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Questions and Answers
Which of the following biological molecules are highly versatile?
Which of the following biological molecules are highly versatile?
- Lipids
- Nucleic acids
- Water
- Carbohydrates
- Proteins (correct)
Which of the following enzyme is responsible for the formation of peptide bonds in proteins?
Which of the following enzyme is responsible for the formation of peptide bonds in proteins?
- DNA or RNA polymerase
- glycogen synthase
- peptidyltransferase (correct)
- acyltransferase
- Lipase
Hydrogen bonds mostly occur between hydrogen and which other atoms?
Hydrogen bonds mostly occur between hydrogen and which other atoms?
- Oxygen and nitrogen (correct)
- Silicon and Germanium
- Sodium and magnesium
- Neon, argon, and xenon
- Scandium and vanadium
Which of the following is an amphipathic molecule?
Which of the following is an amphipathic molecule?
Which of the following is necessarily characterized by a non-covalent linkage?
Which of the following is necessarily characterized by a non-covalent linkage?
Which of the following processes is powered by a hydrophobic interaction?
Which of the following processes is powered by a hydrophobic interaction?
What is the concentration of a NaOH solution with a pH of 12.7?
What is the concentration of a NaOH solution with a pH of 12.7?
The pH of a buffered solution is 4.97. What is the approximate ratio of the concentration of acid to conjugate base if the pKa of the acid is 3.97?
The pH of a buffered solution is 4.97. What is the approximate ratio of the concentration of acid to conjugate base if the pKa of the acid is 3.97?
What accounts for peptide bond planarity within a polypeptide?
What accounts for peptide bond planarity within a polypeptide?
Which of the following are hydrophobic molecules?
Which of the following are hydrophobic molecules?
Proline is called “alpha-helix breaker” because of its
Proline is called “alpha-helix breaker” because of its
Which of the following interactions contributes to the secondary structure of a protein?
Which of the following interactions contributes to the secondary structure of a protein?
__________ structure involves interactions between the various side chains of amino acids.
__________ structure involves interactions between the various side chains of amino acids.
Which of the following type of bonds is involved in the tertiary structure of protein folding?
Which of the following type of bonds is involved in the tertiary structure of protein folding?
When cooking an egg, opening the egg over a hot pan causes the non-yolk part of the egg to go from clear and viscous to white and solid. Adding heat to the egg white protein part of the egg is part of a process called what?
When cooking an egg, opening the egg over a hot pan causes the non-yolk part of the egg to go from clear and viscous to white and solid. Adding heat to the egg white protein part of the egg is part of a process called what?
Which of the following is a protein-misfolding disease?
Which of the following is a protein-misfolding disease?
Listed below are some zymogens together with their putative activators. Select the pair that is incorrectly matched.
Listed below are some zymogens together with their putative activators. Select the pair that is incorrectly matched.
Hartnup disease results from the genetic defect in the transporter gene, SLC6A19, which is responsible for the absorption of which of the following amino acids?
Hartnup disease results from the genetic defect in the transporter gene, SLC6A19, which is responsible for the absorption of which of the following amino acids?
Which of the following glycosidic bonds cannot be broken down by human digestive enzymes?
Which of the following glycosidic bonds cannot be broken down by human digestive enzymes?
Lactose intolerance is due to the deficiency of which of the following enzymes?
Lactose intolerance is due to the deficiency of which of the following enzymes?
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding lipid digestion?
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding lipid digestion?
What is the major role of bile salts in lipid metabolism?
What is the major role of bile salts in lipid metabolism?
Which of the following is NOT true regarding micelles in the intestine?
Which of the following is NOT true regarding micelles in the intestine?
What is the function of ApoCII in mature chylomicrons?
What is the function of ApoCII in mature chylomicrons?
Steatorrhea is the presence of excess fat in feces due to poor digestion and malabsorption. Which of the following defect or deficiency in a disorder is likely associated with steatorrhea?
Steatorrhea is the presence of excess fat in feces due to poor digestion and malabsorption. Which of the following defect or deficiency in a disorder is likely associated with steatorrhea?
ALT (Alanine aminotransferase) and AST (aspartate aminotransferase) are abundant in liver and can be used as plasma markers for liver diseases. What is the major function of these enzymes in liver?
ALT (Alanine aminotransferase) and AST (aspartate aminotransferase) are abundant in liver and can be used as plasma markers for liver diseases. What is the major function of these enzymes in liver?
Amino groups of amino acids can be used for the synthesis of other nitrogen-containing molecules. What is the source of the two nitrogens in urea?
I. Glutamate
II. Alanine
III. Aspartate
IV. NH3
Amino groups of amino acids can be used for the synthesis of other nitrogen-containing molecules. What is the source of the two nitrogens in urea? I. Glutamate II. Alanine III. Aspartate IV. NH3
A deficiency in which of the following enzymes would directly limit the ability of the body to fix and dispose of ammonia?
A deficiency in which of the following enzymes would directly limit the ability of the body to fix and dispose of ammonia?
Which of the following statements is TRUE for the disposal of nitrogen in hibernating bears?
Which of the following statements is TRUE for the disposal of nitrogen in hibernating bears?
A patient with PKU (Phenylketonuria) should be put on a life-long diet restricting which of the following?
A patient with PKU (Phenylketonuria) should be put on a life-long diet restricting which of the following?
Which of the following co-factor is involved in the synthesis of succinyl CoA from L-methylmalonyl CoA?
Which of the following co-factor is involved in the synthesis of succinyl CoA from L-methylmalonyl CoA?
Which of the following reactions is an example of ammonia fixation?
Which of the following reactions is an example of ammonia fixation?
What enzyme is deficient in Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD)?
What enzyme is deficient in Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD)?
Which of the following answers completes the sentence correctly? Guanosine is a
Which of the following answers completes the sentence correctly? Guanosine is a
Mycophenolic acid is a drug used to prevent graft rejection by inhibiting an enzyme in de novo purine synthesis. What is the direct target of this drug?
Mycophenolic acid is a drug used to prevent graft rejection by inhibiting an enzyme in de novo purine synthesis. What is the direct target of this drug?
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is caused by
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is caused by
Degradation of which of the following products leads to the production of uric acid during the digestive process?
Degradation of which of the following products leads to the production of uric acid during the digestive process?
What is the carbon source for the carbamoyl phosphate in pyrimidine synthesis?
What is the carbon source for the carbamoyl phosphate in pyrimidine synthesis?
What is the direct target of 5-Fluorouracil, a drug widely used in chemotherapy in cancer?
What is the direct target of 5-Fluorouracil, a drug widely used in chemotherapy in cancer?
Urine FIGlu test could be an indicator of the deficiency of which of the following vitamin?
Urine FIGlu test could be an indicator of the deficiency of which of the following vitamin?
Human dihydrofolate reductase can be effectively and specifically inhibited by the administration of:
Human dihydrofolate reductase can be effectively and specifically inhibited by the administration of:
N5, N10-methylene-THF is the first THF (tetrahydrofolate) derivative generated in cells in one carbon metabolism. Which of the following amino acid provides this methylene (-CH2-) group?
N5, N10-methylene-THF is the first THF (tetrahydrofolate) derivative generated in cells in one carbon metabolism. Which of the following amino acid provides this methylene (-CH2-) group?
What is the source of electrons entering complex II?
What is the source of electrons entering complex II?
In the electron transport chain, what are the pair of electron carriers in and out of complex III?
In the electron transport chain, what are the pair of electron carriers in and out of complex III?
There are 3 conformations of the beta subunit of ATP synthase, with each representing different state of this enzyme. Which conformation represents the active state of ATP synthase for the synthesis of ATP?
There are 3 conformations of the beta subunit of ATP synthase, with each representing different state of this enzyme. Which conformation represents the active state of ATP synthase for the synthesis of ATP?
Many of the carriers in the electron transport chain are cytochromes. The central component of the cytochrome capable of redox reactions is
Many of the carriers in the electron transport chain are cytochromes. The central component of the cytochrome capable of redox reactions is
Why is oxygen necessary in aerobic cellular respiration?
Why is oxygen necessary in aerobic cellular respiration?
Flashcards
Proteins
Proteins
Versatile biological molecules that perform a vast array of functions in the cell, including catalysis, transport, and structure.
Peptidyltransferase
Peptidyltransferase
Enzyme responsible for catalyzing the formation of peptide bonds between amino acids during protein synthesis.
Hydrogen bond
Hydrogen bond
A weak type of non-covalent bond that commonly occurs between a hydrogen atom and either an oxygen or nitrogen atom
Amphipathic molecule
Amphipathic molecule
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Non-covalent linkage
Non-covalent linkage
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Hydrophobic interaction
Hydrophobic interaction
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Denaturation
Denaturation
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Protein-misfolding disease
Protein-misfolding disease
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Zymogen
Zymogen
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Hartnup disease
Hartnup disease
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β-1,4-Glycosidic bond
β-1,4-Glycosidic bond
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Lactose Intolerance
Lactose Intolerance
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Bile salts
Bile salts
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Micelles
Micelles
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ApoCII
ApoCII
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Steatorrhea
Steatorrhea
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ALT/AST function
ALT/AST function
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Nitrogen source in urea
Nitrogen source in urea
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CPS-I
CPS-I
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PKU diet
PKU diet
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Deoxyadenosylcobalamin
Deoxyadenosylcobalamin
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Ammonia fixation
Ammonia fixation
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MSUD deficient enzyme
MSUD deficient enzyme
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Guanosine
Guanosine
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Mycophenolic acid's target
Mycophenolic acid's target
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Lesch-Nyhan cause
Lesch-Nyhan cause
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Uric acid
Uric acid
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Carbamoyl phosphate carbon source
Carbamoyl phosphate carbon source
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5-Fluorouracil target
5-Fluorouracil target
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Urine FIGlu indicator
Urine FIGlu indicator
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Study Notes
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Exam 1 for MCB 450 was held on February 8, 2024.
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The exam consisted of 50 questions, totaling 150 points.
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Proteins are highly versatile biological molecules.
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Peptidyltransferase is responsible for the formation of peptide bonds in proteins.
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Hydrogen bonds mostly occur between hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen atoms.
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Bile acid is an example of an amphipathic molecule.
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Ionic bonds are characterized by non-covalent linkages.
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Membrane formation is powered by hydrophobic interactions.
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A NaOH solution with a pH of 12.7 has a concentration of 0.05 M.
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For a buffered solution with a pH of 4.97 and an acid pKa of 3.97, the approximate ratio of acid to conjugate base is 1:10.
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Peptide bond planarity within a polypeptide is accounted for by the partial double bond character of the peptide bond.
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Nonpolar molecules are hydrophobic.
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Proline is called an "alpha-helix breaker" because the nitrogen atom in the peptide linkage has no hydrogen atom to participate in hydrogen bonds with other amino acids.
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Hydrogen bonds between amino groups and carbonyl groups of different amino acids contribute to the secondary structure of a protein.
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Tertiary structure involves interactions between the various side chains of amino acids.
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Disulfide bonds are involved in the tertiary structure of protein folding.
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Denaturation is the process where the non-yolk part of an egg goes from clear and viscous to white and solid when cooked.
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Alzheimer's disease (AD) is a protein-misfolding disease.
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Pepsinogen activated by trypsin is an incorrectly matched zymogen/activator pair.
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Hartnup disease results from a genetic defect in the transporter gene, SLC6A19, affecting tryptophan absorption.
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α-1,4-Glycosidic bonds cannot be broken down by human digestive enzymes.
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Lactose intolerance is due to a deficiency in lactase.
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"Lipid can only be digested in the stomach and small intestine" is NOT true regarding lipid digestion i.e lipid digestion actually starts in the mouth by lingual lipase.
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Bile salts break up (emulsify) fat globules into smaller hydrophilic coated droplets, playing a major role in lipid metabolism.
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Micelles are NOT transport vehicles after triglycerides and proteins bind during lipid digestion.
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ApoCII in mature chylomicrons is necessary for the activation of lipoprotein lipase in some tissues.
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Steatorrhea is likely associated with a lack of bile acids.
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ALT and AST in the liver transfer the amino groups of different amino acids to α-ketoglutarate.
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Aspartate and NH3 are the source of the two nitrogens in urea.
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A deficiency in carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I (CPS-I) would directly limit the ability of the body to fix and dispose of ammonia.
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Urea from the liver is transported to the small intestine to be converted to NH4+ for reuse in amino acid synthesis in hibernating bears.
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A patient with PKU (Phenylketonuria) should restrict phenylalanine on a life-long diet.
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Deoxyadenosylcobalamin is a co-factor involved in the synthesis of succinyl CoA from L-methylmalonyl CoA.
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Alpha-ketoglutarate being converted to glutamate by glutamate dehydrogenase is an example of ammonia fixation.
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The deficient enzyme in Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD) is branch-chain alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase.
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Guanosine is a purine nucleoside.
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Mycophenolic acid prevents graft rejection by inhibiting IMP dehydrogenase.
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Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is caused by mutations in the HGPRT (Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase) gene.
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Degradation of purines leads to the production of uric acid during the digestive process.
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The carbon source for carbamoyl phosphate in pyrimidine synthesis is CO2.
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Thymidylate synthase is the direct target of 5-Fluorouracil, a widely used drug in chemotherapy for cancer.
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A Urine FIGlu test is conducted to detect a deficiency in Vitamin B12.
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Human dihydrofolate reductase can be effectively and specifically inhibited by the administration of methotrexate.
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Serine provides the methylene (-CH2-) group for N5, N10-methylene-THF in one carbon metabolism.
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FADH2 from the TCA cycle is the source of electrons entering complex II.
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QH2→cytochrome C are the pair of electron carriers in and out of complex III in the electron transport chain.
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The T (tight) form represents the active state of ATP synthase for the synthesis of ATP.
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The central component of the cytochrome capable of redox reactions is an iron atom.
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Oxygen serves as the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain.
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Dicyclohexylcarbodiimide (DCC) inhibits ATP synthase by binding to the carboxylate group of glutamate of the C subunit.
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Electron transfer from the cytosol to the matrix if using the glycerol 3-phosphate shuttle may yield less ATP than mitochondrial NADH.
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2,4-dinitrophenol (DNP) prevents ATP synthesis while allowing electron transport to proceed because DNP can transport protons across the membrane, dissipating the proton gradient.
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Description
Review of Exam 1 for MCB 450 held on February 8, 2024, covering proteins, peptide bonds, hydrogen bonds, and amphipathic molecules. Focus on ionic bonds, hydrophobic interactions, pH calculations, and peptide bond characteristics. Also covers proline's role as an alpha-helix breaker.
