Introduction to Leukocytes: Phagocytes and Immunocytes

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136 Questions

Which type of leukocyte arrives at the site of inflammation after neutrophils and does not die in the process?

Monocytes

What are the primary granules present in myelocytes and metamyelocytes responsible for?

Contain hydrolytic enzymes

What is the main function of T lymphocytes?

Provide cellular immunity

Which leukocyte type produces antibodies needed for humoral immunity?

B lymphocytes

What is the role of basophils in the immune system?

Mediate immediate hypersensitivity reactions

Which leukocyte type destroys tumor cells and cells infected with viruses?

NK lymphocytes

Which leukocyte type modulates the allergic response caused by basophil degranulation?

Eosinophils

What percentage of nucleated cells in the bone marrow do neutrophilic myelocytes make up?

13%

Which leukocyte type represents 80% of lymphocytes in the blood?

T lymphocytes

What is the main function of promyelocytes in the bone marrow?

Phagocytizing foreign bodies

What is the N:C ratio of the band neutrophil?

1:2

What percentage of nucleated cells in the bone marrow does the band neutrophil make up?

12%

What color are the specific/secondary granules in the cytoplasm of the band neutrophil?

Pink

How many lobes does the nucleus of a segmented neutrophil typically have?

3-5

In response to infection or growth factor, which type of granules stain in the cytoplasm of a segmented neutrophil?

Nonspecific/primary granules

What percentage of peripheral white blood cells (WBCs) do band neutrophils make up?

25-40%

What is the shape of the nucleus in a band neutrophil?

"C" or "S"-shaped with coarse, clumped chromatin lacking segmentation

What are the typical characteristics of the cytoplasm in a segmented neutrophil?

"Pink and filled with small, pale blue to pink specific/secondary granules"

What type of granules are present but usually don't stain in a segmented neutrophil unless in response to infection or growth factor?

"Nonspecific/primary granules"

What does N:C ratio stand for in the context of band and segmented neutrophils?

"Nucleus: Cytoplasm ratio"

What is the percentage range of nucleated cells in the bone marrow that segmented neutrophils make up?

15-30%

What is the size range of both band and segmented neutrophils?

10-15 um

What is the size range of eosinophils?

12-16 um

Which leukocyte type makes up less than 1% of the nucleated cells in the bone marrow?

Eosinophils

What do basophil granules contain?

Histamine and heparin

How do neutrophils mature in the bone marrow?

From blasts to segmented form

What causes necrosis in cells?

External forces such as lethal chemicals and physical events

What is the main function of myelocytes in the bone marrow?

Cell division

What distinguishes eosinophils from other leukocytes based on their morphology?

Bright red-orange granules containing enzymes

What condition is characterized by the presence of immature leukocytes and immature (nucleated) erythrocytes in the blood?

Leukoerythroblastic reaction

What condition is associated with a decrease in the absolute number of eosinophils?

Eosinopenia

What condition is characterized by an increase in the absolute number of basophils?

Basophilia

Which condition is caused by a congenital enzymatic defect of NADPH oxidase in granulocytes and monocytes?

Chronic granulomatous disease

What condition is characterized by a tendency in neutrophils to have 1 or 2 lobes in their nucleus?

Hyposegmentation

What rare autosomal recessive immunodeficiency disorder is characterized by abnormal intracellular protein transport?

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

What is characterized by 5 or more lobes in the neutrophil nucleus and is associated with megaloblastic anemia?

Hypersegmentation

What process leads to the rapid and free exchange of neutrophils between the circulating granulocyte pool and marginating granulocyte pool?

Diapedesis

Which type of granules, when stained in the cytoplasm of segmented neutrophils, indicates persistent staining and is responsible for toxic granulation?

Primary granules

What do Doehle bodies, small oval inclusions located in the cytoplasm of neutrophils, contain?

RNA

What characteristic differentiates the regenerative shift to the left from the degenerative shift to the left in neutrophils?

Bone marrow response

Which leukocyte type expresses Fc receptors for IgE and modulates the allergic response caused by basophil degranulation?

Eosinophils

Which factor initiates the classic signs of immediate hypersensitivity reactions (Type I) through histamine release?

Fc receptors for IgE

Which condition causes a short-term increase in the total WBC count and in the absolute number of neutrophils without an actual change in the total blood granulocyte pool or toxic changes to neutrophils?

Physiologic neutrophilia

Which abnormality is characterized by a nucleus that is usually round instead of the dumbbell shape normally seen?

Pseudo Pelger-Huet anomaly

Which anomaly is associated with large, crystalline, Dohle-like inclusions in the neutrophil cytoplasm?

May-Hegglin anomaly

Which anomaly is characterized by large azurophilic granules in the cytoplasm due to an enzyme defect?

Alder-Reilly anomaly

Which type of granules are typically present in the cytoplasm of neutrophils with toxic granulation?

Primary granules

Which anomaly is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait?

May-Hegglin anomaly

Which abnormality is frequently accompanied by hypogranulation?

Pseudo Pelger-Huet anomaly

Which type of leukocyte may have large, crystalline, Dohle-like inclusions on Wright's stain in the presence of a specific anomaly?

Neutrophils

What should be differentiated from the large azurophilic granules seen in Alder-Reilly anomaly?

Toxic granulation present in neutrophils only during infectious conditions

In which cell line can large azurophilic granules appear due to an enzyme defect in Alder-Reilly anomaly?

Neutrophils only

Which of the following statements about monocytes is NOT true?

They kill the ingested material during the phagocytic process

What condition is associated with an increase in the absolute number of monocytes?

Autoimmune disorders like systemic lupus erythematosus

Which of the following is the most common lipid storage disorder with an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern?

Gaucher disease

What is the main function of spleen macrophages?

Remove old/damaged RBCs and conserve iron for recycling

Which of the following diseases is characterized by large azurophilic granules in the cytoplasm due to an enzyme defect?

Alder-Reilly anomaly

What condition is characterized by a decrease in the absolute number of monocytes?

Chronic bacterial infections

What is the function of bone marrow macrophages?

Ingest abnormal RBCs and store and supply iron for hemoglobin synthesis

What is true about prolymphocytes?

They have a N:C ratio of 3:1

What distinguishes reactive lymphocytes from lymphoblasts?

Fine chromatin and nucleoli present in reactive lymphocytes but not in lymphoblasts

What is the enzyme defect in Alder-Reilly anomaly?

Defect in acid phosphatase

Which cell type represents the transitional cell that migrates into the tissue and becomes a fixed or free macrophage?

Monocyte

Which cells are named according to their location in the body?

Monocytes

Which monocyte precursor has a round/oval eccentric nucleus with fine chromatin and no cytoplasmic granules?

Monoblast

Which cells contain lysosomes with hydrolytic enzymes including peroxidase and acid phosphatase?

Monocytes

What is the characteristic nucleus shape of a macrophage?

"Horseshoe" or "kidney-bean" shaped

Which cells are derived from the myeloid progenitor cell, CFU-GM, and are acted on by growth factors and interleukins to form monocytes?

"Peripheral blood monocytes"

Which cells are characterized by blue-gray cytoplasm, fine azurophilic granules, and may have pseudopods and vacuoles?

"Monocytes"

"Kupffer cells" are primarily found in which organ?

Liver

What is the primary function of macrophages in the body?

Phagocytosis of bacteria and cellular debris

Which membrane markers are used to identify T lymphocytes (T cells)?

CD2, CD3

What is the primary function of T suppressor cells (T-s, T8)?

Suppressing activation of B cells by antigens

What is the characteristic morphology associated with reactivity in B lymphocytes?

Transformation into plasma cells

What are natural killer (NK) cells responsible for?

Destroying tumor cells and cells infected with viruses

Which virus infects B lymphocytes and is common in the 14-24 age group?

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

Which condition has symptoms similar to infectious mononucleosis and is transmitted by blood transfusions and saliva exchange?

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

Which condition is associated with adenovirus and coxsackie A virus?

Infectious lymphocytosis

What is the primary difference between the origins of leukemia and lymphoma?

Leukemia originates in the bone marrow and is initially systemic, while lymphoma originates in lymphoid tissue and is initially localized

Which factor is NOT listed as a possible cause for oncogene activation contributing to malignant leukocyte disorders?

Bacterial infections

What is the optimal sample for bone marrow examination?

Both the aspirate and core biopsy specimen

Which chromosome abnormality is diagnostic for acute promyelocytic leukemia?

t(15;17)

What is the predominant cell type in chronic leukemias?

Mature cells

Which testing method may be used for bone marrow examination?

Flow cytometry

What are the characteristics of acute leukemias in terms of survival without treatment?

Survival is weeks to months without treatment

What is the defining characteristic of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) by the World Health Organization (WHO) classification?

More than 20% bone marrow blasts

What distinguishes small lymphoblasts with homogeneous appearance in acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) by the FAB classification?

Basophilic cytoplasm with vacuoles

What is the defining characteristic of chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) in the laboratory findings?

Presence of smudge cells

What is the defining characteristic of small lymphocyte lymphoma (SLL) which is the lymphoma phase of CLL?

Small, hyperclumped lymphocytes

What distinguishes Burkitt lymphoma from other types of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)?

Large and uniform lymphoblasts with prominent nucleoli

What are Doehle bodies, small oval inclusions located in the cytoplasm of neutrophils, associated with?

Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)

What is the defining characteristic of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) in terms of cellularity?

>70% cellularity in bone marrow

In Hodgkin lymphoma, which cell type is typically found in the lymph node biopsy?

Reed-Sternberg (RS) cells

What is the most common subtype of Hodgkin lymphoma based on the WHO classification?

Nodular sclerosis

Which condition presents as a disseminated disease with widespread skin involvement and circulating lymphoma cells?

Mycosis fungoides

What is the enzyme detected by the cytochemical stain myeloperoxidase (MPO)?

Peroxidase

Which stain is used to differentiate blasts of acute myelogenous leukemias (AMLs) from acute lymphoblastic leukemias (ALLs)?

Sudan Black B

Which type of neoplasm is classified by WHO as a T/NK cell neoplasm?

Mycosis fungoides

What does an increased LAP score indicate during active disease?

Granulocytic series abnormalities

Which condition causes skin itching and ulcerative tumors?

$Mycosis fungoides$

$Non-Hodgkin lymphoma$ is usually seen in patients over which age?

$50$ years of age

Which malignancy is characterized by lymphocytosis greater than 100 X 10^9/L and the presence of prolymphocytes?

Prolymphocytic leukemia

Which condition is identified on serum protein electrophoresis by an 'M'-spike in the gamma-globulin region?

Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia

Which malignancy results in dry tap on bone marrow aspiration due to extensive bone marrow involvement?

Hairy cell leukemia

Which condition is associated with marked rouleaux, increased ESR, and a blue background to blood smear?

Multiple myeloma

Which malignancy has the characteristic of being tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP) stain positive?

Hairy cell leukemia

Which condition is caused by a monoclonal gammopathy leading to excessive production of IgG or IgA with decreased production of other immunoglobulins?

Multiple myeloma

Which malignancy is characterized by the presence of plasma cells and lymphocytes on a blood smear, in addition to other laboratory findings?

Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia

Which stain is useful in distinguishing acute myeloid leukemias from those that are primarily cells of monocytic origin?

Naphthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase stain

Which stain detects esterase enzyme present in monocytic cells?

Alpha-naphthyl butyrate stain

Which stain is useful in the diagnosis of erythroleukemia and acute lymphoblastic leukemia?

Periodic acid-Schiff stain

Which stain detects alkaline phosphatase enzyme activity in primary granules of neutrophils?

Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase stain

What is the reference range for LAP (Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase) score based on neutrophil grading?

13-130

What type of cells are negative for the Naphthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase stain?

Granulocytic cells

Which cells are positive with the Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain?

Malignant erythroblasts

What does a positive Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) stain indicate?

Dark precipitate due to presence of alkaline phosphatase activity

What is the purpose of the LAP score based on neutrophil grading?

Assessment of leukemoid reaction intensity

What does the inability to differentiate chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) from a neutrophilic leukemoid reaction (NLR) cause?

Misdiagnosis of CML as NLR

What is the color of the precipitate observed in a positive Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) stain?

Dependent on dye used

What is the defining characteristic of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) in terms of cellularity?

Elevated WBC count and all stages of granulocyte production

Which condition is characterized by inappropriate erythropoiesis despite decreased erythropoietin (EPO)?

Polycythemia Vera

What is the primary distinguishing factor between Secondary Polycythemia and Relative (Pseudo-) Polycythemia?

Appropriate response to increased EPO or tissue hypoxia

Which disorder is characterized by progressive blood cytopenias despite bone marrow hyperplasia?

Myelodysplastic Syndromes

What is the characteristic feature of Chronic Idiopathic Myelofibrosis in terms of laboratory findings?

Anisocytosis and poikilocytosis with teardrop cells

What distinguishes Essential Thrombocythemia from Reactive Thrombocytosis and Polycythemia Vera?

Giant forms of platelets and abnormal platelet function

What distinguishes Polycythemia Vera from other forms of polycythemia based on the laboratory findings?

Increased RBC (>20 g/dL) and hematocrit (>60%)

What is the distinguishing feature of Essential Thrombocythemia in terms of the affected age group?

Found mainly in adults 60 years of age and older

Which condition's accelerated phase ultimately leads to acute leukemia in most patients?

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia

What differentiates Myelodysplastic Syndromes from other myeloproliferative neoplasms?

Progressive blood cytopenias despite bone marrow hyperplasia

Which disease is most likely to be associated with an increased LAP score?

Polycythemia vera

Which acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) subtype is characterized by proliferation of unipotential stem cell CFU-GM?

M2

What is the defining characteristic of acute monocytic leukemia (AMOL)?

≥80% monoblasts in the bone marrow

Which membrane markers are used to identify megakaryoblasts and atypical megakaryocytes in acute megakaryocytic leukemia (AMegL)?

CD41, CD42, and CD61

What is the primary distinguishing feature of BILINEAGE LEUKEMIAS?

Contain two cell populations with myeloid and lymphoid antigens expressed

What is the implication of JAK2 oncogene in chronic myeloproliferative disorders?

Implicated in all chronic myeloproliferative disorders

What is a distinguishing feature of TARTRATE-RESISTANT ACID PHOSPHATASE STAIN (TRAP) in hairy cell leukemia?

Cells are resistant to inhibition with tartrate

This quiz provides an introduction to leukocytes, focusing on their classification as phagocytes (granulocytes and monocytes) and immunocytes (lymphocytes, plasma cells, and monocytes). It also covers the WBC reference range in SI units and the functions of neutrophils, monocytes, and T lymphocytes.

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