Mental Health Review

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following is a diagnostic criterion for Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)?

  • A persistently elevated mood for a minimum of 2 weeks
  • A rapidly alternating mood between mania and depression
  • A brief episode of sadness lasting a few days
  • A persistently depressed mood for a minimum of 2 weeks (correct)

A client is prescribed an antidepressant. What potentially toxic effect should the nurse monitor for?

  • Hypertension
  • Serotonin Syndrome (correct)
  • Hypoglycemia
  • Bradycardia

What distinguishes Bipolar I disorder from Bipolar II disorder?

  • The duration of depressive episodes
  • The presence of psychotic features in Bipolar II disorder
  • The intensity of manic episodes; Bipolar I involves at least one manic episode, whereas Bipolar II involves hypomanic episodes (correct)
  • The age of onset; Bipolar I develops in adulthood, while Bipolar II develops in adolescence

A nurse is assessing a client with bipolar disorder who is exhibiting rapid speech, flight of ideas, and inflated self-esteem. Which phase of the illness is the client most likely experiencing?

<p>Manic phase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nursing intervention is most important when caring for a client experiencing a manic episode?

<p>Providing a structured, safe environment (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which alteration in behaviour is most closely associated with schizophrenia?

<p>Bizarre behavior (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client with schizophrenia says, "The government is tracking my thoughts using satellites." Which type of alteration in thinking is this?

<p>Delusion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intervention is most appropriate for a client experiencing auditory hallucinations?

<p>Helping the client focus on reality-based activities (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential nursing diagnosis for a client with schizophrenia experiencing positive symptoms?

<p>Disturbed thought processes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is considered a mood stabilizer?

<p>Lithium Carbonate (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client taking a first-generation antipsychotic reports muscle stiffness, tremors, and a shuffling gait. The nurse recognizes these as signs of:

<p>Extrapyramidal symptoms (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potentially fatal side effect associated with first-generation antipsychotics, characterized by sympathetic nervous system hyperactivity?

<p>Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client with a personality disorder consistently displays dramatic, erratic, and impulsive behaviors. Which cluster does personality belong in?

<p>Cluster B (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which therapeutic approach is most commonly associated with treating borderline personality disorder?

<p>Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is experiencing both a substance use disorder and a mental health condition. What term describes this?

<p>Concurrent disorder (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which neurotransmitter is most directly involved in the brain's reward system and is significantly affected by addictive drugs?

<p>Dopamine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the priority nursing intervention when caring for someone experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal?

<p>Administering benzodiazepines (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which best describes the Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) approach to managing alcohol dependence?

<p>A self-supporting fellowship based on spiritual principles (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to Hans Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS), what occurs during the alarm stage?

<p>The sympathetic nervous system is activated, initiating the fight-or-flight response. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary focus of safety planning with a patient experiencing suicidal thoughts?

<p>Creating a document to guide the person away from an intense crisis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do warning signs for suicide differ from protective factors?

<p>Warning signs indicate an increased immediate risk of suicide, while protective factors promote resilience. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client treated with a first-generation antipsychotic for several years begins exhibiting involuntary movements of the tongue and repetitive lip smacking. Which condition is the client most likely experiencing?

<p>Tardive dyskinesia (TD) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an assessment, an individual with schizophrenia states, "The flumtree sings to the moon, but the moon has no cheese, green is purple, no it is not!" Which of the following alterations in speech is the individual expressing?

<p>Word Salad (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of mania, an individual firmly believes they possess the ability to control the weather and is observed attempting to “summon rain” through dance and incantations. Which subtype of delusion is most consistent with these actions?

<p>Grandiose (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which group is least likely to be susceptible to depressive episodes?

<p>Specific personality types (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum duration of persistently depressed mood required for a diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)?

<p>2 weeks (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The diagnosis for MDD may include specifiers to describe features of depression. Which of the following is NOT a specifier?

<p>Histrionic features (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about the epidemiology of depression is accurate?

<p>Depression is a leading cause of disability. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to Box 13.1, which of the following is a risk factor for depression?

<p>Chronic medical conditions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is considered a biological factor in the etiology of depression?

<p>Hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the term SIGECAPS used for in the nursing assessment of depression?

<p>A mnemonic to guide assessment. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a 'vegetative sign' of depression that a nurse might assess?

<p>Changes in sleep or appetite (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is planning care for a client in the acute phase of depression. Which intervention is the priority?

<p>Assessing suicide risk and ensuring safety (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary focus of interventions during the continuation phase of depression treatment?

<p>Preventing relapse (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking an antidepressant begins showing signs of hyperthermia, cardiovascular shock, and altered mental states. Which condition is most likely indicated, and what is the immediate intervention?

<p>Serotonin Syndrome; discontinue the antidepressant and provide supportive treatment. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential treatment for Serotonin Syndrome?

<p>Serotonin receptor blockade with cyproheptadine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the understanding of estrogen levels potentially influence the treatment of postpartum psychosis?

<p>By supporting the use of estrogen replacement therapy in some cases. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A woman with a history of bipolar disorder gives birth and within two weeks develops severe postpartum psychosis. Statistically, what is her increased risk?

<p>Four times greater chance of subsequent conversion to bipolar disorder (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intervention would be LEAST appropriate to include in a care plan for a patient experiencing depressive symptoms during the maintenance phase of treatment?

<p>Implementing a crisis protocol for immediate suicide risk (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best describes the historical understanding of bipolar disorder?

<p>It was previously known as manic depression. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor contributes to bipolar disorders frequently being unrecognized or misdiagnosed?

<p>Symptoms often overlap with other mental health conditions resulting in an obscured presentation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the critical distinction between a manic episode in Bipolar I disorder and hypomania in Bipolar II disorder?

<p>The presence of psychotic features in mania versus their absence in hypomania. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary characteristic that differentiates cyclothymic disorder from bipolar I and bipolar II disorders?

<p>The severity and duration of mood symptoms, which do not meet the full criteria for hypomanic or depressive episodes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is admitted with a diagnosis of 'Bipolar and related disorder due to another medical condition'. Which of the following best explains this diagnosis?

<p>The client's bipolar symptoms have been triggered by a separate physical illness or medical treatment. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nursing assessment reveals a client with bipolar I disorder experiencing a manic episode. Which of the following findings would be the MOST concerning?

<p>Delusions of grandeur and auditory hallucinations. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering the epidemiological data on bipolar disorders, which statement is most consistent with gender-related risk patterns?

<p>Men and women are affected at nearly equal rates, but women are more prone to thyroid disease. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Bipolar I Disorder also experiences a comorbid anxiety disorder. Statistically, how common is this comorbidity?

<p>75% of patients with Bipolar I Disorder also experience anxiety. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During team rounds, a patient experiencing symptoms of mania is prescribed lithium. Which information is most critical to include during health teaching with this patient?

<p>The importance of maintaining a consistent sodium intake and adequate hydration. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An experienced psychiatric nurse is reflecting on the complex interplay of factors contributing to a patient's bipolar I disorder and comorbid substance use disorder. Which of the following statements reflects the most nuanced understanding of this relationship?

<p>The patient is self-medicating with substances in an attempt to find relief from the intensity of hypomanic symptoms. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best captures the relationship between psychosis and schizophrenia?

<p>Psychosis is a symptom that can be present in schizophrenia. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the approximate worldwide lifetime prevalence of schizophrenia?

<p>1% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Beyond genetics and neurobiological factors, which of the following is considered a contributing factor to the etiology of schizophrenia?

<p>Prenatal stressors. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client experiencing associative looseness might exhibit which of the following speech patterns?

<p>Switching from one topic to another with no logical connection. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of schizophrenia, what are 'affective symptoms' primarily related to?

<p>Disturbances in mood and emotional expression. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with schizophrenia is in the stabilization phase of treatment. What is a primary goal for this patient?

<p>Understanding the illness and adhering to treatment. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of first-generation antipsychotics (FGAs) compared to second-generation antipsychotics (SGAs)?

<p>Higher risk of neurological side effects. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST critical nursing action related to medication for a patient with schizophrenia?

<p>Assessing for the development of side effects. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on a first-generation antipsychotic presents with a sudden high fever, muscle rigidity, and altered mental status. What condition is MOST likely occurring?

<p>Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST appropriate interpretation of ‘E’ in the mnemonic FEVER when assessing for Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)?

<p>Encephalopathy (altered mental status). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary characteristic of individuals with personality disorders?

<p>Significant challenges in self-identity or self-direction and impaired empathy or intimacy. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cluster of personality disorders is characterized by odd or eccentric behaviors?

<p>Cluster A (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following personality disorders is characterized by a pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others?

<p>Antisocial personality disorder (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is most accurate regarding the prevalence of personality disorders in the general population?

<p>Personality disorders are estimated to affect 4% to 15% of the population. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Borderline Personality Disorder is admitted after a suicide attempt. Which of the following comorbidities would the nurse anticipate?

<p>Substance use disorder. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What term describes the experience of rapidly changing and poorly modulated moods, commonly seen in personality disorders?

<p>Emotional dysregulation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

From a nursing perspective on etiology, what model best explains the development of personality disorders, incorporating both genetic vulnerabilities and environmental stressors?

<p>Diathesis-stress model (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the primary characteristic of individuals with Cluster A personality disorders?

<p>Odd or eccentric behaviors. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client displays extreme suspicion of others, interpreting their motives as malevolent. Which personality disorder is most likely present?

<p>Paranoid personality disorder. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following behaviors might a nurse expect to observe in a client diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder?

<p>Choosing solitary activities and expressing little desire for close relationships. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client responds to life's demands with dramatic, erratic, and sometimes chaotic traits. Which personality disorder cluster is most consistent with these behaviors?

<p>Cluster B (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following defense mechanisms is most commonly associated with Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD)?

<p>Splitting (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient consistently seeks excessive admiration, has a grandiose sense of self-importance, and lacks empathy. Which personality disorder is most aligned with these traits?

<p>Narcissistic personality disorder (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding the difference between Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) and Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT)?

<p>CBT focuses primarily on challenging and changing negative thought patterns, while DBT emphasizes acceptance and mindfulness in addition to cognitive techniques. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A newly admitted patient with Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) approaches the nursing station, visibly upset. They report that another patient "stole" their spot in the day room and declares that the nurses clearly favor other patients. Applying principles of emotional regulation and considering the challenges inherent in personality disorders, what is the most therapeutically sound initial response from the nurse?

<p>&quot;It sounds like you're feeling angry and believe you've been treated unfairly. Let's talk about what's making you feel this way, and then we can explore some different strategies for handling similar situations in the future.&quot; (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key characteristic that distinguishes addiction from compulsive behavior?

<p>Addiction involves physical and/or psychological dependence on a psychoactive substance. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the holistic view of addiction, which domain is affected?

<p>Biological, psychological, and social. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first stage in the development of addiction, according to the information provided?

<p>No contact (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of Canadians over the age of 15, report alcohol use?

<p>78% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Canada, which category of illicit drug showed the largest increase in use, despite media attention on opioids?

<p>Stimulants (cocaine) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What term is used to describe the co-occurrence of a substance use disorder and a mental health condition?

<p>Concurrent disorder (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential medical comorbidity associated with intravenous drug use?

<p>Hepatitis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a component that characterizes substance use disorders?

<p>Loss of control of substance consumption (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of dopamine in the context of addiction?

<p>It is released in the nucleus accumbens, creating a sense of pleasure and reinforcing drug-seeking behavior. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the addiction cycle, what typically follows an emotional trigger?

<p>Craving (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary focus of treatment interventions for addiction?

<p>Identifying triggers and possible reasons for current cravings. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of the CAGE assessment?

<p>To screen for potential alcohol use disorder. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an assessment for acute chemical impairment, what is the first priority?

<p>Assessing for severe or major withdrawal syndrome. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which aspect of patient care relies heavily on the nurse’s discretion in creating a supportive environment?

<p>The choice of harm reduction or abstinence. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is investigating the combined effects of genetic predisposition, early childhood trauma, and socioeconomic status on the likelihood of developing a substance use disorder. Which perspective are they examining?

<p>A biopsychosocial model. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes 'eustress'?

<p>A positive and beneficial response to stress. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to Hans Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS), which stage involves the body attempting to adapt to the stressor?

<p>Resistance stage (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following neurotransmitter responses is associated with stress?

<p>Increased serotonin synthesis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of immune stress responses, what is the focus of psychoneuroimmunology?

<p>The study of the relationship between the mind, the nervous system, and the immune system. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an example of a psychological stressor?

<p>Relationship conflict (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What statement best describes the relationship between the nervous system and immune system during the alarm phase of GAS?

<p>The nervous system and immune system interact during the alarm phase. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of 'cognitive reframing' as a stress management technique?

<p>To change negative perceptions and beliefs. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately differentiates fear from anxiety?

<p>Fear is a reaction to a specific danger; anxiety is apprehension from a perceived threat. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary characteristic of anxiety.

<p>Apprehension, uneasiness, or dread. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of anxiety disorders, what is the key characteristic of agoraphobia?

<p>Excessive anxiety about being in places or situations from which escape might be difficult. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports neurological symptoms, such as paralysis, without any identifiable neurological cause. They display la belle indifférence. Which condition is most likely?

<p>Conversion disorder (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How has the diagnostic process for somatic symptom disorders changed in the DSM-5?

<p>The DSM-5 removed the requirement for an absence of an underlying medical cause for the symptoms. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the best definition of "obsession" in the context of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?

<p>Intrusive and unwanted thoughts, impulses, or images. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between depersonalization and derealization?

<p>Depersonalization focuses to a sense of detachment from one's own body, while derealization involves a sense of unreality concerning the external world. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A combat veteran consistently misinterprets innocuous environmental stimuli – such as the slam of a car door or a child’s sudden movement – as immediate, life-threatening dangers, triggering disproportionate physiological and psychological responses. Applying existing knowledge of psychological defense mechanisms and neural processing, which of the following best accounts for these reactions?

<p>A combination of learned classical conditioning where neutral stimuli become conditioned threat cues plus an atypical prefrontal cortex response responsible for override contextual safety signals and regulate emotional responses. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a psychiatric assessment for suicide risk, which aspect of the patient's history would be most relevant for determining immediate risk?

<p>History of present illness, including duration and severity of current symptoms. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When assessing a patient for suicidal ideation, which question directly addresses 'intent'?

<p>Have you made any preparations for your death, such as writing a note or giving away possessions? (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the rationale for obtaining collateral information when assessing suicide risk?

<p>To gather a comprehensive view of the patient's current mental state from various perspectives. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which element of a mental status examination is most useful in assessing suicide risk?

<p>Thought content and process. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to data, which demographic group in Canada is identified as having a higher risk of suicide?

<p>Men and boys (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most accurate description of the term 'suicidal expressions'?

<p>Potentially self-injurious actions with evidence of intent to end one's life. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to avoid using terms like 'committed suicide'?

<p>They carry connotations of criminality and stigma. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intervention demonstrates a nurse taking a patient's expressions of suicidal ideation 'seriously'?

<p>Asking direct questions about thoughts of suicide and plans. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the mnemonic 'IS PATH WARM' help identify?

<p>Warning signs of suicide. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of creating a 'safety plan' with a patient who is experiencing suicidal ideation?

<p>To provide a structured guide for coping during suicidal crises. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is assessed to be at 'Level III' observation. What level of monitoring should the nurse implement?

<p>The patient should be kept within eyesight at all times, day and night. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the safety planning guide, what is the first step in creating a suicide safety plan?

<p>List warning signs that indicate a suicidal crisis may be developing. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intervention is the least appropriate when treating a suicidal patient?

<p>Relying on a no-suicide contract as the sole indicator of patient safety. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which question exemplifies a guiding question aimed at discovering a patient's 'Step 7' in creating a suicide safety plan:

<p>Who has kept you alive up until now? (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who presents with high suicide risk and a detailed plan must be monitored according to protocol to ensure safety. Which of the following actions is MOST crucial for the nurse to perform to comply with hospital protocol and simultaneously respect the patient?

<p>Explain the rationale and goals of safety measures to the patient, involving them in decisions to the full extent possible, while ensuring continuous monitoring. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best describes a crisis?

<p>A crisis occurs when an individual's coping mechanisms are overwhelmed by a stressful life event or perceived threat. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary focus of nursing interventions in crisis intervention?

<p>Strengthening the client's personal resources and coping strategies. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What did Lindemann's study of bereavement contribute to crisis intervention theory?

<p>A framework for understanding the stages involved in resolving emotional crisis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What was a key contribution of Caplan's work to the field of crisis intervention?

<p>A focus on community-based interventions and preventative strategies. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the ultimate goal of crisis intervention?

<p>To return the client to their previous level of functioning. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the initial assessment phase of crisis intervention, what is the priority?

<p>Determining the severity of the client's current danger potential to self and others. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When establishing rapport with a client in crisis, what approach is most appropriate?

<p>A compassionate, flexible, and clearly directive calm approach. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what way should nurses alter their communication with clients in crisis?

<p>Speak calmly using short, clear, direct phrases and questions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the 'Identifying Major Problems' stage, what is the most important aspect to identify?

<p>Central emotional themes in the client's story and feelings associated with the crisis. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a nursing intervention that can assist clients in identifying their feelings during a crisis?

<p>Offering observations about the client's response to clarify feelings ('I wonder if because you think X, you now feel Y?'). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When 'planning' during crisis intervention, what is the implication of breaking tasks down into small, achievable parts?

<p>It empowers clients. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In crisis intervention, what is the primary reason for nurses to encourage patients to recall successful coping strategies from the past?

<p>To identify strategies that may be useful in the present crisis. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intervention is the MOST important component of 'Step 6 (Implementation): Developing an Action Plan'?

<p>All of the above. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the evaluation phase of crisis intervention, which of the following is MOST important to include in a termination and follow-up protocol?

<p>Verbal instructions with written discharge directives and phone numbers for added help or clarification. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client presents to the emergency department in severe distress, following a sudden job loss and eviction notice. The client is pacing, exhibits disorganized thought processes, and expresses hopelessness about the future. Considering the principles of crisis intervention, what approach is MOST likely to be effective during the initial interaction?

<p>Initiate a calm, structured conversation focused on the client's immediate feelings and safety, while providing brief, clear information. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Affective Disorder

A mood disorder characterized by a range of affective symptoms.

MDD

Major Depressive Disorder: Persistent depressed mood for at least 2 weeks, impairing function.

Etiology of Depression

Biological, genetic, and stressful experiences

Essential Assessment for MDD

Suicidal thoughts, plans, and means

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SIGECAPS

Mnemonic for depression assessment: sleep, interest, guilt, energy, concentration, appetite, psychomotor, suicidal thoughts.

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Top Nursing Diagnosis for MDD

Risk for suicide

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Medications for Depression

SSRIs; First line for depression

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Bipolar I Disorder

Manic episode of intense mood disturbance with persistent elevation lasting at least one week.

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Bipolar II Disorder

Experience of at least one hypomanic episode, a lower-level form of mania, lasting at least 4 days.

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Cyclothymic Disorder

Hypomanic symptoms alternating with mild to moderate depression for at least 2 years in adults.

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Assessment During Bipolar Disorder

Suicide risk, mood, behavior, thought processes and speech patterns, and cognitive functioning.

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Mood Stabilizer

Lithium carbonate

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Schizophrenia

Thinking, language, emotions, social behavior, and accurate perception of reality.

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Key Features of Psychotic Disorders

Delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, abnormal motor behavior, and negative symptoms.

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Antipsychotics

First-generation: block dopamine. Second-generation: affect dopamine and serotonin

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Tardive Dyskinesia

Involuntary, tonic muscular contractions.

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Stress

An uncomfortable emotional experience with biochemical, physiological, and behavioral changes.

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General Adaptation Syndrome Stages

Alarm, resistance, and exhaustion.

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Mindfulness

Heightened state of awareness, focused on the present.

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Anxiety Disorders

Excessive fear resulting in altered perceptions and behavior.

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Acute Stress vs PTSD

Acute stress disorder resolves within 4 weeks; PTSD is persistent.

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A Crisis

Uncomfortable when a stressful life event overwhelms an individual's ability to cope.

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Assessing Lethality

Determine the individual's immediate danger to self or others.

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Warning Signs of Suicide

Thoughts, feelings, body sensations, or behaviors that indicate a suicidal crisis may be developing.

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Protective Factors

Attributes that reduce the likelihood of suicidal thoughts and behavior.

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Mood Disorders

Mood disorders are also known as affective disorders, impacting mood and emotion.

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MDD Gender Differences

Women are twice more likely to be diagnosed than men.

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MDD Duration

Minimum of 2 weeks of persistently depressed mood.

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MDD Symptoms

Emotional, cognitive, physical, and behavioral changes.

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MDD Specifiers

Psychotic, melancholic, atypical, and catatonic features.

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Other Depressive Disorders

Disruptive mood dysregulation, persistent depressive, and premenstrual dysphoric disorders.

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Depression's Impact

Leading cause of disability. Higher prevalence in lower income and unemployed.

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Depression Risk Factors

Early trauma and family history of depression are risk factors.

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Biological Etiology

Genetic factors, serotonin, norepinephrine, and stressful life events.

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Psychological Etiology

Beck’s Cognitive Triad and learned helplessness are psychological factors.

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Key Assessment Findings

Anhedonia, psychomotor agitation, and vegetative signs.

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Areas to Assess

Affect, thought processes, mood, feelings, and cognitive changes.

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Risk for Suicide

Safety is always the highest priority.

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Planning of goals

Geared toward the patient's phase of depression, symptoms, and goals.

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Study Notes

Introduction to Mood Disorders

  • Mood disorders are also called affective disorders and include depression and bipolar disorder
  • All demographics are susceptible to depressive episodes, though some individuals are more susceptible

Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)

  • MDD is one of the most common psychiatric disorders

Epidemiology of Depression

  • Depression is a leading cause of disability with a lifetime prevalence of 11.3%
  • Higher prevalence occurs in lower-income, unemployed, unmarried, or divorced populations
  • Average onset age is between 15 and 45 years
  • Depression is diagnosed in children as young as 3 years (rare) but levels rise in early teen years
  • In older persons, depression is not a normal part of aging, increasing as health deteriorates
  • 1% to 5% of older persons living in the community and 11.5% of hospitalized older people experience depression, which is 13.5% for those needing homecare

Risk Factors for Depression

  • Female gender, early childhood trauma, and stressful life events are risk factors for depression

Etiology of Depression

  • Biochemical factors are serotonin and norepinephrine alongside hormonal and inflammatory factors
  • The diathesis-stress model is among other factors
  • Cognitive theory involving Beck's Cognitive Triad and learned helplessness are thought to be factors

Nursing Process for MDD: Assessment

  • Suicide potential assessment may include asking "Have you gone so far as to think about taking your own life?", "Do you have a suicide plan?", "Do you have a means to carry out your plan?", and "Is there anything that would prevent you from carrying out your plan?"
  • "You look sad. Have you ever thought about harming yourself?" is a priority question when assessing
  • Assess for cognitive changes and anger during the process

Nursing Process for MDD: Diagnosis and Outcomes

  • A key diagnosis is risk for suicide, which is always the highest priority
  • Identified treatment should be based on patient personal needs

Nursing Process for MDD: Implementation

  • Implementation happens over three phases, acute (6 to 12 weeks), continuation (4 to 9 months), and maintenance (1 year or more)
  • Milieu management to provide safety is important

Antidepressants

  • SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors) are first-line therapy

Serotonin Syndrome

  • Serotonin syndrome's symptoms include hyperactivity, restlessness, tachycardia, cardiovascular shock, fever, hyperpyrexia, elevated blood pressure, altered mental states, seizures, myoclonus, tonic rigidity, abdominal pain, diarrhea, bloating, and apnea leading to death
  • Interventions include removing offending agents, administering symptomatic treatment and serotonin receptor blockade
  • Cooling blankets, chlorpromazine, Dantrolene, diazepam, anticonvulsants, artificial ventilation, and paralysis may be necessary

Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs)

  • TCAs have neurotransmitter effects, indications, adverse effects, toxic effects, drug interactions, and contraindications

Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs)

  • MAOIs have neurotransmitter effects, indications, adverse/toxic effects, interactions with drugs and food, and contraindications

Biological Interventions and Complementary Approaches

  • Other interventions include electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), transcranial magnetic stimulation, nerve stimulation, and vagus nerve stimulation
  • Complementary approaches include light therapy, St. John’s wort, and exercise

Nursing Process: Evaluation

  • Evaluations involve assessing sleep patterns.

Postpartum Disorders

  • Postpartum depression has onset within 4 weeks after childbirth
  • Severe ruminations/delusional thoughts about the infant significantly increase risk of harm
  • Post-partum psychosis, within 2 weeks of birth, increases the risk of bipolar disorder fourfold
  • Giving birth may be a trigger for the first symptoms of bipolar disorder
  • The role of estrogen in bipolar disorder is under review
  • Those with postpartum psychosis have shown very low estrogen and improvement after estrogen therapy can occur
  • Selective estrogen receptor modulators (tamoxifen) have also been shown to produce antimanic effects

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