoms of serum sickness to manifest after exposure?

<p>Days to weeks (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main histological finding in the biopsy of a patient with Crohn’s disease?

<p>Severe infiltration of mucosa with mononuclear cells (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of hypersensitivity is associated with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?

<p>Type IV hypersensitivity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the immune response associated with IBD, which type of T-cells are primarily activated?

<p>Helper T-cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common symptom of IBD as a result of the inflammatory response?

<p>Blood in the stool (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What process causes the direct cellular damage in the bowel associated with IBD?

<p>Activation of cytotoxic T-cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is true regarding the role of immunoglobulins in IBD?

<p>IBD does not involve immunoglobulins as it is cell-mediated. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The inflammation caused by IBD can lead to which of the following complications?

<p>Abscess formation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the initial response of T-cells to exposure to an antigen in IBD?

<p>Activation and subsequent cytokine release (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary clinical use of immunophilins like cyclosporine?

<p>Prevention of organ rejection (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common side effect associated with the use of cyclosporine?

<p>Nephrotoxicity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which therapy is characterized as killing activated T-cells in a non-specific manner?

<p>Lymphocyte-depleting therapy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following cytotoxic drugs is associated with significant nausea and vomiting as side effects?

<p>Methotrexate (B), Cyclophosphamide (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What potential effect does long-term use of corticosteroids like prednisone have on bone health?

<p>Decreased bone density (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of immunosuppressive drugs, which drug is likely to cause hair loss as a side effect?

<p>Methotrexate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which immunosuppressive drug is known for causing gastrointestinal side effects such as stomach ache and diarrhea?

<p>Cyclophosphamide (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which class of immunosuppressive drugs is highlighted as acting specifically to block T-cell responses?

<p>Immunophilins (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes the clinical latency phase of chronic HIV infection?

<p>Depletion of CD4+ T helper cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes AIDS from other stages of HIV infection?

<p>CD4+ T helper cell level below 200 cells/m m3 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between acquired and primary immunodeficiency diseases?

<p>Acquired immunodeficiencies develop due to external factors. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic do all AIDS patients share regarding their immune system?

<p>Breakdown of their immune system (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant outcome of the introduction of highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)?

<p>Decrease in AIDS-related mortality (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a notable clinical outcome of advanced AIDS infection?

<p>Death from opportunistic infections (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical survival duration for untreated AIDS patients after diagnosis?

<p>Approximately 3 years (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which term best describes the collection of conditions related to weakened immune defenses in AIDS patients?

<p>Opportunistic infections (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary action of antiretroviral therapy (ART) in the treatment of HIV?

<p>Inhibits HIV from replicating (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is combination retroviral therapy important in HIV treatment?

<p>It reduces the mutation rate of HIV (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is HIV primarily transmitted in many regions of the world?

<p>Intimate contact or body fluids (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately describes the term 'Secondary Immunodeficiency'?

<p>It can result from an underlying infection. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What was the impact of antiretroviral therapy in low- and middle-income countries in 2010 according to WHO estimates?

<p>700,000 lives were saved (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does HIV evade immune defenses as the infection progresses?

<p>Through rapid mutation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant factor in the definition of AIDS?

<p>It indicates the final stage following acute HIV infection. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do encapsulated bacteria have in common that makes them unique?

<p>They produce a polysaccharide capsule. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic distinguishes Crohn's disease from ulcerative colitis based on colonoscopic findings?

<p>Multiple lacerations throughout the intestine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) classified as?

<p>Type IV hypersensitivity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary immune mechanism leading to tissue damage in patients with IBD?

<p>Cytotoxic damage mediated by activated T-cells (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What histological feature is observed in the mucosa of patients with Crohn's disease?

<p>Presence of granulomas (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following cytokines is typically released by activated helper T-cells in IBD?

<p>Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of IBD, which symptom is most directly linked to the inflammatory process?

<p>Blood in the stool (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanism do cytotoxic T-cells utilize to inflict damage during the immune response in IBD?

<p>Release of perforin and granzymes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common misconception regarding the role of antibodies in inflammatory bowel disease?

<p>Antibodies play a significant role in causing tissue damage in IBD (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is least likely to be directly associated with gastrointestinal infection?

<p>Joint stiffness in multiple areas (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) indicate?

<p>Presence of inflammation in the body (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test is specifically used to evaluate for the presence of parasites?

<p>Ova/Parasite investigation and stool culture (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following examinations would be least likely to reveal any abnormalities in the given patient assessment?

<p>Rectal examination (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant characteristic of C-reactive protein levels?

<p>It serves as a marker for inflammation in the body. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What could the presentation of three ulcers noted in the oral mucosa suggest?

<p>An autoimmune disorder that affects mucous membranes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom would most likely suggest the progression of a chronic condition?

<p>Ongoing relapsing pain episodes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the likely outcome of a complete blood count (CBC) in a patient with suspected systemic issues?

<p>Detection of a wide range of disorders' (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What physiological changes occur in the airways during an asthma attack?

<p>Airway contraction and inflammation of the walls (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of hypersensitivity is primarily involved in asthma?

<p>Type I anaphylactic hypersensitivity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which immunoglobulin plays a critical role in the asthmatic reaction?

<p>IgE (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurs upon secondary exposure to an allergen in asthma patients?

<p>Memory B-cells rapidly produce IgE antibodies (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary effect of mast cell degranulation in asthma?

<p>Vasodilation and smooth muscle contraction leading to bronchoconstriction (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cell type is primarily activated during allergic inflammation in asthma?

<p>T-helper 2 cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which process is responsible for increased mucus secretion during asthma attacks?

<p>Cross-linking of membrane-bound IgE on mast cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does inflammation develop during an allergic response such as asthma?

<p>Via an interplay between immune cells and respiratory epithelium (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the reason for the initial negative p 24/g p120 antibody/antigen HIV test result in David?

<p>David had not produced a sufficient antibody response yet. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which immune cells primarily experience a decrease following HIV infection?

<p>CD4+ helper T-cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurs to HIV levels in David's blood after initial infection?

<p>They increase significantly despite the immune response. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of immune response does David's body produce in reaction to HIV infection?

<p>Both humoral and cell-mediated immune responses. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of HIV, which protein is NOT detected by the initial antibody/antigen test?

<p>HIV RNA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which immune cell type is primarily targeted and replicated in by HIV?

<p>Helper T-cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mode of HIV transmission in sub-Saharan Africa?

<p>Heterosexual sex and vertical transmission (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant challenge for David's immune system in combating HIV?

<p>The virus mutates rapidly, evading immune detection. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which stage of HIV infection do CD4+ T cell levels experience an initial drastic decrease?

<p>Acute infection (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens within the first few weeks of HIV infection regarding T-cells?

<p>There is a temporary decline in CD4+ T-cell levels. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What remains detectable during the clinical latency stage of HIV infection?

<p>Anti-HIV antibodies (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What causes the eventual ineffectiveness of the immune response against HIV over time?

<p>The mutation of HIV antigens (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical duration within which flu-like symptoms appear post initial HIV exposure?

<p>2 to 4 weeks (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the immune response during the acute infection phase?

<p>CD4+ T cells are targeted and depleted (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What significant outcome can occur if HIV infection goes untreated?

<p>Immunosuppression and death (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What fundamental change occurs to the immune system over the course of HIV infection?

<p>Consistent depletion of CD4+ T cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which immunosuppressive drug is primarily used to prevent rejection in organ transplantation?

<p>Cyclosporine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a notable potential side effect associated with corticosteroids like prednisone?

<p>Osteoporosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of therapy specifically kills activated T-cells without targeting them directly?

<p>Lymphocyte-depleting Therapy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is associated with the side effects of mouth sores, lung sores, and increased risk of skin infections?

<p>Methotrexate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What mechanism do immunophilins, such as cyclosporine, use to inhibit T-cell responses?

<p>Inhibit lymphocyte activation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which side effect is commonly associated with the use of cyclosporine?

<p>Hirsutism (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Corticosteroids such as prednisone may lead to which condition due to their metabolic effects?

<p>Insulin resistance (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic side effect of cytotoxic drugs like cyclophosphamide?

<p>Chills and dizziness (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential consequence of immunosuppressive therapy concerning infections?

<p>Increased risk of both latent and opportunistic infections (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which pathogen is commonly associated with latent infections in immunocompromised patients?

<p>Cytomegalovirus (CMV) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary characteristic of opportunistic infections in patients on immunosuppressive therapy?

<p>They can arise from both reactivation of existing pathogens and new infections (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following opportunistic infections is caused by a parasitic pathogen?

<p>Toxoplasmosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which opportunistic infection primarily affects the respiratory system in immunosuppressed patients?

<p>Tuberculosis (TB) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT typically classified as a latent infection?

<p>Cryptococcus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mode of transmission for pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP)?

<p>Airborne transmission from the environment (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes latent infections?

<p>Infections that remain dormant and asymptomatic in the host (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of immune response is most likely involved in John's wheezing episodes?

<p>Type I hypersensitivity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is most likely associated with John's hypersensitivity condition?

<p>Intermittent sneezing episodes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At what age did John first experience wheezing that was preceded by a viral infection?

<p>3 years old (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What medication is NOT mentioned as part of John's management plan for his symptoms?

<p>Leukotriene receptor antagonist (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What could be a potential reason for John not responding effectively to his albuterol inhaler during episodes?

<p>Persistent bacterial infection (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the nature of John's cough?

<p>Chronic cough exacerbated during certain conditions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which examination finding would likely be most alarming in this case of a hypersensitivity reaction?

<p>Presence of pus in nasal discharge (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the likely cause of a possible exacerbation in John's symptoms during the spring?

<p>Exposure to allergens like pollen (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of cell is primarily responsible for pathogen recognition in the innate immune system?

<p>Dendritic cell (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of immunotherapy, which component is primarily exploited to enhance the immune response?

<p>Cytokines (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What mechanism is involved in the differentiation of B-cells into plasmocytes?

<p>T-cell activation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which immune cell type is specifically associated with immediate hypersensitivity reactions?

<p>Basophil (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component primarily contributes to the recognition of danger signals from damaged cells in the immune system?

<p>Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRR) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What major population impact does HIV/AIDS have globally since 1981?

<p>Over 70 million people have been infected with HIV worldwide, leading to over 35 million deaths.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of maternal IgG transfer in infants regarding B-cell deficiencies?

<p>Maternal IgGs provide passive immunity to infants, which declines between 7-9 months, exposing them to infection if they have B-cell deficiencies.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is X-linked agammaglobulinemia (XLA) particularly prevalent in males?

<p>XLA is an X-linked disorder, and males have only one X chromosome, making them more susceptible to its effects.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of infections remain unchanged in patients with XLA despite their B-cell deficiency?

<p>Patients with XLA have normal susceptibility to viral and fungal infections due to intact cell-mediated immune responses.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What critical immune function is impaired in individuals with T-cell deficiencies?

<p>T-cell deficiencies primarily impair cell-mediated immunity, leading to increased susceptibility to viral and certain bacterial infections.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What leads to increased susceptibility to encapsulated bacteria in B-cell deficiencies?

<p>A deficiency in B-cell development reduces antibody production, which is essential for targeting encapsulated bacteria.</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which period do infants start exhibiting symptoms of B-cell deficiencies?

<p>Symptoms typically appear around 7-9 months when maternal antibodies wane and B-cell production is insufficient.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the immune response remain normal in patients with XLA despite their B-cell deficiency?

<p>The cell-mediated immune response remains operational, maintaining normal T-cell function and responses.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What mediators are primarily involved in Type I hypersensitivity?

<p>IgE, basophils, and mast cells are the key mediators.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the difference between primary and secondary exposure to an allergen in Type I hypersensitivity.

<p>Primary exposure leads to IgE production, while secondary exposure causes IgE cross-linking and degranulation of mast cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

List at least two common examples of Type I hypersensitivity reactions.

<p>Food allergies and allergic reactions to pollen are common examples.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do allergens play in Type I hypersensitivity?

<p>Allergens stimulate an abnormal immune response leading to allergic reactions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the potential consequences of a Type I hypersensitivity reaction?

<p>Consequences can include severe allergic reactions like anaphylaxis, which can be fatal.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How quickly can a Type I hypersensitivity reaction occur after exposure to an allergen?

<p>A Type I hypersensitivity reaction can occur within minutes of allergen exposure.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one autoimmune disease associated with Type III hypersensitivity?

<p>Systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disease linked to Type III hypersensitivity.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the relationship between CD4+ T-helper cell count and the diagnosis of AIDS?

<p>A CD4+ T-helper cell count below 200 cells/mm³ indicates a diagnosis of AIDS.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is primarily characterized by skin reactions and delayed responses?

<p>Type IV hypersensitivity is characterized by delayed-type skin reactions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What autoimmune mechanism leads to the development of autoimmune diseases?

<p>Autoimmune diseases arise when the immune system mistakenly attacks its own healthy cells due to failure in recognizing self from nonself.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of individuals affected by autoimmune diseases are women?

<p>Approximately 78% of individuals with autoimmune diseases are women.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the immune response differ between immunodeficiency and autoimmunity?

<p>Immunodeficiency involves a weakened immune system, while autoimmunity involves an overactivated immune response against healthy cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the impact of low-level HIV multiplication on CD4+ T-helper cells over time?

<p>Low-level HIV multiplication leads to a continuous decrease in CD4+ T-helper cell count over time.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines the clinical onset of opportunistic infections in AIDS patients?

<p>Opportunistic infections in AIDS patients occur primarily due to a critically low CD4+ T-helper cell count.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What process allows the immune system to maintain a healthy state regarding self-recognition?

<p>Self-recognition is maintained by the immune system through recognizing and differentiating its own healthy cells from infected or abnormal cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of distinguishing self from nonself in the immune response?

<p>Distinguishing self from nonself is essential to prevent autoimmune reactions where the immune system attacks its own cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specific symptom associated with Victor’s abdominal pain might suggest an inflammatory condition?

<p>The presence of bloody stools suggests an inflammatory condition.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might the physician order an Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) test for Victor?

<p>The ESR test is ordered to assess the level of inflammation in Victor's body.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the presence of ulcers in Victor’s oral mucosa indicate in the context of his symptoms?

<p>The ulcers may indicate an underlying inflammatory condition, such as Crohn's disease.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does joint pain with stiffness relate to gastrointestinal symptoms in Victor's case?

<p>Joint pain with stiffness can indicate an inflammatory response, which may be linked to a condition affecting both the joints and gastrointestinal tract.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What information does a Complete Blood Count (CBC) provide in Victor’s evaluation?

<p>A CBC provides insight into Victor's overall health and can reveal potential disorders like anemia or infection.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of identifying parasites through an Ova/Parasite investigation in Victor's case?

<p>Identifying parasites can rule out gastrointestinal infections that could be causing abdominal pain and loose stools.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Discuss the relevance of Victor being underweight for his age in relation to his gastrointestinal symptoms.

<p>Being underweight suggests malnutrition, often a consequence of chronic gastrointestinal issues, such as inflammation or malabsorption.</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Victor's case, what could the combination of fatigue and relapsing abdominal pain suggest?

<p>It could suggest a chronic inflammatory process or autoimmune condition affecting the gut.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of an AGPAR score of 7 or above for a newborn?

<p>A score of 7 or above indicates that the newborn child is considered to be in normal health.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does John's family medical history potentially impact his condition?

<p>John's family history of asthma and eczema may predispose him to similar allergic or inflammatory responses.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the typical vital sign abnormalities observed in John's physical examination?

<p>John exhibited marked respiratory distress, an elevated respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min, and a heart rate of 100 beats/min.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes asthma in terms of its inflammatory response?

<p>Asthma is characterized by an abnormal inflammatory response in the bronchial lining, leading to airway obstruction.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Identify two physical examination findings that suggest an immune reaction in John.

<p>John displayed congested swollen sinuses and a mildly red throat, indicating an immune response.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which aspect of John’s symptoms suggests an acute asthma attack?

<p>The easily audible wheezing and respiratory distress are indicative of an acute asthma attack.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does family environment play in the exacerbation of asthma symptoms?

<p>Family environment, including exposure to allergens or irritants, can trigger or worsen asthma symptoms in predisposed individuals.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum score possible on the AGPAR scale and what does it represent?

<p>The maximum AGPAR score is 10, which indicates an optimal health status of the newborn.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Explain how autoimmunity differs from normal immune response.

<p>Autoimmunity occurs when the immune system mistakenly attacks the body's own cells, unlike normal immune response which targets foreign pathogens.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Identify one example of a Type II hypersensitivity reaction.

<p>An example of a Type II hypersensitivity reaction is hemolytic anemia, where antibodies target red blood cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factor is primarily responsible for the onset of symptoms in Graves disease?

<p>Graves disease symptoms are primarily caused by autoantibodies that stimulate the thyroid gland, leading to hyperthyroidism.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Discuss the significance of immunosuppressive therapy in organ transplants.

<p>Immunosuppressive therapy is essential in organ transplants to prevent the recipient's immune system from rejecting the donor organ.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe a potential downside of long-term immunosuppressive drug use.

<p>Long-term immunosuppressive drug use can increase the risk of opportunistic infections due to a weakened immune response.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common type of hypersensitivity reaction associated with asthma?

<p>Type I hypersensitivity is the most common type associated with asthma, characterized by allergic reactions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Explain the role of T-cells in Type IV hypersensitivity reactions.

<p>In Type IV hypersensitivity reactions, T-cells are responsible for mediating delayed-type responses to antigens without the involvement of antibodies.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What pathological condition can arise from Type III hypersensitivity reactions?

<p>Type III hypersensitivity reactions can lead to conditions such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) due to immune complex deposition.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the classification of autoimmune diseases enhance therapeutic approaches?

<p>Classifying autoimmune diseases helps identify targeted therapies that address specific immune mechanisms involved in each condition.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are opportunistic infections and why are they a concern in immunocompromised patients?

<p>Opportunistic infections are caused by pathogens that take advantage of a weakened immune system, posing significant risks to immunocompromised patients.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Identify a key feature of rheumatoid arthritis in terms of immune response.

<p>Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by chronic inflammation of the joints due to autoimmune attacks on synovial tissue.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action of immunosuppressants?

<p>Immunosuppressants work by inhibiting the immune system's ability to mount an inflammatory response against perceived threats or transplanted organs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Explain how blood tests can assist in diagnosing autoimmune diseases.

<p>Blood tests can detect specific autoantibodies associated with autoimmune diseases, aiding in diagnosis and management.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the timing of symptoms manifest in Type I hypersensitivity reactions?

<p>Symptoms of Type I hypersensitivity typically manifest immediately after exposure to the allergen.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What underlying mechanism leads to the development of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?

<p>SLE develops due to a combination of genetic predisposition and environmental triggers that provoke an inappropriate immune response.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Secondary Immunodeficiency

An immunodeficiency that develops later in life, not present from birth.

Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)

A disease caused by HIV, significantly weakening the immune system.

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

The virus that causes AIDS, significantly impacting the immune system.

Congenital Immunodeficiency

A disorder present from birth that affects the immune system.

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B-cell deficiencies

A type of primary immunodeficiency where B lymphocytes are defective or fewer in number.

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X-linked agammaglobulinemia (XLA)

A rare genetic disorder that prevents the development of mature B-cells, leading to low antibody levels.

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Primary Immunodeficiency

A disorder present at birth that affects the function of the immune system.

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B lymphocytes (B cells)

Key cells of the humoral immune system, producing antibodies.

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DiGeorge Syndrome

A T-cell deficiency caused by a chromosome 22 deletion, leading to a missing or underdeveloped thymus and a lack of mature T cells.

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Complement deficiencies

Genetic defects in complement components result in increased susceptibility to severe bacterial infections and immune complex disorders.

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Hereditary Angioedema (HAE)

A complement deficiency (lack of C1 regulator) causing swelling of the face, lips, larynx, or GI tract due to uncontrolled complement activation.

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Complement system

A complex system of proteins that function in the immune response to eliminate pathogens.

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C3 deficiency

Deficiency in complement component C3, leading to the severest symptoms of complement deficiencies due to its central role in complement activities.

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T lymphocytes

Key cells of cell-mediated immunity responsible for killing infected or abnormal cells.

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Phagocytic deficiencies

Deficiencies in cells that ingest and destroy pathogens.

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Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD)

A rare inherited disease where phagocytes can't kill bacteria effectively.

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Combined T- and B-cell deficiencies

Issues with both T-cells and B-cells, weakening both parts of the adaptive immune system.

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Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)

A severe example of combined T- and B-cell deficiency, often leading to fatal infections early in life.

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Humoral response

Part of the adaptive immune response involving antibodies.

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Cell-mediated response

Part of the adaptive immune response involving T cells directly attacking pathogens.

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Phagocytes

Immune cells that engulf and destroy pathogens.

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Adaptive immune system

Part of the immune system that learns and adapts to specific pathogens.

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Clinical Latency

The phase of HIV infection where the virus is present but not causing noticeable symptoms. During this time, the virus is actively replicating but the immune system is able to keep it under control, preventing severe illness.

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CD4+ T Helper Cell Count

A measure of the number of CD4+ T helper cells in the blood. This count is crucial for monitoring the progression of HIV infection, as these cells are a primary target of the virus.

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Opportunistic Infections

Infections that are caused by microorganisms that normally do not cause disease in people with healthy immune systems. These infections become common in individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with AIDS.

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Antiretroviral Therapy (ART)

A combination of drugs used to treat HIV infection. These drugs do not cure the infection but prevent the virus from replicating, allowing the immune system to regain strength.

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HAART

Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy. A specific type of ART involving a combination of drugs that effectively suppress HIV replication and prevent the progression to AIDS.

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Drug Resistance

When a virus becomes less responsive to the effects of antiretroviral medication. This is a common challenge in HIV treatment due to the rapid mutation rate of the virus.

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HIV Progression to AIDS

The process by which HIV infection progresses to AIDS. This occurs when the immune system is severely weakened by HIV, leading to a high risk of opportunistic infections and life-threatening complications.

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Untreated AIDS

AIDS that is not treated with antiretroviral medications. This is a life-threatening condition with a survival time of approximately 3 years.

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Type III Hypersensitivity

An immune reaction involving antibody-antigen complexes that activate complement and inflammatory cells, leading to tissue damage.

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Serum Sickness

A type III hypersensitivity reaction that occurs after administration of foreign serum, resulting in immune complexes forming and causing fever, weakness, and vasculitis.

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What are the key players in Type IV hypersensitivity?

CD8+ Cytotoxic T-cells, CD4+ Helper T-cells, and Macrophages are the main players in Type IV hypersensitivity.

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Type IV Hypersensitivity

A delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH) reaction involving T cells and macrophages, which are activated by antigen-presenting cells and directly attack target cells.

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What is unique about Type IV hypersensitivity?

Type IV hypersensitivity is unique because it is not mediated by antibodies like other hypersensitivity reactions.

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Universal Donor

A person with an O negative blood type is considered a universal donor because they lack A and B antigens on their red blood cells, allowing them to donate blood to all other blood types.

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Universal Recipient

A person with an AB positive blood type is considered a universal recipient because they possess both A and B antigens on their red blood cells, allowing them to receive blood from all other blood types.

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Antitoxins

Antibodies that counteract toxins produced by bacteria or other pathogens, neutralizing their harmful effects.

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Colonoscopy

A medical procedure where a flexible, fiber-optic instrument is inserted through the anus to examine the colon.

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Crohn's Disease

A chronic inflammatory bowel disease characterized by inflammation of the digestive tract, often involving the small intestine and colon. It can cause ulceration, laceration, and infiltration of the mucosa with mononuclear cells.

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Irritable Bowel Disease (IBD)

A chronic condition that causes inflammation of the digestive tract. There are several types of IBD, including Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis.

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Cytokines

Signaling molecules released by cells of the immune system, like helper T-cells. They help regulate the immune response by activating other cells.

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Helper T-cells

A type of white blood cell that plays a critical role in coordinating the immune response. They activate cytotoxic T-cells and release cytokines.

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Cytotoxic T-cells

Specialised immune cells that directly destroy infected or abnormal cells. They are activated by helper T-cells and contribute to inflammation in IBD.

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What causes the inflammation and discomfort in IBD?

The immune response in IBD involves helper T-cells releasing cytokines, which cause cellular damage. Helper T-cells then activate cytotoxic T-cells, directly attacking and damaging the bowel and colon, leading to inflammation and discomfort.

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Immunosuppressive Drug Types

There are four main types of immunosuppressive drugs: Corticosteroids, Cytotoxic Drugs, Immunophilins, and Lymphocyte-depleting Therapies. Each has unique mechanisms and clinical uses to suppress the immune system.

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Corticosteroids

Corticosteroids suppress the immune system by reducing inflammation, decreasing cytokine production, and inhibiting T-cell activation.

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Immunophilins

Immunophilins block T-cell responses by interfering with signaling pathways essential for T-cell activation.

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Cyclosporine

Cyclosporine is an Immunophilin used to prevent organ rejection by suppressing T-cell activation.

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Lymphocyte-depleting Therapies

Lymphocyte-depleting Therapies specifically target and kill activated T-cells, directly reducing the number of immune cells involved in rejection.

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Cytotoxic Drugs

Cytotoxic drugs are potent agents that kill rapidly dividing cells, including activated T-cells, effectively reducing the immune response.

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Cyclophosphamide

Cyclophosphamide is a Cytotoxic drug used to reduce the immune response by killing rapidly dividing cells.

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Side Effects of Immunosuppressive Drugs

Immunosuppressive drugs have potential side effects due to their impact on the immune system, ranging from nephrotoxicity to infections and metabolic changes.

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What causes the inflammation in IBD?

The immune response in IBD involves helper T-cells releasing cytokines, which cause cellular damage. Helper T-cells then activate cytotoxic T-cells, directly attacking and damaging the bowel and colon, leading to inflammation and discomfort.

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Asthma Attack

A condition where the airways narrow due to muscle contraction, inflammation, and increased mucus secretion, leading to difficulty breathing.

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IgE

An antibody that plays a crucial role in Type I hypersensitivity reactions, like those seen in asthma.

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What causes asthma flare-ups?

When a person with asthma is exposed to an allergen or trigger (like pollen, dust mites, or pet dander), it triggers an immune response involving IgE. This leads to mast cell degranulation, releasing inflammatory chemicals that cause airway constriction and mucus production.

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How does IgE cause an asthma attack?

IgE antibodies bind to mast cells. When exposed to an allergen, IgE binds the allergen, triggering mast cell degranulation. This releases histamine and other inflammatory substances, constricting airways and causing mucus production, resulting in asthma symptoms.

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Why is asthma difficult to cure?

Asthma is not a curable condition, but it can be managed with medication and lifestyle changes. The underlying immune response to allergens cannot be permanently eliminated.

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What is the role of B cells in asthma?

B cells are involved in the production of IgE antibodies. Upon repeated allergen exposure, B cells differentiate into plasma cells and secrete excessive IgE, contributing to the exaggerated immune response seen in asthma.

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What are the effects of mast cell degranulation?

Mast cell degranulation releases histamine and other inflammatory mediators. These substances cause vasodilation (blood vessel widening), smooth muscle contraction (in airways), and mucus production, leading to the symptoms of asthma.

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Abdominal pain after a large meal

This symptom suggests a possible digestive issue related to food intake, potentially due to inadequate digestive enzyme production or motility problems.

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Joint stiffness and pain

This symptom indicates inflammation in the joints, which could be linked to a broader inflammatory response in the body or a specific autoimmune condition.

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Relapsing pain

This symptom suggests recurring bouts of pain, indicating a potential chronic underlying condition that may flare up.

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Fever (not associated with a cold)

This symptom points to an underlying infection or inflammatory process that might not be caused by a typical cold virus.

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Loose and bloody stool

This symptom points to a possible issue in the digestive system, potentially involving inflammation or infection in the gut.

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Tender abdomen

This finding indicates inflammation or irritation in the abdominal cavity. It suggests involvement of the digestive tract or surrounding organs.

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Oral ulcers

This symptom could indicate a specific infection, a deficiency, or even an autoimmune response. It is often associated with inflammatory conditions.

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Complete Blood Count (CBC)

A basic blood test that screens for various issues, including red and white blood cell count, platelet count, and hematocrit. It helps assess overall health and look for signs of infections or deficiencies.

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Encapsulated bacteria

Bacteria with a protective outer layer made of polysaccharides, which can be both Gram-positive and Gram-negative.

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HIV Mode of Transmission

The way HIV spreads varies depending on the region. Factors such as sexual practices, needle sharing, and mother-to-child transmission influence its spread.

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Non-malignant Granulomas

Small, localized clusters of immune cells that form in response to infection or inflammation, not cancerous.

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What is the main characteristic of AIDS victims?

The hallmark of AIDS is a dramatically weakened immune system, making the body susceptible to a wide range of infections.

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Why do many AIDS patients die from opportunistic infections?

Their compromised immune system cannot effectively fight off the infections, making them more vulnerable to diseases that wouldn't usually harm a healthy person.

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HIV Infection Stages: Primary Infection

The initial phase of HIV infection where the immune system mounts a response, but struggles to control the virus. This stage is characterized by a decrease in CD4+ T cells and a high viral load.

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HIV Infection Stages: Acute Infection

A period of rapid viral replication and a sharp decline in CD4+ T cells. This stage can cause flu-like symptoms and has a high risk of transmission.

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HIV Infection Stages: Clinical Latency

A period where the virus actively replicates but is controlled by the immune system. No noticeable symptoms are present, but transmission is still possible.

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What are the major modes of HIV transmission globally?

The main modes of HIV transmission vary geographically. In North America, it's primarily through sexual intercourse, while in Eastern Europe and Central Asia, it's mainly from sharing non-sterile needles. In sub-Saharan Africa, heterosexual contact is the primary mode, with mother-to-child transmission a significant factor.

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How does HIV affect CD4+ T cells?

HIV targets and infects CD4+ T cells, which are crucial for immune system regulation. This infection causes a decline in CD4+ T cell count, weakening the body's ability to fight off infections.

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Why is HIV treatment important?

Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is crucial for managing HIV infection. It prevents the virus from replicating, allowing the immune system to rebuild and preventing the progression to AIDS.

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What are opportunistic infections?

These infections are usually harmless to people with healthy immune systems but become dangerous for individuals with weakened immunity, like those with AIDS.

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Why initial HIV test negative?

The initial HIV test was negative because David's body hadn't produced enough HIV-specific antibodies or antigens for the test to detect within a week of infection.

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What is the 'window period'?

The 'window period' refers to the time after HIV infection during which the virus may not be detectable by standard tests. It typically lasts 9-14 days.

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What immune cell does HIV target?

HIV preferentially replicates in helper T-cells, crucial for immune response coordination.

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Immune response to HIV?

David's immune system initially mounts a response, producing antibodies and HIV-specific T-cells. However, the virus mutates, evading the immune attack.

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Early immune response to HIV

In the first weeks, the level of CD4+ helper T-cells significantly decreases, while the level of HIV in the blood increases.

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CD4+ T-cell count

The CD4+ T-cell count is a crucial indicator of HIV infection progression.

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HIV and immune system

HIV weakens the immune system, making individuals vulnerable to opportunistic infections that wouldn't usually cause harm.

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What is an opportunistic infection?

Opportunistic infections are caused by organisms that usually don't make healthy people sick, but take advantage of weakened immune systems.

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Latent Infection

An infection that is inactive, hidden, or dormant within the body. It can be reactivated later if the immune system is weakened.

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What are some common pathogens associated with latent infections?

Common pathogens associated with latent infections include TB (tuberculosis), HSV 1/2 (herpes simplex), CMV (cytomegalovirus), EBV (Epstein-Barr virus), and VZV (varicella-zoster virus).

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What is PCP?

PCP stands for Pneumocystis Jiroveci Pneumonia. It's a type of fungal infection that affects the lungs.

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What is Cryptococcal disease?

Cryptococcal disease is a fungal infection that usually starts in the lungs but can spread to the brain.

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What is candidiasis?

Candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a fungal infection that affects the mouth, throat, and vagina.

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What is toxoplasmosis?

Toxoplasmosis is a parasitic infection that can affect muscles, heart, brain, and eyes.

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What is MAC?

MAC stands for Mycobacterium Avium Complex. It's a bacterial infection that can affect the lungs, lymph nodes, or the entire body.

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Innate Immune System

The body's first line of defense, acting immediately against any pathogen, regardless of its type. It's like your body's general security guard.

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Humoral Immune Response

The antibody-based part of the adaptive immune system, where B cells produce proteins that bind to specific pathogens.

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Cell-mediated Immune Response

The part of the adaptive immune system that directly attacks infected or abnormal cells using specialized T cells.

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Immune Synapse

A specialized communication junction between immune cells, like a T cell and an antigen-presenting cell, allowing them to exchange information and activate the adaptive immune response.

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John's Asthma

John's repeated wheezing episodes, often triggered by upper respiratory infections, are classic symptoms of asthma. This condition involves inflammation and narrowing of the airways, making breathing difficult.

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John's Allergic Response

John's history of skin rashes (eczema), runny nose, and sneezing suggests a tendency towards allergies. These symptoms indicate an overactive immune response to specific allergens.

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Albuterol's Role

Albuterol is a medication that relaxes the muscles in the airways, opening them up to allow easier airflow. It is commonly used to treat asthma symptoms like wheezing.

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Corticosteroids for Asthma

Corticosteroids, like the inhaler John uses, reduce inflammation in the airways. They help to control the underlying inflammation that causes asthma symptoms.

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Antihistamines for Allergies

Antihistamines, like the one John takes, block the actions of histamine, a chemical released during allergic reactions. This helps to relieve symptoms like runny nose and sneezing.

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John's Chronic Cough

John's persistent cough, especially in the mornings and at night, is a common symptom of asthma. It suggests inflammation and irritation in the airways, often triggered by allergens or triggers.

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Asthma Triggers

Certain things, like upper respiratory tract infections, can trigger asthma attacks in individuals like John. These triggers can worsen inflammation and constrict the airways, leading to breathing difficulties.

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Immunosuppressive Drugs

Medications used to weaken the immune system, often to prevent organ rejection after transplantation or manage autoimmune diseases.

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Nephrotoxicity

Kidney damage or dysfunction caused by a drug or other substance.

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Hirsutism

Excessive hair growth, particularly in women, in areas where men typically have more hair.

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Gingival Hyperplasia

Overgrowth of gum tissue, often caused by medications or certain medical conditions.

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T-cell Deficiency

A type of primary immunodeficiency characterized by dysfunctional T lymphocytes or a decrease in their number.

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What triggers a Type I Hypersensitivity reaction?

Type I hypersensitivity reactions are triggered by allergens, which are normally harmless substances but cause abnormal immune responses.

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What happens during a Type I hypersensitivity reaction?

When a person with a Type I hypersensitivity is re-exposed to an allergen, IgE antibodies on mast cells cross-link with the allergen. This triggers degranulation, releasing vasoactive mediators, causing vasodilation, smooth muscle contraction, and symptoms like sneezing, itching, and hives.

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What are the characteristic features of Type I Hypersensitivity?

Type I hypersensitivity reactions are characterized by their immediacy, often occurring within minutes, and the involvement of IgE antibodies, mast cells, and basophils. They can range in severity from mild (e.g., sneezing) to severe (e.g., anaphylaxis).

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Immunodeficiency

A condition where the immune system is weakened, making the body more vulnerable to infections.

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Autoimmunity

A condition where the immune system mistakenly attacks the body's own tissues.

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Hypersensitivity

An exaggerated or inappropriate immune response to an antigen.

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Immunosuppressant

A drug that suppresses the immune system's activity.

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HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus)

A virus that attacks and weakens the immune system, leading to AIDS.

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AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome)

A disease caused by HIV, characterized by a severely weakened immune system and vulnerability to opportunistic infections.

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Autoimmune Disease

A disease that results from the immune system attacking its own body tissues.

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Prevalence of Autoimmune Diseases

Autoimmune diseases affect 5-7% of the human population, with women being more likely to be affected.

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What is AIDS?

Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) is a condition caused by HIV, where the immune system is severely weakened and unable to fight off infections.

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AGPAR Score

A quick assessment of a newborn's health using five criteria: Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, and Respiration, each scored from 0 to 2, with a total score of 7 or above considered normal.

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Asthma

A condition where the airways narrow due to inflammation, muscle contraction, and increased mucus production, leading to difficulty breathing.

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What are some common opportunistic infections in AIDS patients?

Common opportunistic infections in AIDS patients include PCP (Pneumocystis jiroveci Pneumonia), Cryptococcal disease, Candidiasis, Toxoplasmosis, and MAC (Mycobacterium Avium Complex).

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Why are opportunistic infections a concern for AIDS patients?

AIDS patients have a severely weakened immune system, making them vulnerable to these infections that wouldn't usually harm a healthy person.

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Study Notes

Module 4: Adverse Reactions and Immune Defects

  • This course is designed for interaction with online modules
  • The Module Companion Guide complements the online slides
  • Refer to the online module if there are discrepancies between the guide and the slides
  • Do not distribute the Module Companion Guide to students not enrolled in MICR 270
  • This is a violation of Queen's University's Academic Integrity Policy
  • Students found in violation may face sanctions

Table of Contents (Module 4 Companion Guide)

  • Introduction (includes Course Toolbox, Learning Outcomes, Module Assignments)
  • Journal Article Assignment
  • Scientific Poster Assignment
  • Module Outline
  • Section 1: Immunodeficiency
    • Immunodeficiency
    • Classification of Primary Immunodeficiencies
    • Secondary Immunodeficiency: The Case of HIV/AIDS (mode of transmission, immune response, antiretroviral therapy)
    • Questions: Primary Immunodeficiencies, Testing the Immune Response
    • Blood Test Results, Interpreting Negative Results, Clinical History and Initial Examination,
    • Screening Techniques, Complete Blood Counts, Infection vs. Immunodeficiency
  • Section 2: Autoimmunity
    • Autoimmunity
    • Classification of Autoimmune Diseases (Organ-Specific and Systemic)
    • Graves Disease, Rheumatoid Arthritis, Immunosuppressants and Organ Transplants, Impact of Immunosuppression on the Host, opportunistic infections
  • Section 3: Hypersensitivity
    • Classification of Hypersensitivities (Type I, Type II, Type III, Type IV)
    • Hypersensitivity - Patient Case #1 (Test Results, Diagnosis)
    • Questions relating to Hypersensitivity and Patient Cases
  • Conclusion
    • Module Summary
    • Concept Map: List of Immunology Terminology
    • Learning Outcomes
    • Module Assignments

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Test your knowledge on adverse reactions and immune defects in Module 4 of MICR 270. This quiz covers topics such as immunodeficiency, its classifications, and HIV/AIDS. Ensure you understand the material thoroughly as it aligns with the course's learning outcomes and assignments.

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