Introduction to Criminal and Civil Law

Multiple Choice Questions

• Question 1: Running from a pawnshop with stolen jewelry constitutes a violation of criminal law.
• Question 2: Assault is a type of intentional tort involving the threat to physically harm someone.
• Question 3: A case involving a complainant and a defendant is a criminal case.
• Question 4: A case between a plaintiff and an accused is a civil case.
• Question 5: Kidnapping is a criminal law violation.
• Question 6: A subpoena is an order requiring a person to attend court as a witness at a specific time.
• Question 7: "Res ipsa loquitur" means "the thing speaks for itself."
• Question 8: Neighborly disputes concerning barbecue smoke are considered violations of private law.
• Question 9: Public law refers to the relationship between the government and individuals.
• Question 10: Remedial law describes the method for enforcing private rights.
• Question 11: Election law governs government officials, candidates, advocacy groups, and unions.
• Question 12: Frustrated is a stage in a crime whereby all elements are fulfilled but no successful result is achieved.
• Question 13: Consummated is the stage of a crime where all elements are fulfilled and there is a successful result.
• Question 14: Respect for privacy was violated when the physician intimidated the patient concerning the IVU procedure.
• Question 15: A patient's right to autonomy (or freedom of decision-making) was violated when the radiology technician forced her to undergo the procedure against her will and her pain.
• Question 16: Employee's law governs the relationship between hospitals and radiologic technologists concerning salary, rules & regulations and Leave.
• Question 17: Dean displayed beneficence by adjusting the x-ray procedure to avoid additional harm to the patient.
• Question 18: The radiographer's violation of patient confidentiality resulted in professional breach of ethics.
• Question 19: Sanctity of life refers to the respect for life from conception to natural death.
• Question 20: Rights in personal is defined as protecting a person's body, reputation and freedom from unlawful conduct.
• Question 21: "Nullius crimen sine lege" means "no crime without law".
• Question 22: Ignorantia juris non excusat means "ignorance of the law excuses no one".
• Question 23: A radiologic technologist's goal is to maintain safe outcomes and avoid harmful consequences.
• Question 24: False imprisonment occurs when a person is restrained without legal justification.
• Question 25: Radiographing the wrong patient is a violation of patient's rights.
• Question 26: Unjustified restraint of a patient constitutes false imprisonment.
• Question 27: Restoration of maintenance of function for a stroke patient is a rehabilitative goal.
• Question 28: Res ipsa loquitur is the doctrine of common sense in negligence cases where the act itself speaks for negligence.
• Question 29: Discovery phase involves fact-finding through written and oral questions.
• Question 30: Respondeat superior is a liability doctrine where employers are held liable for their employees' negligence.
• Question 31: Force majeure doctrine relieves parties of obligations when external unavoidable causes prevent contractual performance.
• Question 32: Trial describes the resolution process whereby a court makes decisions to resolve disputes.
• Question 33: Due process is a defendant's right to defend himself.
• Question 34: Hearsay evidence is given by someone who didn't see or hear the event.
• Question 35: In a civil action, the plaintiff seeks a legal remedy for a wrong.
• Question 36: Profession is the work/occupation that a person does.
• Question 37: Patient autonomy respects patients' right to self-determination.
• Question 38: Autonomy concerns patient's right to make decisions free from undue influence of others.
• Question 39: Consequentialism is making decisions based on their expected results.
• Question 40: Deontology means decisions that follow rules/principles without considering the outcome.
• Question 41: Deontology suggests moral conduct is dependent on actions/principles rather than outcomes.
• Question 42: Confidentiality protects patient privacy.
• Question 43: There's an obligation to maintain professional confidentiality regarding patient's health condition.
• Question 44: A technologist's obligation is to respect the patient's confidentiality rather than disclosing to the airlines.
• Question 45: Beneficence refers to actions primarily intended to benefit the patient.
• Question 46: Negligence involves failure to use reasonable care and cause damages.
• Question 47: Beneficence means to be kind and charitable to others.
• Question 48: Stewardship involves caring and responsibility for one's life and others' lives.
• Question 49: La causa de la causa es causa del mal causado is the Latin translation.

True or False Questions

• Question 50: Pharmacology involves the adverse effects of medications. (T)
• Question 51: All medications have generic names. (F)
• Question 52: Legend drugs don't require a prescription. (F)
• Question 53: Radiopaque drugs are legend drugs. (T)
• Question 54: Expiration date is one of vital components of a valid prescription. (F)
• Question 55: Controlled substances should be counted at the beginning and end of a shift (T).
• Question 56: Schedule C-V drugs are illegal in the US. (F)
• Question 57: The therapeutic index is the ratio of the median lethal dose to the median effective dose (T)
• Question 58: Imaging technologists are required to place informed consent forms in patient charts (F)
• Question 59: A prescription is a document admissible in court. (T)
• Question 60: Manufacturers pay for their products to be in PDR. (T)

Multiple Choice Questions 2

• Question 61: "C" stands for controlled in controlled substances.
• Question 62: A schedule I drug has a higher potential for abuse than a schedule V drug.
• Question 63: Preclinical trials and clinical trials are the two phases.
• Question 64: Useful drug references are the Physician's Desk Reference (PDR), United States Pharmacopeia (USP), and American Hospital Formulary Service (AHFS).
• Question 65: Patient charts must include name, admitting diagnosis, physician's signature and birth date.
• Question 66: The seven components of a valid prescription are drug name, dosage, dosage form, route of administration, patient's name, date, and prescriber's signature.
• Question 67: Generic name is the official name of a drug's active ingredient.
• Question 68: The FDA is responsible for safeguarding the public from fraudulent claims by pharmaceutical companies.
• Question 69: Legend drugs are those that require a prescription.
• Question 70: Schedule I drugs have the highest abuse potential.
• Question 71: Pharmacology describes the study of drugs in living systems.
• Question 72: Patient medical charts belong to the patient.
• Question 73: The terms describe barriers to drug distribution in the body.
• Question 74: Biotransformation is the term.
• Question 75: Pharmacokinetics, the area of pharmacology, concerns the method for effective drug administration.
• Question 76: Pharmacokinetics encompasses the steps in how drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated within the body.
• Question 77: Passive diffusion is the major route for drug movement into cells.
• Question 78: Medications must go through disintegration to be absorbed through passive transport.
• Question 79: Dissolution assists the absorption of medications.

Matching Questions:

• matching answer: This section involves matching medical terms with descriptions.

More Multiple Choice Questions

• Question 88: The drug vehicle is substance that drug is put into.
• Question 89: Drugs are eliminated from the body through a combination of metabolism and excretion.
• Question 90: Passive diffusion is the most common mechanism for drug movement across cell membranes.
• Question 91: Troches are the general term for lozenges or pastilles.
• Question 92: Pharmacokinetics refers to the process of how drugs are metabolized and eliminated.
• Question 93: Troches are dosage forms designed for taste masking, ease of administration, and controlled drug release.
• Question 94: Emulsions comprise two immiscible liquids.
• Question 95: Solutions are mixtures of a solid, liquid, or gas dissolved in a liquid.

Table 3-2

• Table 3-2: Absorption of different dosage forms in order of fastest absorption to slowest absorption.

Test your understanding of key concepts in criminal and civil law with this quiz. Explore essential terms such as tort, subpoena, and legal classifications. Perfect for students studying law or anyone interested in legal principles.