Introduction to Criminal and Civil Law

Multiple Choice Questions

• Question 1: Running from a pawnshop with stolen jewelry constitutes a violation of criminal law.
• Question 2: Assault is a type of intentional tort involving the threat to physically harm someone.
• Question 3: A case involving a complainant and a defendant is a criminal case.
• Question 4: A case between a plaintiff and an accused is a civil case.
• Question 5: Kidnapping is a criminal law violation.
• Question 6: A subpoena is an order requiring a person to attend court as a witness at a specific time.
• Question 7: "Res ipsa loquitur" means "the thing speaks for itself."
• Question 8: Neighborly disputes concerning barbecue smoke are considered violations of private law.
• Question 9: Public law refers to the relationship between the government and individuals.
• Question 10: Remedial law describes the method for enforcing private rights.
• Question 11: Election law governs government officials, candidates, advocacy groups, and unions.
• Question 12: Frustrated is a stage in a crime whereby all elements are fulfilled but no successful result is achieved.
• Question 13: Consummated is the stage of a crime where all elements are fulfilled and there is a successful result.
• Question 14: Respect for privacy was violated when the physician intimidated the patient concerning the IVU procedure.
• Question 15: A patient's right to autonomy (or freedom of decision-making) was violated when the radiology technician forced her to undergo the procedure against her will and her pain.
• Question 16: Employee's law governs the relationship between hospitals and radiologic technologists concerning salary, rules & regulations and Leave.
• Question 17: Dean displayed beneficence by adjusting the x-ray procedure to avoid additional harm to the patient.
• Question 18: The radiographer's violation of patient confidentiality resulted in professional breach of ethics.
• Question 19: Sanctity of life refers to the respect for life from conception to natural death.
• Question 20: Rights in personal is defined as protecting a person's body, reputation and freedom from unlawful conduct.
• Question 21: "Nullius crimen sine lege" means "no crime without law".
• Question 22: Ignorantia juris non excusat means "ignorance of the law excuses no one".
• Question 23: A radiologic technologist's goal is to maintain safe outcomes and avoid harmful consequences.
• Question 24: False imprisonment occurs when a person is restrained without legal justification.
• Question 25: Radiographing the wrong patient is a violation of patient's rights.
• Question 26: Unjustified restraint of a patient constitutes false imprisonment.
• Question 27: Restoration of maintenance of function for a stroke patient is a rehabilitative goal.
• Question 28: Res ipsa loquitur is the doctrine of common sense in negligence cases where the act itself speaks for negligence.
• Question 29: Discovery phase involves fact-finding through written and oral questions.
• Question 30: Respondeat superior is a liability doctrine where employers are held liable for their employees' negligence.
• Question 31: Force majeure doctrine relieves parties of obligations when external unavoidable causes prevent contractual performance.
• Question 32: Trial describes the resolution process whereby a court makes decisions to resolve disputes.
• Question 33: Due process is a defendant's right to defend himself.
• Question 34: Hearsay evidence is given by someone who didn't see or hear the event.
• Question 35: In a civil action, the plaintiff seeks a legal remedy for a wrong.
• Question 36: Profession is the work/occupation that a person does.
• Question 37: Patient autonomy respects patients' right to self-determination.
• Question 38: Autonomy concerns patient's right to make decisions free from undue influence of others.
• Question 39: Consequentialism is making decisions based on their expected results.
• Question 40: Deontology means decisions that follow rules/principles without considering the outcome.
• Question 41: Deontology suggests moral conduct is dependent on actions/principles rather than outcomes.
• Question 42: Confidentiality protects patient privacy.
• Question 43: There's an obligation to maintain professional confidentiality regarding patient's health condition.
• Question 44: A technologist's obligation is to respect the patient's confidentiality rather than disclosing to the airlines.
• Question 45: Beneficence refers to actions primarily intended to benefit the patient.
• Question 46: Negligence involves failure to use reasonable care and cause damages.
• Question 47: Beneficence means to be kind and charitable to others.
• Question 48: Stewardship involves caring and responsibility for one's life and others' lives.
• Question 49: La causa de la causa es causa del mal causado is the Latin translation.

True or False Questions

• Question 50: Pharmacology involves the adverse effects of medications. (T)
• Question 51: All medications have generic names. (F)
• Question 52: Legend drugs don't require a prescription. (F)
• Question 53: Radiopaque drugs are legend drugs. (T)
• Question 54: Expiration date is one of vital components of a valid prescription. (F)
• Question 55: Controlled substances should be counted at the beginning and end of a shift (T).
• Question 56: Schedule C-V drugs are illegal in the US. (F)
• Question 57: The therapeutic index is the ratio of the median lethal dose to the median effective dose (T)
• Question 58: Imaging technologists are required to place informed consent forms in patient charts (F)
• Question 59: A prescription is a document admissible in court. (T)
• Question 60: Manufacturers pay for their products to be in PDR. (T)

Multiple Choice Questions 2

• Question 61: "C" stands for controlled in controlled substances.
• Question 62: A schedule I drug has a higher potential for abuse than a schedule V drug.
• Question 63: Preclinical trials and clinical trials are the two phases.
• Question 64: Useful drug references are the Physician's Desk Reference (PDR), United States Pharmacopeia (USP), and American Hospital Formulary Service (AHFS).
• Question 65: Patient charts must include name, admitting diagnosis, physician's signature and birth date.
• Question 66: The seven components of a valid prescription are drug name, dosage, dosage form, route of administration, patient's name, date, and prescriber's signature.
• Question 67: Generic name is the official name of a drug's active ingredient.
• Question 68: The FDA is responsible for safeguarding the public from fraudulent claims by pharmaceutical companies.
• Question 69: Legend drugs are those that require a prescription.
• Question 70: Schedule I drugs have the highest abuse potential.
• Question 71: Pharmacology describes the study of drugs in living systems.
• Question 72: Patient medical charts belong to the patient.
• Question 73: The terms describe barriers to drug distribution in the body.
• Question 74: Biotransformation is the term.
• Question 75: Pharmacokinetics, the area of pharmacology, concerns the method for effective drug administration.
• Question 76: Pharmacokinetics encompasses the steps in how drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated within the body.
• Question 77: Passive diffusion is the major route for drug movement into cells.
• Question 78: Medications must go through disintegration to be absorbed through passive transport.
• Question 79: Dissolution assists the absorption of medications.

Matching Questions:

• matching answer: This section involves matching medical terms with descriptions.

More Multiple Choice Questions

• Question 88: The drug vehicle is substance that drug is put into.
• Question 89: Drugs are eliminated from the body through a combination of metabolism and excretion.
• Question 90: Passive diffusion is the most common mechanism for drug movement across cell membranes.
• Question 91: Troches are the general term for lozenges or pastilles.
• Question 92: Pharmacokinetics refers to the process of how drugs are metabolized and eliminated.
• Question 93: Troches are dosage forms designed for taste masking, ease of administration, and controlled drug release.
• Question 94: Emulsions comprise two immiscible liquids.
• Question 95: Solutions are mixtures of a solid, liquid, or gas dissolved in a liquid.

Table 3-2

• Table 3-2: Absorption of different dosage forms in order of fastest absorption to slowest absorption.