Medical Microbiology Quiz
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Questions and Answers

Which serovars of C.trachomatis are known to cause trachoma eye infections?

  • Serovars D - K
  • Serovars A - K (correct)
  • Serovars L1, L2, L2a, L2b, L3
  • Serovars A, B, Ba, C (correct)

What type of infections can serovars D - K of C.trachomatis cause in adults?

  • Pneumonia and conjunctivitis
  • Invasive urogenital disease
  • Chronic eye infection and blindness
  • Urogenital infections and mild eye infections (correct)

What is the primary clinical manifestation associated with the LGV biovar of C.trachomatis?

  • Urethritis and prostatitis
  • Chronic eye infection
  • Mild conjunctivitis
  • Inguinal and anorectal symptoms (correct)

Which specimen type is NOT recommended for collecting samples of C.trachomatis?

<p>Wooden sticks (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the sensitivity of direct microscopic examination for diagnosing neonatal inclusion conjunctivitis and trachoma?

<p>95% (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does Bacillary angiomatosis primarily cause in immunocompromised individuals?

<p>Mass formation from blood vessels (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which organism is primarily responsible for causing rat-bite fever?

<p>Spirillum minus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is Klebsiella granulomatis diagnosed?

<p>Detection of Donovan bodies (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic feature is used to identify Spirillum minus under a microscope?

<p>Bipolar flagella and dark field microscopy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which method is used for the presumptive identification of Bartonella henselae?

<p>Histopathological examination with Warthin-Starry stain (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following carbapenems demonstrates resistance in KPC producing Enterobacteriaceae?

<p>Ertapenem (B), Meropenem (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What test is recommended for detecting inducible clindamycin resistance?

<p>D test (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What indicates positive results for inducible clindamycin resistance in the D test?

<p>Decreased clindamycin inhibition zone next to erythromycin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is more reliable for detecting oxacillin-resistant staphylococci compared to methicillin?

<p>Oxacillin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of growth on the oxacillin screen plate incubated at < 35°C?

<p>Any growth is considered significant (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which organisms are intrinsically resistant to vancomycin?

<p>E.casseliflavus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What method can be used to detect vancomycin resistance in staphylococci?

<p>Broth dilution (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What variant is known for exhibiting resistance to vancomycin in MRSA isolates?

<p>VISA (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What term describes antimicrobial agents that kill bacteria?

<p>Bactericidal (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of antibiotic has a broad spectrum of activity?

<p>Cephalosporins (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'antagonism' refer to in drug interactions?

<p>One agent interferes with the activity of another (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanism of action is NOT utilized by antimicrobial agents?

<p>Interference with metabolic pathways (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do beta-lactams exert their action?

<p>By binding to penicillin-binding proteins (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a semisynthetic antibiotic?

<p>ampicillin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does 'narrow spectrum' indicate in terms of antimicrobial agents?

<p>Effective against specific groups of bacteria (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following antibiotics is a glycopeptide?

<p>Dalbavancin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which are characteristics of gram-positive bacteria?

<p>Thick peptidoglycan cell wall (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of clavulanic acid in combination with beta-lactam antibiotics?

<p>It inhibits beta-lactamases (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of resistance associated with the mecA gene?

<p>Confers resistance to all penicillins (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do anaerobes exhibit intrinsic resistance to aminoglycosides?

<p>They lack the required system for uptake of these drugs. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes a plasmid?

<p>A mobile DNA element that is extrachromosomal (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main difference between constitutive and inducible resistance expression?

<p>Constitutive resistance is generally expressed constantly. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is true about Chlamydia's growth requirements?

<p>Chlamydia is an obligate intracellular parasite. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What component is characteristic of the outer membrane of Chlamydia species?

<p>Presence of lipopolysaccharide (LPS) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the infectious form of Chlamydia known as?

<p>Elementary body (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are Chlamydia serovars categorized?

<p>By the major outer membrane protein (MOMP) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the McFarland 0.5 standard represent in terms of bacterial concentration?

<p>1.5 x 10^8 CFU/mL (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which method is used to determine the Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC) in broth dilution tests?

<p>Macrodilution (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What additional component is added to Mueller-Hinton broth for testing Streptococcus?

<p>Horse blood (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of the purity plate in broth dilution tests?

<p>To check for contamination (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the serum bactericidal test, what is measured to assess the effectiveness of antibiotics?

<p>Colony count on agar plates (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What indicates complete resistance to an antibiotic in the Kirby Bauer disk diffusion method?

<p>No zone of inhibition (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can the Minimum Bactericidal Concentration (MBC) be defined as?

<p>The concentration killing 99.9% of organisms (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about the Microdilution method is true?

<p>It is performed in microtiter trays. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of the Mueller-Hinton agar in the disk diffusion test?

<p>To standardize testing across laboratories (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which method involves using antibiotic impregnated disks?

<p>Disk diffusion method (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Antimicrobial agent

A substance that inhibits the growth of microorganisms, including bacteria, fungi, and viruses.

Antibiotic

A type of antimicrobial agent produced by bacteria and fungi that inhibits the growth of other microorganisms.

Antibacterial agent

An antimicrobial agent that specifically targets bacteria.

Chemotherapeutic agent

A substance used to treat diseases, including antimicrobial and anticancer drugs.

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Bactericidal

An agent that kills bacteria.

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Bacteriostatic

An agent that inhibits the growth of bacteria but does not kill them.

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Spectrum of activity

The range of microorganisms that an antimicrobial agent can affect.

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Mechanism of action

The specific way an antimicrobial agent works to harm its target organism.

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Additive drug combination

When multiple antimicrobial agents work together, their individual effects add up for a stronger result.

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Synergistic drug combination

When multiple antimicrobial agents work together, their combined effect is much stronger than the sum of their individual effects.

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What is the Trachoma biovar of Chlamydia trachomatis?

This biovar of Chlamydia trachomatis includes serovars A through K and is responsible for causing trachoma, a chronic infection of the eye, which is the leading cause of blindness worldwide.

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What conditions are associated with Chlamydia trachomatis biovar containing serovars D-K?

This biovar of Chlamydia trachomatis includes serovars D through K. It is responsible for a variety of infections, including inclusion conjunctivitis, urogenital infections, and pneumonia.

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What is the LGV biovar of Chlamydia trachomatis, and what are the symptoms?

This biovar of Chlamydia trachomatis includes serovars L1, L2, L2a, L2b, and L3. It causes lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), a sexually transmitted infection characterized by painful inguinal and anorectoal symptoms.

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How can Chlamydia trachomatis infection occur in newborns?

Chlamydia trachomatis can be passed from mother to newborn during delivery. This can lead to conjunctivitis, nasopharyngeal infection, and pneumonia in infants.

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What type of cells are required for successful Chlamydia trachomatis diagnosis?

Chlamydia trachomatis is an intracellular parasite, which means it infects cells within the host's body. Therefore, specimens collected for diagnosis must contain host epithelial cells.

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McFarland Standards

A standardized method for determining the concentration of bacteria in a solution.

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Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC)

The lowest concentration of an antibiotic that inhibits the growth of a specific bacteria.

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Broth Dilution Method

A method for determining the MIC of an antibiotic by serially diluting the antibiotic in a broth medium.

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Agar Dilution Method

A method for determining the MIC of an antibiotic where the antibiotic is incorporated into the agar.

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Disk Diffusion Method (Kirby Bauer)

A method for determining the susceptibility of bacteria to antibiotics using antibiotic impregnated disks or strips.

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Minimum Bactericidal Concentration (MBC)

A test that measures the amount of bacteria killed by a specific concentration of an antibiotic. It is performed to determine the bactericidal activity of an antibiotic.

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Serum Bactericidal Test (Schlichter test)

This test uses patient serum with antibiotics to see if it can kill the infecting bacteria.

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Trough Level

The concentration of an antibiotic in the patient's bloodstream just before the next dose is given.

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Peak Level

The concentration of an antibiotic in the patient's bloodstream at its highest point, usually 30-90 minutes after administration.

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Microdilution Method

A method for determining the MIC of an antibiotic using microtiter plates.

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What does the mecA gene do?

The mecA gene is found in MRSA and codes for a low-affinity penicillin-binding protein (PBP). This PBP is less susceptible to the effects of penicillin antibiotics, resulting in resistance to all penicillins.

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How are anaerobic bacteria resistant to aminoglycosides?

Organisms that are intrinsically resistant to aminoglycosides lack the oxidative electron transport system necessary for the uptake of these antibiotics. Without this system, aminoglycosides cannot enter the bacteria and exert their effects.

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What are transposons and integrons and why are they important?

Transposons and integrons are mobile DNA elements that can jump between different parts of the genome, carrying genes for antibiotic resistance. This allows bacteria to quickly acquire resistance genes, even from other species.

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What is constitutive resistance?

Constitutive resistance means that a bacterium always expresses the resistance mechanism, regardless of the presence of the antibiotic. This is like having a 'shield' up all the time.

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What is heterogeneous resistance?

Heterogeneous resistance occurs when only a portion of the bacterial population expresses the resistance mechanism. This is like having some bacteria with a 'shield' while others don't.

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What makes Chlamydia unique?

Chlamydia are bacteria that are obligate intracellular parasites, meaning they need to live inside a host cell to survive and multiply. They are incapable of growing on non-living media.

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What is the infectious form of Chlamydia?

Elementary bodies (EB) are the infectious form of Chlamydia. They are resistant to harsh environments and can survive outside of a host cell. They are responsible for transmitting the infection to new cells.

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What are the three species of Chlamydia that cause human diseases?

Chlamydia trachomatis, C. pneumoniae, and C. psittaci are the three species of Chlamydia that cause human diseases. These species can be differentiated based on the major outer membrane protein (MOMP), which is specific to each species.

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Cat-scratch disease

A disease caused by the bacterium Bartonella henselae, often spread through cat scratches or bites. It typically causes swollen lymph nodes, fever, and fatigue, and resolves within a few months.

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Bartonella henselae

A type of bacteria known for its helical shape and the ability to cause a range of infections in immunocompromised individuals. It's often spread through cat scratches and bites, and can manifest as cat scratch disease, bacillary angiomatosis, endocarditis, and bacteremia.

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Bartonella species

Small gram-negative rods that are oxidase and catalase negative. They typically grow slowly on blood agar and chocolate agar, and can be identified through the Warthin-Starry stain, which highlights the bacteria within tissues.

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Bacillary Angiomatosis (BA)

A type of bacterial infection characterized by the proliferation of blood vessels, leading to the formation of masses. It's commonly observed in immunocompromised individuals, particularly those with HIV, and is frequently caused by Bartonella henselae or Bartonella quintana.

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Spirillum minus

A bacterium known for its helical shape and the ability to cause rat-bite fever, also called sodoku. It is transmitted through rat bites and scratches, and is difficult to grow in the lab but can be visualized with dark-field microscopy or Giemsa stain.

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Carbapenem Resistance

A type of bacterial resistance where the bacteria are resistant to carbapenems, a class of antibiotics often used for serious infections. Examples of carbapenems include imipenem, meropenem and ertapenem.

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Altered PBPs

A type of resistance to penicillin, involving alterations in the proteins that build bacterial cell walls.

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Inducible Clindamycin Resistance

A type of resistance where bacteria appear resistant to erythromycin but susceptible to clindamycin, but may actually have a 'hidden' resistance to clindamycin that's activated in the presence of erythromycin.

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D Test

A test to detect inducible clindamycin resistance, where erythromycin and clindamycin disks are placed on a bacterial culture plate. A decreased clindamycin inhibition zone on the side next to the erythromycin disk indicates inducible resistance.

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Oxacillin-Resistant Staphylococci (MRSA)

A type of bacterial resistance to oxacillin, a type of penicillin, characterized by the presence of the MecA protein. This resistance is often difficult to detect due to 'heteroresistance,' where there are variations in resistance even within the same bacterial population.

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Modified Testing Conditions for MRSA

Modified test conditions used for detecting MRSA, involving the use of a special growth medium that allows the bacteria to grow even if they are only slightly resistant to oxacillin.

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Vancomycin Resistance

A type of resistance to vancomycin, a powerful antibiotic used for treating serious infections, where the bacteria do not fully respond to vancomycin even at high doses.

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Intrinsically Resistant Bacteria

A type of bacteria that naturally has a high level of resistance to vancomycin. This resistance is not acquired through mutations, but is inherent to that type of bacteria.

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Study Notes

Antimicrobial Agents

  • Antimicrobial agent - kills or inhibits organisms
  • Natural: antibiotic
  • Semisynthetic: chemically modified antibiotics
  • Synthetic: man-made
  • Antibiotics - substances produced by bacteria and fungi that inhibit the growth of other organisms
  • Antibacterial agent - Antimicrobial agents that affect bacteria
  • Chemotherapeutic agent - substance used to treat disease
  • Bactericidal - "cide" means kill; agent kills bacteria
  • Bacteriostatic - "static" means no change; agent inhibits bacteria

Spectrum of Activity

  • Narrow spectrum - only certain groups covered
  • Broad spectrum - gram positive and gram negative coverage

Mechanisms of Action

  • Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis
  • Interference of plasma membrane
  • Inhibition of folate synthesis
  • Interference of DNA replication
  • Interference of DNA transcription
  • Interference of mRNA translation

Drug Combinations

  • Additive - effect is sum of activity of individual antimicrobial agents (1+2=3)
  • Synergism - effect is amplified (1+2=4)
  • Antagonism - one agent interferes with activity of other (1+2=1)

Cell Wall Characteristics

  • Not found in mammalian cells
  • Cell wall characteristics affect antibiotics spectrum of activity
  • Gram-positive: thick peptidoglycan cell wall
  • Gram-negative: thin peptidoglycan surrounded by outer membrane
  • Peptidoglycan is AKA murein layer

Gram-Positive and Gram-Negative Cell Walls

  • Diagrams showing the structural differences, highlighting the cell wall layers, and cytoplasmic membranes of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.

Peptidoglycan Biosynthesis

  • Synthesis of precursors in cytoplasm
  • Transport of precursors across cytoplasmic membrane
  • Insertion of precursors into cell wall
  • Transpeptidation and transglycolation

Cell Wall Inhibitors

  • Beta-lactam antibiotics
    • Penicillins (Ampicillin, Oxacillin, Methicillin)
    • Cephalosporins (Cephalexin, cefotaxime, ceftriaxone)
    • Monobactams (Aztreonam)
    • Carbapenems (Imipenem, doripenem, ertapenem)
  • Glycopeptides
    • Vancomycin
    • Dalbavancin

Other

  • Polymyxins - plasma membrane disruption
  • Active against gram-negative bacteria
  • Nitrofurantoin - treats UTIs

Folate Synthesis

  • Folic acid pathway provides precursors for DNA synthesis
  • Dihydropteroate synthase
  • Dihydrofolate reductase
  • Sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim - broad spectrum

Sulfonamides

  • Sulfamethoxazole
  • Mechanism of action: inhibits folic acid synthesis (DNA synthesis)
  • Humans do not synthesize folic acid
  • Competitively binds PABA, an essential component of metabolism
  • For UTIs, enteric infections

DNA and RNA

  • Transcription mediated by RNA polymerase
  • RNA polymerase is targeted by Rifampin
  • blocks RNA chain elongation treating mycobacteria, staph, strep, enterococci

DNA Replication Inhibition

  • Enzymes required for DNA replication: Topoisomerases, DNA gyrases
  • Quinolones/Fluoroquinolones (Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, gemifloxacin) – inhibits topoisomerase IV and/or DNA gyrase, broad spectrum, including P. aeruginosa

mRNA Translation

  • 30S and 50S ribosomal subunits bind to mRNA.

Protein Synthesis Inhibition

  • Aminoglycosides (Gentamicin, tobramycin, amikacin) – inhibits 30S ribosomal subunit, active against GP and GN but not anaerobes, ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
  • Tetracyclines (Doxycycline, minocycline, tetracycline) – inhibits 30S ribosomal subunit, broad spectrum including mycoplasma and chlamydia
  • Macrolides (Erythromycin, clarithromycin, azithromycin) – inhibits 50S ribosomal subunit, broad spectrum.
  • Lincosamides (clindamycin) and Streptogramins (dalfopristin/quinupristin) – inhibits 50S ribosomal subunit, broad spectrum
  • Oxazolidinone (linezolid)
  • Glycylcycline (tigecycline)
  • Chloramphenicol - toxicity – aplastic anemia

Mycobacterial Chemotherapy

  • Isoniazid (INH) - inhibits synthesis of mycolic acid (cell wall)
  • Rifampin – blocks RNA polymerase
  • Ethambutol – ? inhibits cell wall synthesis
  • Streptomycin – inhibits protein synthesis

Mycobacterial Chemotherapy - Therapeutic Considerations

  • Mutations are common (drug resistance is high)
  • Multiple drugs are used to kill and prevent MDR-TB (Multi-drug resistant Tuberculosis)

Mechanisms of Resistance

  • Intrinsic - normal genetic, structural, or physiologic state
  • Acquired - altered cellular physiology, genetic changes, or mutations in genetic code

Mechanisms of Resistance (continued)

  • Decreased uptake or accumulation (impermeability, efflux, biofilms)
  • Enzymatic inactivation or modification (target site modification)
    • Acquisition of new target
    • Pathway bypass
  • Impermeability of cell wall
  • Efflux
  • Biofilms
  • Modification of aminoglycosides
  • Inactivation by beta-lactamases

Beta-Lactamases

  • Hydrolyze the beta-lactam ring.
  • Produced by both gram-positive and gram-negative organisms
  • Most common beta-lactamase enzyme is penicillinase.
  • Virtually all gram-negative bacteria are intrinsically resistant via beta-lactamase production
  • Staph are most common gram-positive producers

Beta-Lactamases (continued)

  • Cephalosporins were created to be resistant to all beta-lactamases
  • Beta-lactamases vary in spectrum of use
  • Extended spectrum beta-lactamases (ESBLs) - beta-lactamase enzymes that inactivate all penicillins and cephalosporins

Mechanisms of Resistance (continued)

  • Target site modification: drug binds poorly (or not at all) to target site.
  • Altering of PBP decreases affinity for beta-lactam drugs.
  • Mutations to topoisomerase IV and DNA gyrase increase resistance to quinolones.
  • Addition of methylase to ribosome decreases binding of MLS antimicrobials
  • Vancomycin-resistant enterococci altered cell wall

Mechanisms of Resistance (continued)

  • Vancomycin resistance (vanA, vanB, vanC genes)
  • vanA on plasmid is transmissible
  • Van-resistant enterococci transfer resistance to staph - vancomycin intermediate S. aureus (VISA) and vancomycin resistant S. aureus (VRSA)
  • Acquisition of new target site (mecA gene; found in MRSA; encodes for low affinity PBP; resistant to all penicillins).
  • Bypass mechanisms - organism circumvents consequences of antimicrobial action.
  • Anaerobes are intrinsically resistant to aminoglycosides because they lack the oxidative electron transport system required for uptake.

Dissemination of Antimicrobial Resistance

  • Transformation, transduction, conjugation
  • Plasmids (extrachromosomal, circular, replicating DNA)
  • Transposons and integrons (mobile DNA elements)

Resistance Expression

  • Constitutive - organism constantly expressing resistance mechanism
  • Inducible - resistance only when exposed to agent
  • Constitutive-inducible - constant expression at low levels
  • Homogenous - entire bacterial population expressing resistance.
  • Heterogeneous - some bacteria in population express resistance

Chlamydia

  • Three species cause human diseases: Chlamydia trachomatis, Chlamydia pneumoniae, and Chlamydia psittaci
  • Differ from other bacteria by not growing on non-living media, sensitivity to interferon, and being obligate intracellular parasites.
  • Characteristics: obligate intracellular parasite, dependent on host for adenosine-5'-triphosphate (ATP), lack energy metabolism, grow and multiply only inside animal or host epithelial cells
  • Replication cycle: elementary body (infectious), Reticulate body (non-infectious)
  • Antigens: outer membrane similar to Gram-negative bacteria, but no peptidoglycan. Components: lipopolysaccharide (LPS), major outer membrane protein (MOMP), specific for each species and subspecies, species subdivided into serotypes (serovars) based on MOMP
  • Chlamydia trachomatis: 3 biovars (Trachoma, Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), Mouse pneumonitis), each biovar contains different serovars
  • Serovars D-K responsible for: inclusion conjunctivitis, eye infections in adults and newborns, colonization in the nasopharynx (leading to pneumonia) and in the genital tract. Urogenital infections, non-gonococcal urethritis, epididymitis, prostatitis in men, pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) in females
  • LGV biovar - serovars L1, L2, L2a, L2b, L3. Invasive urogenital disease, inguinal and anorectal symptoms, enter lymph nodes near genital tract.
  • Newborn Chlamydia trachomatis: transmitted via birth canal, can cause conjunctivitis, nasopharyngeal infection, or pneumonia.
  • Specimens: MUST contain host epithelial cells, avoid wooden sticks (toxic), and may include endocervical, urethral, conjunctival samples
    • lower respiratory tract (RT) secretions for Ch. pneumoniae and Ch. psittaci

Chlamydia trachomatis - Trachoma biovar

  • Serovars A-K - cause trachoma eye infection. Chronic eye infection. Leading cause of blindness in world. Found near equator. Causes scarring and abrasion of cornea.

Chlamydia trachomatis - Trachoma biovar

  • Serovars D-K - inclusion conjunctivitis in adults and newborns. Can colonize nasopharynx (lead to pneumonia) and genital tract. Milder eye infections

Chlamydia trachomatis - LGV biovar - Serovars L1, L2, L2a, L2b, L3

  • Invasive urogenital disease, Inguinal and anorectal symptoms, Enter lymph nodes near genital tract, Inflammation. Seen in tropics and subtropics

Chlamydia pneumoniae

  • Common infection in US, detected using serological methods. Same culture techniques
  • Mild or asymptomatic
  • Affects young adults
  • Prolonged pharyngitis followed by bronchitis or pneumonia
  • Potential risk factor for Guillain-Barré syndrome, asthma, and cardiovascular disease

Chlamydia psittaci

  • Causes ornithosis (psittacosis or parrot fever), zoonotic infection
  • Occupational hazard for pet bird handlers and poultry workers, rare in US
  • Acute lower respiratory infection
  • Cultures not sensitive (BSL3)
  • Diagnosed serologically

Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing and Therapy

  • Ideal antibiotic: selective toxicity to the pathogenic agent w/o harming the patient, treats diseases caused by GP and GN, host does not develop hypersensitivity/allergic reaction, penetrates tissues/blood-brain barrier, and cost is minimal
  • Susceptibility Terms: MIC - lowest concentration visibly inhibiting organism growth, MBC - lowest concentration killing >99.9% of organism, Susceptible/Sensitive, Intermediate, Resistant
  • Susceptibility Standards: Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) or National Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards (NCCLS) develops standards for testing methods (S, I, R)
  • Test Batteries: Panel of antimicrobial agents for routine testing against commonly isolated organisms (selected by organism group e.g., GN, GP, or urine)
  • Group A- primary agents, reported first
  • Group B- if group A agents are ineffective or cannot be administered
  • Group C- supplemental
  • Group U- urine only
  • Preparation of Inoculum: requires a pure culture, most important step of susceptibility testing. Determine # bacteria per mL, compare to standard of turbidity (e.g., McFarland standards for known # bacteria)

Standardized Testing Methods

  • Broth Dilution Method - antibiotic suspended in a solution
  • Agar Dilution Method - antibiotic incorporated into the agar
  • Diffusion Method - antibiotic impregnated disks or strips
  • Special Methods

Broth Dilution Tests

  • Provides MIC, Serial dilution in Mueller-Hinton broth, add 2-5% horse blood (for strep) or Haemophilus Test Medium (HTM), MH supplemented with hemin and NAD (for Haemophilus spp), Final bacterial concentration is 5 x 10$^5$ CFU/mL.
  • Test methods: Macrodilution (tubes with 1 to 2 mL broth), Microdilution (microtiter trays 0.05-0.1 mL)
  • Internal controls: Growth control (positive growth no antibiotics), sterility check (no inoculation, no growth)
  • Purity plate: inoculated onto BAP agar, Growth well, sterility well checked first

Broth Dilution Tests: MBC

  • Performed in limited situations, Aliquot removed from growth tube, inoculated onto BAP, incubated, Organisms per mL calculated for each tube with no visible growth
  • Colony count compared to inoculum colony count
  • MBC = concentration killing 99.9% of organisms - 1 log reduction in count

Serum Bactericidal Test

  • Schlichter test, Tests patient serum with antibiotics against infecting organism, Incubate overnight, examine for growth, Peak and trough specimens, Trough: just before drug administered, Peak: 30-90 minutes after dose

Microdilution

  • Similar to macrodilution, Plastic microdilution panels inoculated for MIC, Each well holds a micro amount of antibiotic in varying concentrations

Agar Dilution Tests

  • Semi-quantitative, Antimicrobial agents incorporated into agar medium
  • Series of agar plates with different concentrations
  • Standardized suspension inoculated, Incubated and examined for growth

Disk Diffusion Tests (Kirby Bauer)

  • Paper disks impregnated with antibiotic placed on inoculated plates
  • Incubated at 35°C in ambient air, agent diffuses through agar, Measure zone of inhibition.
  • Large zones = more antimicrobial activity
  • No zone = complete resistance

Mueller-Hinton (MH) Agar

  • Standard media for disk diffusion tests
  • QC weekly with E. coli, S. aureus, P. aeruginosa
  • Incubated for 18 hours at 35°C, ambient air
  • Agar depth: 4 mm; Thin depth = increased zones, false susceptibility; thick depth = decreased zones, false resistance
  • pH 7.2-7.4; decreased pH = decreased activity of aminoglycosides, erythromycin, and clindamycin, Increased activity of tetracyclines
  • Fixed cation concentration (Ca++ & Mg++) = increased concentrations result in decreased activity of aminoglycosides against P. aeruginosa and decreased activity of tetracyclines; decreased concentrations have the opposite effect
  • Kirby Bauer Procedure: Inoculation (Standardized suspension 0.5 McFarland, cotton swab streaked over plate in 3 directions), Disk application (within 15 minutes of inoculation), Incubate 18-24 hours, Measure zones against a dark background
  • Disk Diffusion Test Interpretation: Size of Zone dependent of disk concentration, Susceptible isolate: large zone and low MIC; Resistant: small zone and high MIC

Diffusion E-test

  • Agar plates inoculated; Plastic strip with antimicrobial gradient placed on agar, Diffuses through agar
  • Incubated and examined for elliptical zone

Test Performance

  • Inoculum from overnight growth - MHA with sheep blood for strep, Haemophilus
  • Incubated in 5-7% CO2, Chocolate MHA available
  • Disks stored at proper temperature with desiccant
  • Disks not expired, Decreased potency
  • Allow disks to warm to RT before use

Reading and Interpretation

  • Lawn of growth must be confluent
  • Ignore tiny colonies at zone edge
  • Ignore Proteus spp., swarming
  • Obvious colony within clear zone = ignored
  • Can be contamination or mixed culture, or resistant subpopulation

Special Tests

  • Beta-lactamases, ESBLs, Carbapenemases
  • Altered PBPs
  • Inducible Macrolide Resistance
  • Oxacillin Resistance
  • Vancomycin Resistance
  • High-Level Aminoglycoside Resistance
  • Anaerobes

Beta-Lactamase Tests

  • Detects beta-lactamase-mediated resistance to organisms - rapidly tests.
  • Needed for H. influenzae, N. gonorrhoeae, Moraxella catarrhalis, Staphylococcus spp, Bacteroides spp.

Beta-Lactamase Test Methods

  • Nitrocefin - chromogenic cephalosporin (intact beta-lactam = yellow; broken beta-lactam = red).
  • Acidimetric - phenol red pH indicator (penicilloic acid = yellow = positive)

Beta-Lactamase

  • Haemophilus, Neisseria, Bacteroides spp, Moraxella
  • Constitutive expression
  • Staphylococcus spp
  • Inducible expression
  • May need to expose staph to inducing agent (beta-lactam) to stimulate production
  • Enterobacteriaceae & Pseudomonas spp. many different types of beta-lactamases
  • Cannot predict resistance with nitrocefin

ESBLs

  • Typically seen in Klebsiella, Proteus, E. coli
  • Test against cephalosporins and monobactam (Cefpodoxime, Ceftazidime, Cefotaxime, Ceftriaxone; Aztreonam)
  • Confirm via beta-lactamase inhibitor (Clavulanic acid),Restored Antimicrobial activity
  • Report ESBL-producers as resistant to all cephalosporins, penicillins, and monobactams

Carbapenamases

  • Initially identified in K. pneumoniae (KPC)
  • Now in many Enterobacteriaceae
  • Resistance to carbapenems (Imipenem, Meropenem, Ertapenem)

Altered PBPs

  • Detects penicillin resistance
  • Use disk susceptibility and oxacillin disk (more accurate than penicillin disk)

Macrolide Resistance

  • Isolate appears erythromycin-resistant but clindamycin-resistant may be present
  • Seen in staph and strep
  • Performed in MH agar
  • Decreased clindamycin inhibition zone, positive for inducible resistance

Oxacillin-Resistant Staphylococci (MRSA)

  • Oxacillin more reliable than methicillin, Belong to same class of agents, Penicillinase-resistant penicillins, Isolate resistant to one = resistant to all, Mec-A mediated resistance, Staph =heteroresistant = difficult to detect
  • Modify testing conditions: Supplement MH with 2% NaCl, Incubate at < 35°C for 24 hours
  • Any growth is significant
  • Clear zone (hyper beta-lactamase producer), hazy zone (heteroresistance)

Oxacillin-Resistant Staphylococci (MRSA)-Oxacillin screen plate

  • MH agar + 4% NaCL + 6 µg/mL oxacillin, Prepare 0.5 MacFarland suspension, Inoculate plate, Incubate overnight, Any growth is significant

Vancomycin Resistance

  • MRSA isolates with resistance to vancomycin (VISA and VRSA), Broth dilution, Vancomycin agar screen (at 6 µg/mL), Detected by macro E Test (uses a higher concentration of organisms in inoculum)
  • E. faecium more resistant than E. faecalis, Intrinsically resistant E.gallinarium, E. casseliflavus
  • Intrinsic, high-level resistance in Leuconostoc spp., Pediococcus spp.,and Lactobacillus spp

High-Level Aminoglycoside Resistance in Enterococci

  • Enterococci may be treated with ampicillin or penicillin, Bacteriostatic only, Combined with aminoglycoside to achieve bactericidal effect, Intrinsically resistant to low levels of aminoglycosides, Synergistic with cell wall active agent
  • High-level resistance due to enzymatic inactivation, Detect using broth, agar, or disk Screening concentrations (Broth = 500 to 1000 µg/mL)

Anaerobes

  • Reference method is agar dilution (supplemented Brucella laked sheep blood agar), Clinical lab may use broth microdilution (Brucella broth with lysed horse blood), Inoculum is higher (1 x 10$^6$ CFU/mL), Incubation longer (48 hours)

Automated Systems

  • Optical methods to detect susceptibility endpoints (turbidometric, hydrolysis of fluorometric growth substrate), Analyses in shorter period (5 to 15 hours), Use microprocessors, Used to identify GN and GP organisms. Machines: BD Phoenix, Microscan Walkaway, Trek Sensititre, and Vitek

QC

  • Interpretations determined by CLSI, Reference strains (American Type Culture Collection (ATCC), Defined susceptibility/resistance patterns, Range of endpoints (S, I, R), Endpoint is on-scale,Acceptable results defined (e.g., S. aureus ATCC 29213 amikacin MIC range 1-4 µg/mL)
  • Testing each day, reduced to weekly; acceptable results for each drug/bug combo for 20 or 30 consecutive test days; Always performed with new lot numbers
  • Supplemental QC - Periodic testing for specific combos (e.g., MRSA with heteroresistance, Ampicillin-resistant E. cloacae), Verify patient results, Overall antimicrobial susceptibility profile of an organism (e.g., E. coli; S. maltophilia)

Predictor Drugs

  • Staphylococci resistant to oxacillin (report resistance to all beta-lactam drugs)
  • Enterococci with high-level aminoglycoside resistance (report as resistant to all aminoglycosides)
  • Enterococci resistant to ampicillin (report resistance to all penicillin derivatives)

Susceptibility Testing

  • Full Susceptibility Testing Required: Staphylococci, S. pneumoniae, Viridans strep (if from a normally sterile site), Enterococci, Enterobacteriaceae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Acinetobacter spp.
  • Testing occasionally required (beta-lactamase testing): H. influenzae, N. gonorrhoeae, Morexella catarrhalis, Anaerobes, Beta-hemolytic streptococci, Neisseria meningitidis, and Listeria monocytogenes

Miscellaneous Bacteria

  • Mycoplasma, Ureaplasma, Rickettsia, Ehrlichia, Coxiella burnetii
    • Mycoplasma (Mollicutes) characteristics, no cell wall, do not gram stain, pleomorphic, resistant to penicillin and cephalosporins, slow growing, fastidious, cell culture required, atypical pneumoniae & other infections.
  • Ureaplasma (Mollicutes) characteristics, colonized urogenital tract, non-chlamydial, non-gonococcal urethritis in men, upper genital tract infections in women, hydrolyzes urea
  • Rickettsia (arthropod-borne obligate intracellular parasites), GN coccobacilli, predilection for endothelium of blood vessels; never grown in cell-free media. Types: R. rickettsiae, R. akari, R. typhi, R. prowazekii, and Orientia tsutsugamushi - each causes different diseases.
  • Ehrlichia and Anaplasma (pleomorphic GN coccobacilli, obligate intracellular parasites, developmental cycle similar to Chlamydia, replicates in phagocytes, form inclusions called morulae). Specific examples: Ehrlichia chaffeensis, Anaplasma phagocytophilum, Diagnostics: peripheral blood smear, Wright, Giemsa stain, Histologic stain, Nucleic amplification testing (PCR), Serology (retrospective)
  • Coxiella burnetii - causes Q fever; obligate intracellular GN, Zoonotic (cattle, sheep, goats), found in urine, feces, milk, birth products; remains in soil (spore-like lifecycle), transmitted via inhalation of infectious aerosols, complication: endocarditis, death

Miscellaneous GNR

  • Bartonella spp. (e.g., B. quintana, B. henselae) , Spirillum minus, Klebsiella granulomatis, Chryseobacterium, and Chromobacterium violaceum

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Test your knowledge on C.trachomatis serovars, their infections, and diagnostic methods. This quiz covers important topics like trachoma, LGV, and other bacterial diseases. Challenge yourself with questions on infection resistance and diagnostic tests.

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