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Questions and Answers

Which action is the first step in managing the risks associated with adding a Cloud Service Provider (CSP)?

  • Integrate governance of CSP with existing risk management policies
  • Define systems and structure provided by CSP
  • Create steering committee (correct)
  • Assess risk of adding CSP

    • Which of the following scenarios is likely to increase cloud computing risks?

  • Switching from on-premises software to SaaS
  • Migrating from private cloud to public model (correct)
  • Implementing IaaS in a private cloud
  • Utilizing a hybrid cloud model

    • Which type of processing control involves ensuring that data pricing is accurate and complete throughout the processing stage?

  • Access control
  • Processing control (correct)
  • Output control
  • Input control

    • Which general control in an information system focuses on maintaining security and compliance?

    <p>Security management</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a benefit of using Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) systems in an organization?

    <p>Supports cross-functional systems effectively</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary advantage of conducting a full backup?

    <p>It provides the quickest restoration to functionality.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which disaster recovery site type incurs the lowest costs?

    <p>Cold Site</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does an incremental backup specifically capture?

    <p>Only the changes made on the day of the backup.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following actions is considered the most important in a disaster recovery plan?

    <p>Testing the disaster recovery plan.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which backup method requires more time compared to incremental backups but provides a simpler restoration process?

    <p>Differential Backup</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of a modem in a network?

    <p>Translates analog signals from the internet into digital signals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which hardware is specifically responsible for managing network traffic by connecting multiple devices?

    <p>Router</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of firewall analyzes packets to determine if they can be accepted by the firewall's storage?

    <p>Basic Packet-Filtering Firewall</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a major advantage of star topology in network design?

    <p>Easy identification of damaged cables</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which device acts as an intermediary between different networks and translates protocols?

    <p>Gateway</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which firewalls combine packet-filtering and network address translation?

    <p>Stateful Multilayer Inspection Firewalls</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is true about edge-enabled devices in a network?

    <p>They allow for faster network response times by decentralizing computing power.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the OSI model represent?

    <p>A visualization of network functions across seven layers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT considered part of internal computer hardware?

    <p>Keyboard</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which networking device does NOT assign IP addresses?

    <p>Switch</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of change management controls?

    <p>To establish policies and procedures for managing change</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a type of change environment?

    <p>Regulatory</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the phrase 'baseline configuration' refer to in the context of documenting systems controls?

    <p>The initial state of the system before any changes are made</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary benefit of the Agile method in project management?

    <p>Increased flexibility and shorter deadlines</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of testing is focused on evaluating the smallest unit of an application?

    <p>Unit Testing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the change management process, what step follows gaining approval from management?

    <p>Develop budget and timeline</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is meant by 'proactive' patch management?

    <p>Identifying weaknesses and applying patches as vulnerabilities arise</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of the 'Archival' step in the data lifecycle process?

    <p>To transfer data from active systems to passive systems</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the concept of 'mirroring' in data management?

    <p>Duplicating a database onto a machine at the same site</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a critical part of logging during change management?

    <p>Implementing application logs, change logs, and event logs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant risk associated with outsourcing in change management?

    <p>Potential lack of security from third parties</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the focus of integration testing in software development?

    <p>Ensuring combined modules work together as intended</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the 'Capture' phase in the data lifecycle process involve?

    <p>Retrieving data from existing or external sources</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What function does the Presentation Layer (Layer 6) serve in the OSI model?

    <p>Transforming data into a suitable format</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating sessions?

    <p>Session Layer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which protocol operates at the Transport Layer (Layer 4)?

    <p>User Datagram Protocol (UDP)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the Data Link Layer (Layer 2) primarily handle?

    <p>Adds MAC addresses to packets</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a common type of Network Architecture?

    <p>Private Local Network (PLN)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of a Cloud Service Provider (CSP)?

    <p>Delivering cloud computing services</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of cloud computing, what characterizes Software as a Service (SaaS)?

    <p>Selling applications to consumers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which COSO component is focused on prioritizing risks based on organizational objectives?

    <p>Performance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the acronym CRRIME OIE represent in the COSO Enterprise Risk Management Framework?

    <p>Control Activities, Risk Assessment, Risk Response, Information, Monitoring, Event ID</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which deployment model in cloud computing allows resources to be shared among multiple organizations?

    <p>Community Cloud</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What capability does Platform as a Service (PaaS) provide within cloud computing?

    <p>Development of applications and tools</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the physical layer (Layer 1) primarily accomplish in the OSI model?

    <p>Converts data into binary format</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a key aspect of the COSO Enterprise Risk Management - Review and Revision component?

    <p>Reviewing performance over time</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary characteristic of Mobile Technology?

    <p>Combines hardware and software for connectivity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of an Operational Data Store (ODS)?

    <p>To serve as an interim area for data warehousing.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements best describes a Data Mart?

    <p>It focuses on specific departments and tailored data needs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does First Normal Form (1NF) require in a relational database?

    <p>Each cell must contain only one piece of information.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the key distinction between a database model and a database schema?

    <p>A model defines the structure while the schema executes the design.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which type of database key do multiple attributes collaborate to generate a unique identifier?

    <p>Composite Primary Key</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which SQL command is used to filter records based on specific criteria?

    <p>WHERE</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a Dimension Table in a database schema provide?

    <p>Contextual or descriptive data related to measures.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is represented by a Start Event in BPMN Activity Models?

    <p>The initiation of a specific task.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of Intermediate Events in BPMN Activity Models?

    <p>They indicate changes occurring during a process.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best defines a Data Lake?

    <p>A location for storing raw data in both structured and unstructured formats.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of flow do Sequence Flows represent in BPMN?

    <p>The connection of objects within a single pool.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the definition of a Data Dictionary in the context of databases?

    <p>A reference that provides information about the structure of the database and its data elements.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following features distinguishes a Snowflake Schema from a Star Schema?

    <p>It has a more complex structure with further normalization in dimension tables.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which system aggregates daily financial information for infrequent events such as mergers and lawsuits?

    <p>Financial Reporting System (FRS)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary goal of the Management Reporting System (MRS)?

    <p>To provide internal financial information for daily business problems</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which cycle does a company pay its employees?

    <p>Payroll Cycle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is NOT a function of the Purchasing and Disbursement Cycle?

    <p>Recording cash collection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE)' refer to?

    <p>Total expected losses over a defined period</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a key function of Robotic Process Automation (RPA)?

    <p>Interpreting human language</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the Recovery Point Objective (RPO)?

    <p>Threshold for acceptable data loss</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the acronym COSO stand for in the context of internal controls?

    <p>Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which phase of Business Impact Analysis (BIA) involves identifying risks?

    <p>Identify risks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the meaning of 'Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD)'?

    <p>Time business can tolerate an outage without causing long-term consequences</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of technology does blockchain primarily represent?

    <p>Decentralized control system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which element is critical for effective crisis management plans?

    <p>Unexpected incident preparation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which function is associated with the General Ledger and Reporting system?

    <p>Updates GL continuously</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which accounting cycle is responsible for buying and paying for goods and services?

    <p>Purchasing and Disbursement Cycle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    IT Infrastructure

    • Computer Hardware: physical components of computers, including external peripherals (mouse, keyboard, etc.), back-end devices (switches, servers, routers), and end-user devices (laptops, tablets).

    • Internal Hardware: microprocessor (brain), graphics/sound cards, hard drives (permanent storage), RAM (temporary storage), power supply, motherboard.

    • External Peripherals: devices not integrated into the computer, such as monitors, disk drives, memory devices, network cards, speakers, and microphones.

    • Infrastructure Housing: data centers or offices, advanced security systems, ventilation, and climate control.

    • Network Infrastructure Hardware: hardware, software, layout, and topology of network resources for connectivity and communication.

    Network Infrastructure

    • Modems: connect computers to the internet, translating analog signals to digital, providing internet access to homes or offices.

    • Routers: manage network traffic, read source packets, route them, assign IP addresses, and connect modems to switches.

    • Switches: divide network connections, route traffic to specific destinations, but cannot assign IP addresses like routers (essentially a more advanced hub).

    • Gateways: act as intermediaries between networks, converting protocols.

    • Proxies: gateways that mediate without protocol translation, often blocking hackers.

    • Protocol: sets of rules for information transmission, like TCP/IP (common internet protocol).

    • Edge-enabled devices: process data near the source, decentralizing power and speeding network response.

    • Servers: master coordination and communication in networks, serving data to clients.

    • Signal Modifiers: increase signal strength for electrical, radio frequency, audio, and optical signals.

    • Firewalls: prevent unauthorized access through physical, software, or combined methods; improve traffic flow.

    Types of Firewalls

    • Basic Packet-Filtering Firewalls: analyze network packets to determine if data should pass through the firewall.

    • Circuit-Level Firewall: verify packet source against rules, but don't inspect the packet itself.

    • Application-Level Firewalls: inspect packet data and are resource-intensive.

    • Network Address Translation (NAT) Firewalls: assign single public address to private network masks.

    • Stateful Multilayer Inspection Firewalls: combination of packet filtering and NAT.

    • Next-Generation Firewalls (NGFWs): apply firewall rules to specific applications and users.

    Network Topology

    • Bus Topology: linear or tree-like layout, failure of central line disables the entire network.

    • Mesh Topology: numerous connections between nodes, commonly used in wireless networks; high traffic, costly.

    • Ring Topology: circular node connections, minimized collision but slower performance.

    • Star Topology: central hub through which data passes; easy cable damage identification.

    OSI Model

    • OSI model: seven-layer model for network function segregation.

    • Layer 7 (Application): interface for applications, including HTTP, FTP, SMTP, and EDI.

    • Layer 6 (Presentation): transforms data, handles encryption using standards like ASCII, JPEG, MPEG.

    • Layer 5 (Session): establishes and maintains sessions between devices, using protocols like SQL, RPC, and NFS.

    • Layer 4 (Transport): controls communication connections (TCP, UDP, SSL, TLS).

    • Layer 3 (Network): adds routing addresses, uses IP, IPSec, NAT, and IGMP.

    • Layer 2 (Data Link): formats data packets (MAC addresses); uses ISDN, PPTP, L2TP, ARP.

    • Layer 1 (Physical): converts messages to bits (0s and 1s) for transmission, using technologies like HSSI and SONET.

    Common Network Architectures

    • Local Area Networks (LAN): limited geographic area.

    • Wide Area Networks (WAN): larger geographic area, encompassing multiple offices or the internet.

    • Software-Defined WAN (SD-WAN): manages traffic to optimize connectivity.

    • Virtual Private Network (VPN): remote, secure access to a network.

    Operating Systems (OS), Firmware, Mobile Technology, IoT

    • Operating systems (OS): software that supports basic computer functions; e.g., Windows, macOS, iOS.

    • Firmware: embedded software directing motherboard/microprocessor functions; less frequently updated.

    • Mobile technology: wireless enabled devices connecting to the internet; includes laptops, tablets, hotspots, mobile phones, applications, OS, and connectivity via Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, 4G/5G.

    • Internet of Things (IoT): devices like Siri, Alexa, TVs, iHomes; extension of mobile technology, usually connected via Bluetooth or internet.

    Cloud Computing

    • Cloud Computing: shared computing resources over the internet (e.g., storage, processing, software).

    • Cloud models:

      • Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS): outsourcing servers, storage, hardware, and networking.
      • Platform as a Service (PaaS): providing tools for application development.
      • Software as a Service (SaaS): selling applications or business process services (e.g., payroll, billing).

    • Cloud deployment models: public, private, hybrid, community.

    • Cloud Service Provider (CSP): third-party providing cloud services.

    • Governance frameworks: Cloud Controls Matrix, COSO Enterprise Risk Management (including SPRIG methodology).

    Other Topics

    • Types of Processing Controls: input, output, processing, access controls.

    • General Controls: software acquisition, IT infrastructure, security management, development/operations/maintenance controls.

    • Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP): cross-functional, central data repository systems for various business functions.

    • Accounting Information Systems (AIS): systems used by accountants/financial managers, often a component of an ERP.

    • Reasonableness Test: error check for transaction totals.

    • AIS Subsystems: Transaction Processing Systems (TPS), Financial Reporting System (FRS), and Management Reporting System (MRS).

    • AIS Processes: input, source document processing, journal recording, GL/subsidiary ledger posting, trial balances, adjustments, financial report generation. Cycles include purchasing/disbursement, treasury, payroll, revenue/collection.

    • Application Software Provider (ASP) benefits: lower upfront costs, flexibility, suitable for smaller businesses.

    • Processes driven by IT: automation, shared services, outsourcing, offshore operations (IT, knowledge, business processes, software R&D).

    • Risks in outsourcing: quality, service, productivity, staff turnover, language, security, outsourcer qualifications, labor insecurity.

    • Technology forms of IT systems: Robotic Process Automation (RPA), Natural Language Processing (NLP), neural networks.

    • COSO Principles related to IT: general control over technology, acquisition of quality information, effective communication.

    • Blockchain: decentralized, altered transaction-resistant system.

    • Business Resiliency: continuous operation and quick restoration after events; involves business continuity plans, system availability controls, and crisis management.

    • Business Impact Analysis (BIA): identifies how quickly business units can recover.

    • Recovery Point Objective (RPO) / Recovery Time Objective (RTO): maximum acceptable data loss/inoperability.

    • System Availability Controls: redundancy, backups, UPS systems, infrastructure security, physical controls.

    • Disaster Recovery: specific IT systems restoration after a major outage.

    • Backup Types: full, incremental, differential.

    • Replication vs. Mirroring: replication transfers data to a secondary site; mirroring copies a database to the same site.

    • Change Management: policies, procedures, and resources for change governance.

    • Change Management Process: identifying need, planning, approval, budgeting, personnel assignment, risk identification, implementation, testing, execution, review, monitoring.

    • Documenting System Controls: baseline configuration, inventory system, acceptance criteria.

    • Change Management Controls: policies/procedures, standardized requests, job separation, testing, reversion access.

    • Change Environments: development, testing, staging, production, disaster recovery.

    • Integration Risks: user resistance, management/stakeholder support issues, resource concerns, business disruptions, and lack of system integration.

    • Logging: critical for testing, including application, change, event, firewall, network, proxy logs.

    • Data Collection Types: active, passive.

    • Data Lifecycle: capturing, transforming, synthesizing, analyzing, publishing, archiving, and purging data.

    • Data Collection methods: ETL, active, passive data collection.

    • Data Storage: ODS, data warehouses, data marts, data lakes, Relational databases, Data Elements (tables, attributes, records, fields, data types, keys).

      • Database Keys: primary keys, composite primary keys, foreign keys.

    • Data Dictionary: Information about database structure and elements.

    • Data Normalization: 1NF, 2NF, 3NF, data model types (conceptual, logical, physical), data models (star, snowflake).

    • Structured Query Language(SQL): command structure and examples of SELECT, FROM, JOIN, WHERE, HAVING, GROUP BY

    • Data Flow Diagrams (DFDs) / Flowcharts / System Interface Diagrams: standardized diagrams for process visualization

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    Test your knowledge on IT infrastructure, including computer hardware, internal and external peripherals, and network components. This quiz covers essential concepts and devices used in modern IT environments.

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