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Questions and Answers

Which type of cholesterol helps cleanse blood vessels of fatty deposits?

  • Triglycerides
  • Very-Low Density Lipoprotein (VLDL)
  • Low-Density Lipoprotein (LDL)
  • High-Density Lipoprotein (HDL) (correct)
  • What is the impact of sodium on cardiovascular health?

  • It has no effect on hypertension.
  • It decreases fluid retention and heart workload.
  • It causes fluid retention, increasing heart strain. (correct)
  • It leads to decreased respiratory distress.
  • Which dietary approach is recommended for managing diabetes?

  • Eat large meals with concentrated carbohydrates.
  • Avoid monitoring blood glucose levels.
  • Maintain a diet of moderate complex carbohydrates. (correct)
  • Consume a high amount of simple sugars.
  • What adverse effect does trans-fat have on cardiovascular health?

    <p>It contributes to increased levels of triglycerides. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common sign of dysphagia?

    <p>Coughing while drinking (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which population is considered high risk for developing Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?

    <p>Native Hawaiians (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an essential consideration for managing HIV/AIDS-related muscle wasting?

    <p>Increasing calorie and protein intake. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following food sources is recommended to help lower cholesterol levels?

    <p>Vegetable oils and fish (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following patient conditions is most likely to require Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN)?

    <p>Inflammatory bowel disease (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason for administering TPN slowly at first?

    <p>To allow the body to adjust to high glucose concentration (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be monitored every shift while a patient is on PPN?

    <p>Patients' tolerance and response (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it important to rotate the external disk at the insertion site daily?

    <p>To prevent sticking and irritation to the skin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical step if residual fluid is greater than 500 ml before further feeding?

    <p>Document the finding and notify the RN or provider (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What potential complication can arise from a central line used for TPN?

    <p>Sepsis from infection (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately describes Peripheral Parenteral Nutrition (PPN)?

    <p>Used for short-term nutritional support (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action should be taken if the rate of a PPN infusion has been slowed?

    <p>Notify the healthcare provider (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should the position of a patient receiving TPN be maintained during feeding?

    <p>Head of bed at 30 degrees (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following measures should be implemented daily while a patient is on TPN?

    <p>Monitor lab work (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if drug solution incompatibility is observed during IV infusion?

    <p>Look for white precipitations in the tubing, stop infusion, and flush the line. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the recommended infusion rate for adults?

    <p>80 to 250 mL/hour. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be done when the fluid remaining in the bag is less than 50 mL?

    <p>Hang a new bag. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary goal of nutritional therapy?

    <p>To treat and manage disease. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of diet is typically started when bowel sounds return post-surgery?

    <p>Clear liquid diet. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following liquids is included in a clear liquid diet?

    <p>Coffee. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which IV solution is typically used to reduce edema?

    <p>5% dextrose in 0.45% saline (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential complication associated with large amounts of fluid infusion?

    <p>Fluid overload leading to CHF. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary use of a controlled volume IV set?

    <p>To control fluid volume for pediatric patients (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which group of patients is at greatest risk for aspiration during feeding assistance?

    <p>Patients with paralysis of the arms. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following actions is crucial before inserting into an IV port?

    <p>Scrub the hub with a sterile alcohol swab (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the key assessment to perform when giving Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN)?

    <p>Assess patient's weight gain and blood sugar levels. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of tubing should be used for administering blood products?

    <p>Parallel or Y-tubing (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What form of diet provides a step between clear liquid and soft diet?

    <p>Full liquid diet. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first step if an adverse reaction occurs during a blood transfusion?

    <p>Stop infusion immediately (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which contributing factor is commonly associated with obesity?

    <p>Genetics (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key focus of nutritional counseling during pregnancy?

    <p>Managing maternal weight gain (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common effect of substance abuse on nutrition?

    <p>Decreased financial resources for food (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What chronic disease is closely linked to obesity?

    <p>Cardiovascular disease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sign might indicate a thiamine deficiency due to substance abuse?

    <p>Short-term memory issues (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an important nutritional intervention for preventing low-birth weight infants?

    <p>Nutritional counseling (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What dietary recommendation is made for individuals with substance abuse issues?

    <p>High-calorie, high-carb diet (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor can contribute to the development of gestational diabetes?

    <p>Improper weight management during pregnancy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be monitored in a patient with bulimia to identify potential complications?

    <p>Blood in output due to vomiting (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does thiamine deficiency affect the cardiovascular system?

    <p>It can lead to symptoms of heart failure. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key consideration when administering medication to older adults?

    <p>They are at risk for dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an important action to take after discovering a medication error?

    <p>Report it immediately to a supervisor. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor should nurses consider when calculating medication dosages for children?

    <p>Dosages should be based on age, size, and weight. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it important to color-code medications for older adults?

    <p>To accommodate for their limited vision. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What may indicate non-compliance in older adults regarding medication intake?

    <p>Financial issues or experiencing side effects. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What kind of precautions should be taken when an older adult is on long-term anti-inflammatory drugs?

    <p>Regular blood pressure assessments. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should nurses monitor to prevent risks when administering medications to older patients who have had a stroke?

    <p>Swallowing ability and pocketing of medication. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential consequence of medication errors in healthcare?

    <p>Medication errors can lead to an elevated risk of death. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a significant reason for involving parents when administering medication to children?

    <p>Parents provide comfort and ensure the child understands. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a major risk association with anti-inflammatory drug use in older adults?

    <p>High probability of GI bleeding or anemia. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum volume that can be deposited in an intradermal injection?

    <p>0.1 mL (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following schedules indicates drugs with the highest potential for abuse and no accepted medical use?

    <p>Schedule I (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the appropriate technique for cleaning an injection site before administration?

    <p>Use circular motion from center outward (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What angle should the needle be inserted during an intramuscular injection?

    <p>90 degrees (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following drugs should never be crushed before administration?

    <p>Sublingual tablets (B), Enteric-coated tablets (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of using aseptic technique during medication preparation?

    <p>To prevent contamination of medication (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical step to take when administering a high-risk drug?

    <p>Have one nurse double check the order (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if a patient has questions about their medication before administration?

    <p>Stop and investigate the patient's concerns (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be performed after administering medication to ensure its effects?

    <p>Reassess pain levels after 20-30 minutes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done before mixing two medications in a single syringe?

    <p>Check for compatibility (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a recommended duration for using certain medications to minimize the risk of addiction?

    <p>Less than 2 weeks (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What might be a symptom of withdrawal when discontinuing certain medications?

    <p>Restlessness (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What major muscle is responsible for moving air into and out of the lungs?

    <p>Diaphragm (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a reason older adults are at a higher risk for pneumonia?

    <p>Decreased total body water (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of alveoli in the lungs?

    <p>Gas exchange of CO2 and O2 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should patients be educated about concerning caffeine intake?

    <p>It may decrease effectiveness of sleep medications. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a significant change in lung function due to aging?

    <p>Decreased elastic recoil (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what way should controlled substances be handled within healthcare settings?

    <p>Never left in public areas (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of a pleural drainage system?

    <p>To remove air or fluid from the pleural cavity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which intervention is essential before inserting or removing a pleural drainage tube?

    <p>Medicate the patient for pain management (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an indicator of a potential air leak in a pleural drainage system?

    <p>Bubbling in the drainage system (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What specific action should be taken if a pleural drainage tube accidentally comes out?

    <p>Apply an occlusive Vaseline-based dressing (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most significant consequence of inadequate sleep?

    <p>Impaired concentration and memory (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of sleep is characterized by high voltage, slow waves, and slowed respiratory and heart rates?

    <p>NREM Stage 3 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is teaching patients to use an incentive spirometer essential post-operatively?

    <p>To reduce the risk of respiratory complications (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following objectives is part of Healthy People 2030 related to sleep?

    <p>Improve adult evaluations for sleep apnea symptoms (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of artificial airways?

    <p>To relieve airway obstructions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When suctioning a patient, what is the maximum duration the suction catheter should be in place?

    <p>10 seconds (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common consequence of prolonged use of endotracheal tubes?

    <p>Increased risk of vocal cord damage (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which technique is used for airway suctioning to maintain a patent airway?

    <p>Sterile or aseptic technique depending on the situation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done before cleaning the inner cannula of a tracheostomy?

    <p>Suction the tracheostomy tube (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should a patient be positioned while performing tracheostomy care?

    <p>In a high-fowlers position (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What sound indicates that a patient has inhaled too quickly with a metered-dose inhaler?

    <p>A harmonic-like sound (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary use of a tracheostomy?

    <p>To provide a secure airway for breathing (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following side effects is common to all non-benzodiazepine hypnotics?

    <p>Somnolence (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be monitored before administering a sedative to a patient?

    <p>Baseline vitals (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a crucial action to take if a patient experiences rebound insomnia after using Zaleplon?

    <p>Notify the healthcare provider (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which instruction should be given to a patient taking Zolpidem?

    <p>Avoid drinking alcohol (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by decreased oxygen delivery to meet cellular needs?

    <p>Hypoxia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common cause of airway obstruction?

    <p>Obstructed airway by the tongue (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How often should a patient's safety be reevaluated after administering a hypnotic?

    <p>After 1-2 hours (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What potential risk should be monitored in older adults taking sedatives?

    <p>Respiratory depression (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is associated with decreased neuromuscular function?

    <p>Multiple sclerosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What early sign indicates potential hypoxia in a patient?

    <p>Confusion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following considerations should be made when caring for a patient at risk for injury due to drowsiness?

    <p>Raise side rails and keep call light in reach (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method is effective for clearing secretions from the lungs?

    <p>Huff coughing (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should the respiratory rate and depth be assessed for a patient receiving a hypnotic medication?

    <p>Before administration (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical factor to ensure during postural drainage treatment?

    <p>Rhythmic clapping over thoracic area (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of oxygen therapy in patients with respiratory insufficiency?

    <p>Meeting oxygen needs (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is a common cause of disturbed diffusion in the lungs?

    <p>Fat emboli (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method of oxygen delivery allows for movement, eating, and talking?

    <p>Nasal Cannula (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant disadvantage of using a simple mask for oxygen delivery?

    <p>Requires high flow rates (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key characteristic of a non-rebreather mask?

    <p>Utilizes a reservoir bag (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does BIPAP specifically address in patients with COPD?

    <p>Two-way pressure support (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breathing technique helps COPD patients expel CO2 effectively?

    <p>Pursed breathing (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary risk associated with the long-term use of a partial rebreather mask?

    <p>Pressure necrosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which oxygen delivery method provides precise control over oxygen concentration?

    <p>Venturi Mask (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be done to ensure effective use of a non-rebreather mask?

    <p>Monitor flow rates closely (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of cholesterol is primarily responsible for increasing fatty deposits on vessel walls?

    <p>Low-Density Lipoprotein (LDL) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What dietary modification can help lower blood pressure effectively?

    <p>Adopting a diet low in sodium and high in fruits (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary goal when managing blood glucose levels in individuals with diabetes mellitus?

    <p>Keeping blood glucose levels between 70-120 mg/dl (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What dietary approach is recommended for someone with HIV/AIDS experiencing muscle wasting?

    <p>Increased calorie and protein intake (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions can lead to increased risk for fluid retention in patients with heart failure?

    <p>High sodium intake (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should carbohydrates be consumed throughout the day by individuals managing diabetes?

    <p>Spread out over multiple meals (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes a common sign of dysphagia?

    <p>Coughing while drinking (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What might a diet high in trans fats contribute to?

    <p>Increased levels of triglycerides (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason potassium should never be given as a bolus?

    <p>Incorrect administration can be fatal. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which complication of IV therapy is characterized by gas bubbles in the bloodstream?

    <p>Air embolus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical signs might indicate a patient is experiencing circulatory overload?

    <p>Dyspnea and crackles (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What immediate action should be taken if a patient is suspected of having speed shock?

    <p>Immediately stop the infusion. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During IV therapy, which symptom is a classic sign of septicemia?

    <p>Fever and chills (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical intervention if catheter embolism is suspected?

    <p>Monitor vital signs and notify a healthcare provider. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should a nurse monitor for when managing a fluid overload situation in older patients?

    <p>Fluid output and vital signs (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the event of an embolus, what should the nurse do first?

    <p>Call for help and position the patient properly. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason for monitoring residual fluid in patients receiving feeding?

    <p>To prevent aspiration and determine feeding tolerance (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which step is critical if a patient on TPN exhibits signs of a rapid infusion rate increase?

    <p>Stop the infusion immediately (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which patient condition is most likely to require Peripheral Parenteral Nutrition (PPN)?

    <p>Patient with malnutrition but some oral intake (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if an infection is suspected at the central line site?

    <p>Notify the provider and maintain strict aseptic technique (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum allowable volume for residual fluid before delaying further feeding?

    <p>500 ml (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What vital sign parameter must be monitored every 4-8 hours in a patient receiving PPN?

    <p>Blood glucose levels (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What complication can arise from leaving TPN solutions unrefrigerated for longer than 24 hours?

    <p>Sepsis due to bacterial infections (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true regarding the administration of TPN?

    <p>TPN should be started slowly and increased gradually (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done when a patient has a large amount of drainage from a wound?

    <p>Draw a pen circle around the drainage on the dressing. (A), Change the dressing immediately and notify the MD. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should a sterile technique be used in wound care?

    <p>For open or fresh surgical wounds. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of dressing should not be used on infected wounds?

    <p>Packing dressing. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What kind of application is indicated for reducing inflammation?

    <p>Moist hot application. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How often should a wet-to-damp dressing change be performed?

    <p>Every 4-6 hours. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be observed in the IV solution when checking for incompatibility?

    <p>White precipitations in the tubing (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a key assessment when managing IV therapies?

    <p>Rate of the infusion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When is it appropriate to start a clear liquid diet for a patient?

    <p>When bowel sounds return (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended infusion rate for fluids in adults?

    <p>80 to 250 mL/hour (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which population is generally at higher risk for aspiration during feeding assistance?

    <p>Older adults (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done when less than 50 mL of fluid is remaining in an IV bag?

    <p>Hang a new bag of IV fluid (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of diet is positioned between a clear liquid and a soft diet?

    <p>Full liquid diet (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of retention sutures?

    <p>To relieve pressure on other sutures (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which color of an open wound indicates that it is clean and ready to heal?

    <p>Red (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of drain works by gravity and capillary action to remove fluid from a wound?

    <p>Passive drain (Penrose) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of suture is designed to be absorbed by the body and not require removal?

    <p>Absorbable sutures (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which dressing technique is used immediately if a patient reports feeling like something has split open?

    <p>Apply a large sterile dressing soaked in normal saline (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of using Steri-Strips after sutures or staples are removed?

    <p>To hold the wound edges together and promote healing (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true regarding Dermabond?

    <p>It provides a seal and does not require a dressing. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended action if a drainage device is found to be 1/2 - 2/3 full at the end of a shift?

    <p>Empty it to ensure proper suction (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Before any nutritional tray is delivered to a patient, the nurse has the responsibility of:

    <p>confirming the diet on the tray with the diet sheet. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Flashcards

    Blood Vessel Atherosclerosis

    Building up of fatty deposits in blood vessel walls that can lead to heart problems.

    High-Density Lipoprotein (HDL)

    Good cholesterol; helps remove fatty deposits from blood vessels.

    Type 2 Diabetes

    A type of diabetes where the body doesn't use insulin properly or makes insufficient insulin.

    Diabetes Blood Glucose Goal

    Aim to keep blood sugar levels between 70-120 mg/dL.

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    HIV Wasting Syndrome

    Weight loss of 10% of body weight, often associated with diarrhea and fever.

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    Dysphagia Symptoms

    Difficulty swallowing, includes coughing while drinking, drooling, food remaining in the mouth.

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    Cardiovascular Trans Fats

    Harmful fats found in fast food, raising triglyceride levels; increasing the risk of diabetes and heart disease.

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    Hypertension Cause

    High blood pressure; often caused by increased sodium intake.

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    Self-Administered Feeding

    A feeding method where the patient is able to feed themselves.

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    TPN (Total Parenteral Nutrition)

    Provides complete nutrition through a central IV line, used when the gut can't absorb nutrients.

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    PPN (Peripheral Parenteral Nutrition)

    Provides partial nutrition through a peripheral IV, used for short-term support.

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    Residual Fluid Measurement

    Measuring the amount of fluid remaining in the stomach after feeding.

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    Monitoring TPN/PPN

    Closely observing patients receiving TPN or PPN for adverse effects or complications

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    TPN Infusion Rate

    The speed at which TPN is infused. It should be slow and controlled.

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    TPN/PPN Implementation Tips

    Start TPN slowly, wean slowly before stopping. Do NOT increase PPN rates too quickly

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    IV Site Monitoring

    Regularly checking the IV insertion site for signs of infection or irritation.

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    Central Line Infections

    Infections can develop at central line sites. Keep these sites clean.

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    High Glucose Levels (TPN)

    TPN solutions have high glucose levels. The body needs time to adjust.

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    IV Rate Assessment

    Checking the speed at which IV fluids are being infused. This is essential for safe and effective IV therapy.

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    Soft Diet

    A diet for patients recovering from surgical procedures involving the stomach or bowel. It is low in fiber and consists of foods softened by cooking, mashing, or chopping.

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    Bulimia

    An eating disorder characterized by episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors such as purging (vomiting, laxative use, or excessive exercise).

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    IV Site Assessment

    Inspecting the area where the IV catheter is inserted for signs of redness, swelling, or pain. Indicates potential complications.

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    IV Patency

    Ensuring the IV line is clear and unobstructed, allowing fluids to flow freely.

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    Obesity

    A chronic condition characterized by excessive body fat accumulation that increases the risk of various health problems.

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    Pregnancy Nutritional Needs

    The nutritional status before and during pregnancy significantly impacts the health of both the mother and the fetus.

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    IV Fluid Overload

    When too much fluid is given intravenously, putting strain on the heart and potentially leading to heart failure.

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    Substance Abuse and Nutrition

    Substance abuse negatively impacts food intake by decreasing appetite, reducing financial resources for food, and replacing food with substances. This can lead to nutrient deficiencies.

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    IV Solution Incompatibility

    When two medications or solutions react negatively when mixed, causing a cloudy substance to form.

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    Thiamine (Vitamin B1) Deficiency

    A deficiency of thiamine, vital for energy production, nerve impulse transmission, and maintaining the myelin sheath.

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    Post-Op Diet: Clear Liquid

    A diet consisting of clear liquids, such as broth, juice, and gelatin, often started after surgery when bowel sounds return.

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    Post-Op Diet: Full Liquid

    A diet consisting of all liquids, including milk, yogurt, and ice cream, a step between clear liquids and a soft diet.

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    Thiamine Deficiency Symptoms

    Symptoms include anorexia, irritability, short-term memory loss, and more severe conditions like loss of sensation in extremities, heart failure, and mental confusion.

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    Post-Op Diet: Soft Diet

    A diet of soft, easily digestible foods, suitable after surgeries or for those with chewing difficulties.

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    Cardiovascular Disease

    A group of diseases that affect the heart and blood vessels, including heart disease, stroke, and high blood pressure.

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    Weight Management Success Rates

    Long-term weight management success rates for individuals with obesity are generally low.

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    Post-Op Diet: Regular Diet

    A normal, unrestricted diet, returning to regular eating habits after recovery.

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    Minced and Moist Diet

    A diet where food is minced into small pieces and moistened, usually after a head or neck surgery.

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    Prenatal Vitamin Importance

    Prenatal vitamins are crucial during pregnancy to supplement essential nutrients for the developing baby and the mother's health.

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    IV Solution Types

    Different IV solutions are used for various purposes like reducing edema. Examples include D10W, D5 in 0.9 NS, D5 in 0.45 NS and D5LR.

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    IV Tubing Types

    Different IV tubing types are used for specific situations like primary (main line), secondary/piggyback (medications), parallel (blood) and controlled volume (pediatric safety).

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    IV Tubing Changes

    IV tubing needs to be changed regularly, usually every 96 hours, to reduce the risk of infection. Always assess and follow prescribed IV flow rates.

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    Parallel IV Set

    A Y-shaped tubing used to infuse blood products. Always use 0.9 NS (saline) with blood transfusions.

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    Blood Transfusion Reactions

    Monitor patients receiving blood for adverse reactions like chest pain, shortness of breath, itching, and back pain. If any reaction occurs, STOP the infusion immediately.

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    Children Medication Dosages

    Medication dosages for children are based on their age, size, and weight. Always involve parents in the process.

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    Older Adult Medication Considerations

    Older adults require special considerations due to slower metabolism, increased risk of drug interactions, and potential swallowing difficulties. Always assess their swallowing ability and monitor for pocketing of medication.

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    Why are lower medication dosages often needed in older adults?

    Older adults have slower metabolism, which means their bodies break down medications more slowly. This can lead to a build-up of medications in the body, increasing the risk of side effects.

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    What are some common medication errors?

    Medication errors are a serious concern, often leading to adverse effects for patients. Nurses must report any suspected errors immediately.

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    What should nurses do if they suspect a medication error?

    Nurses must report any suspected medication errors immediately to their supervisor or the appropriate authority. The individual who discovers or conducts the error must report it.

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    Why are older adults at risk for dehydration and electrolyte imbalances?

    Older adults often have decreased fluid intake and may be taking medications such as diuretics that increase urine output, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.

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    Why is education so important for patients who are non-compliant with their medications?

    Education is crucial for the patient to understand the importance of their medications, how to take them correctly, and to address any concerns or potential side effects.

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    Why is it important to watch for GI bleeding and anemia in older adults taking long-term anti-inflammatory drugs?

    Long-term use of anti-inflammatory drugs, especially in older adults, can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding and anemia. Nurses must monitor for symptoms like dark stools or fatigue.

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    What are some fall precautions for older adults?

    Fall precautions are essential to prevent injuries in older adults. These include regular assessment, clear pathways, non-slip footwear, and appropriate assistive devices.

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    Why is color-coding medications important for older adults with limited vision?

    Color-coding medications helps older adults with limited vision easily differentiate between different medications, reducing the risk of errors.

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    Medication Breakdown

    The kidneys and liver are responsible for breaking down medications in the body.

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    Adverse Reactions

    Unexpected or harmful effects from medication, especially likely with the first dose of a new drug.

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    Double-Checking High-Risk Medications

    Always have another licensed healthcare professional verify orders for high-risk medications before administration.

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    3 Times Medication Check

    Verify the medication three times before administering it: when retrieving, preparing, and before administration.

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    LASA Drugs

    Look-Alike, Sound-Alike drugs that can be easily confused. Be extra cautious with them.

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    Narcotic Administration

    Two licensed nurses must verify, witness, and document the wasting of narcotics.

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    Aseptic Technique

    Practices used to prevent contamination during medication administration.

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    Right Drug, Dose, Route, Time, Patient, Documentation

    The six rights of medication administration ensure the correct medication, dose, route, time, patient, and accurate documentation.

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    Visual and Verbal Patient Identification

    Verify patient identity using two methods: visual name check and verbal confirmation of birthdate.

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    Oral Syringes

    Orange syringes are specifically designed for administering liquid medications orally.

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    Oxygen Administration

    Giving supplemental oxygen to patients with breathing problems.

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    Humidifier (Oxygen)

    A device that adds moisture to oxygen gas, preventing drying of the nose and respiratory tract.

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    Nasal Cannula

    A thin tube placed in the nostrils to deliver low-flow oxygen.

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    Simple Mask

    A mask covering the nose and mouth, delivering low to medium flow oxygen.

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    Partial Rebreather Mask

    A mask with a reservoir bag for high-flow oxygen, preventing rebreathing of carbon dioxide.

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    Venturi Mask

    A mask with a precise oxygen concentration, delivering medium to high flow.

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    Non-Rebreather Mask

    A mask with a one-way valve that delivers the highest oxygen concentration.

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    COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease)

    Lung disease that makes it hard to exhale air due to inflammation, mucus, and loss of lung elasticity.

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    Hypoxemia

    Decreased oxygen in the bloodstream, leading to a lack of oxygen for cells.

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    Hypoxia

    A condition where cells don't receive enough oxygen to function properly.

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    Anoxia

    Complete lack of oxygen, causing cell death.

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    Hypercapnia

    Increased carbon dioxide (CO2) levels in the blood.

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    Respiratory Insufficiency

    The body's inability to meet its oxygen needs or remove excess CO2.

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    Heimlich Maneuver

    A technique to clear an obstructed airway by applying pressure to the abdomen.

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    Huff Cough

    A deep breath followed by a short, forcible exhale, helpful in clearing airway secretions.

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    Postural Drainage

    A technique to drain different lung segments by positioning the body.

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    Barrel-Chested

    A physical characteristic where the chest is wider than usual, often seen in patients with emphysema due to air trapping in the lungs.

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    Smoking Cessation Education

    Providing information and guidance to patients to help them quit smoking, a crucial step in managing COPD.

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    Metered Dose Inhaler (MDI) Technique

    The specific way to use an MDI, involving shaking, exhaling, inhaling slowly, and holding breath for 10 seconds.

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    Endotracheal Tube (ET Tube)

    A tube inserted into the trachea to maintain an airway when a patient cannot ventilate on their own or is unconscious.

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    Tracheostomy Care

    Regular cleaning and maintenance of a tracheostomy opening, including cleaning the inner cannula and changing ties.

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    Tracheostomy Obturator

    A guide inserted to assist in placing the tracheostomy tube and removed once the tube is in place.

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    Airway Suctioning

    Removing secretions from the airway using a suction catheter to maintain a patent airway.

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    Chest Tubes

    Flexible tubes inserted to drain blood, fluid, or air from the chest cavity.

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    Non-benzodiazepines: What are the common side-effects?

    Common side effects of non-benzodiazepines like eszopiclone, zaleplon, and zolpidem include headache, somnolence, taste changes, chest pain, migraine, edema, dizziness, rebound insomnia, nausea, drowsiness, and memory loss.

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    Non-benzodiazepines: What special considerations are there with high-fat meals?

    Non-benzodiazepines like eszopiclone and zaleplon should not be consumed with high-fat meals because it delays the medication's action and effectiveness.

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    Hypnotics: Who might need smaller doses?

    Older adults might need smaller doses of hypnotics due to their slower metabolism and increased sensitivity to medications.

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    Hypnotics: What are some important pre-administration assessments?

    Before administering hypnotics, vital signs, level of consciousness, pain level, and a safe environment should be assessed. Ensure the patient understands the potential for drowsiness and impaired memory.

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    Hypnotics: How to ensure a safe environment?

    Maintain a safe environment for patients on hypnotics by raising side rails, placing the call light within reach, and assisting with ambulation. Educate them to stay in bed and call for help.

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    Hypnotics: How to monitor for side effects?

    Monitor for drug hangovers, such as drowsiness and headache, after hypnotic administration. Report any concerns to the healthcare provider.

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    Hypnotics: What are the nursing considerations for ineffective breathing pattern?

    Before administering hypnotics, assess respiratory rate, depth, and quality. Reevaluate 30 minutes to 1 hour after administration.

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    Hypnotics: When should you call the healthcare provider?

    Call the healthcare provider if the patient cannot sleep, wakes up multiple times, or experiences adverse reactions to the medication.

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    What is the function of the alveoli?

    Alveoli are the tiny air sacs in the lungs where the exchange of oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) takes place. This is where the body gets its oxygen and releases waste gases.

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    What happens to the lungs as we age?

    As we age, our lungs lose elasticity, making it harder to breathe in and out. The air sacs also thicken, reducing the efficiency of gas exchange. This can lead to shortness of breath and increased risk of pneumonia.

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    What are the signs of hypoxia?

    Hypoxia means a lack of oxygen in the body's tissues. Signs include confusion, restlessness, increased heart rate, and shortness of breath.

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    Why are opioids dangerous for respiratory problems?

    Opioids are highly addictive medications that can cause respiratory depression, slowing down breathing and potentially leading to death.

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    What makes it tough to cough for older adults?

    Older adults have less body water, leading to thicker mucus in their airways. This makes it difficult to cough up secretions and increases their risk for pneumonia.

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    How does the diaphragm work?

    The diaphragm is the major muscle that helps us breathe. It contracts and moves downward when we breathe in (inspiration), creating space in the chest cavity. When it relaxes and moves upward, the air is forced out (expiration).

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    Why is it important to educate patients about opioid side effects?

    Opioids can cause severe side effects like respiratory depression and dependence. Education helps patients understand the risks and take precautions to stay safe.

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    Why is it essential to never leave medications unattended?

    Medications, especially controlled substances, can be misused or stolen. Leaving them unattended increases risks and could lead to potential harm.

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    Chest Tube Drainage

    A procedure to remove air or fluid from the space between the lung and chest wall (pleural space).

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    Pneumothorax

    A collapsed lung caused by air leaking into the pleural space.

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    Hemothorax

    A collection of blood in the pleural space.

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    Incentive Spirometer

    A device used to help patients take deep breaths after surgery or illness.

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    Sleep Apnea

    A disorder characterized by pauses in breathing during sleep.

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    NREM Sleep

    Non-Rapid Eye Movement sleep, divided into stages 1-3, gradually deepening sleep.

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    REM Sleep

    Rapid Eye Movement sleep, the deepest stage, characterized by vivid dreams and muscle paralysis.

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    Sleep Requirements

    The amount of sleep needed varies by age, with newborns requiring the most.

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    Potassium Infusion

    Potassium MUST be diluted in fluid and given slowly, NEVER as a bolus (unless it's an emergency). Incorrect administration can be fatal.

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    Septicemia (Blood Stream Infection)

    A life-threatening infection caused by pathogens in the bloodstream. Often linked to IV complications from poor sterile technique.

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    Circulatory Overload (Fluid Overload)

    Occurs when too much fluid enters the body, straining the heart. Common signs include shortness of breath, lung crackles, and swelling.

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    Embolus (Blood Clot)

    A dangerous situation where a piece of a catheter or blood clot travels through the bloodstream, potentially blocking blood flow.

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    Speed Shock

    Occurs when fluids are infused too quickly, causing a sudden drop in blood pressure and potential heart problems.

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    Fluid Overload in Older Adults

    Older adults are more susceptible to fluid overload, so monitor them closely. Reduce IV drip rates, optimize lung expansion, and consider diuretics.

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    What is Atherosclerosis?

    A build-up of fatty deposits (plaque) inside the blood vessel walls, narrowing the passage and obstructing blood flow.

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    What is HDL?

    High-Density Lipoprotein, also known as 'good cholesterol', helps remove fatty deposits from blood vessels.

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    What is LDL?

    Low-Density Lipoprotein, also known as 'bad cholesterol', contributes to fatty deposit build-up in blood vessels.

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    What is VLDL?

    Very-Low Density Lipoprotein carries triglycerides in the blood, a type of fat linked to Atherosclerosis and Coronary Artery Disease (CAD).

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    What is the main concern with high sodium intake?

    High sodium intake leads to fluid retention, putting extra strain on the heart and increasing blood pressure.

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    What are the main goals of managing Diabetes Mellitus?

    Manage blood sugar levels to prevent complications, by adjusting diet, exercise, and medication.

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    What are the symptoms of dysphagia?

    Difficulty swallowing, showing signs like coughing while drinking, drooling, and food remaining in the mouth (pocketing).

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    What is HIV Wasting Syndrome?

    A significant weight loss (10% of body weight), often associated with diarrhea, fever, and muscle wasting due to infections and loss of appetite.

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    Wound Dehiscence

    A wound that has split open, exposing internal organs. This is a serious medical emergency.

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    Immediate Care for Wound Dehiscence

    Place a large, sterile dressing over the exposed organs, soak it in sterile saline, and notify the surgeon immediately.

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    Passive Drain

    A type of drain that relies on gravity and capillary action to remove fluid buildup. It has no suction device.

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    Active Drain

    A type of drain that uses a suction device to remove fluid buildup. It requires manual compression to function.

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    Wound Colors and Healing

    RED: Clean and ready to heal. YELLOW: Requires cleaning and may be shedding dead tissue. BLACK: Needs debridement to remove dead tissue.

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    Debridement

    Removal of dead or infected tissue to promote healing.

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    Sterile Technique

    Practices used during wound care and suture removal to prevent infection.

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    Retention Sutures

    Sutures that help reduce pressure on other sutures and prevent a wound from pulling apart.

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    Wound Drainage: What are the main types?

    Describes the amount and color of fluid draining from a wound. Common types include scant, small, moderate, and large. Color can vary, and presence of odor is important to note.

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    Wound Assessment: What do we look for?

    A comprehensive assessment of the wound includes observing drainage, swelling, odor, pain, approximation (how well the edges meet), warmth, and signs of infection like elevated white blood cell count or malaise.

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    Dressing Changes: When is sterility needed?

    Sterility is required when touching open or fresh surgical wounds. Non-sterile technique is sufficient for closed wounds.

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    Packing Wounds: Why and when?

    Packing is used for wounds that need to heal from the inside out, promoting granulation tissue formation. It is NOT used on infected wounds.

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    Eye Irrigations: When are they used?

    Eye irrigations are performed to remove debris or caustic substances from the eye, typically following an injury.

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    Study Notes

    IV Therapy

    • IVs are used when drugs/substances cannot be taken orally or rectally
    • IVs supply fluids, electrolytes (for dehydration), blood products (for anemia), medications (for low blood pressure), and nutritional components (like TPN)
    • IVs must be sterile
    • Assess for fluid overload. The average adult needs 1500-2000 mL of fluids daily to replace losses.
    • Fluid loss occurs through hemorrhage, dehydration, nausea & vomiting, diarrhea, profuse perspiration, fever, and drainage from wounds.
    • Monitor intake and output (I&O)
    • Monitor electrolyte levels (Sodium: 135-145, Chloride: 96-106, Potassium: 3.5-5.0)
    • All nurses must monitor IV flow rates.
    • Always check all IV orders for time limits, type, amount, and rate of infusion before administering or monitoring.
    • Know the proper administration set and catheter type for different solutions (e.g., blood, medications, TPN).
    • Be aware of patient's medical history and any allergies to prevent complications.
    • Be aware of drug interactions with ongoing medications.
    • Ensure proper sterile technique during insertion and maintenance to prevent infection.
    • Use appropriate tubing sizes based on the viscosity of the fluids administered (regular, macro, micro drops).

    Types of IV Solutions

    • Isotonic: Has the same concentration as blood; fluid does not cause cell size change; used to expand blood volume. Examples include 0.9% Normal Saline, 5% Dextrose in water (D5W), and Ringer's Lactate (LR).
    • Hypertonic: Has a greater concentration than blood; fluid moves out of cells, shrinking them; used to replace electrolytes or decrease edema. Examples include 10% dextrose in water (D10W), 5% dextrose in 0.9% saline (D5 in 0.9 NS), 5% dextrose in 0.45% saline (D5 in .45 NS), and 5% dextrose in Ringer's lactate (D5LR).
    • Hypotonic: Has a lesser concentration than blood; fluid moves into cells, swelling them; used for cellular dehydration. Examples include 0.45% Normal Saline (1/2 NS)

    IV Administration Sets

    • Primary Sets (Main Line): Used for solutions, tubing, and needleless connectors.
    • Secondary/Piggyback Sets: Used for medications to be added to an existing IV line.
    • Parallel IV Sets: Used for blood products, requiring a separate consent from the patient.
    • Controlled Volume Sets: Used for pediatric patients to control the rate of fluid delivery.

    IV Tubing

    • Label tubing and verify with another nurse for high-risk medications. Monitor for over-infusion and under-infusion signs. Every 96 hours change the set (or per agency protocol to reduce infection risk).
    • Use appropriate tubing sizes based on the viscosity of the fluid being administered (regular, macro, micro drops).

    Second/Piggyback Tubing

    • Used for antibiotics, antineoplastics, or blood products
    • The piggyback bag is placed higher than the primary line, using gravity for administration.
    • Always use a needleless system and ensure clamps are open.
    • Assess for adverse reactions from medications or drug incompatibility with the primary solution.
    • Always scrub the hub of ports with alcohol prior to inserting.

    Parallel/Y Tubing

    • Used to administer blood concurrently with other IV fluids. Requires a separate consent from the patient.
    • Start with saline before blood to maintain IV access for emergency drugs.

    Nurse Care for Patients Receiving Blood

    • Monitor for adverse reactions
    • Monitor vital signs frequently.
    • Assess for potential symptoms like chest pain, shortness of breath, itching, and back pain.
    • If any reaction occurs, stop the infusion immediately.
    • Remain with the patient during the blood transfusion.

    Controlled Volume Sets

    • Used to deliver precise amounts of diluted medications over an extended period.
    • Prevents rapid fluid administration, and ensures controlled flow rates.

    Fluid Overload

    • Excessive fluid intake or infusion can lead to circulatory overload, which may present with shortness of breath, crackles, increased breathing rate, moist cough, and abnormal cardiac function.

    IV Administration Rate

    • Approximate rate: 1 mL/min, but can vary based on the individual and medical condition.

    Complications

    • Hematoma: Blood accumulation in tissue surrounding the IV site (occurs more around first 48 hours). Signs are swelling, discoloration, resistance to flushing.
    • Phlebitis: Irritation of the vein from the IV catheter. Signs are redness, warmth, and swelling around the vein.
    • Infiltration: Solution leaking out of the vein and into the surrounding tissue. Signs are swelling, coldness, or blanching of the affected area. Apply cold compresses, do not massage the area.
    • Extravasation: Irritation of the tissue from leaking or infiltrated solution can lead to serious damage like infection or tissue necrosis. Notify the provider immediately!
    • Infection: Wound may be infected during surgery or post-op. Signs include increased pain, redness, warmth, purulent exudate.
    • Sepsis/Cellulitis: infection of tissue, potentially leading to systemic complications.
    • Dehiscence: Separation of layers of a wound, at risk within 3-5 days post op.
    • Embolism: A blood clot or air bubble lodged in blood vessel, potentially causing stroke/pulmonary issues.
    • Speed Shock: Rapid fluid administration.
    • Drug-Solution Incompatibility: Precipitate formation in the tubing, halt infusion.
    • Fluid Overload: Excessive fluid accumulated in the body.
    • Air Embolism: Air bubbles in the bloodstream.

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