Introduction to Biotechnology

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Questions and Answers

What is biotechnology primarily concerned with?

  • The study of ancient civilizations
  • The use of microorganisms, cells, or their components to make a product (correct)
  • The construction of large buildings
  • The exploration of outer space

What does the term 'rDNA technology' refer to?

  • The process of making steel
  • The creation of artificial sweeteners
  • The study of rock formations
  • The insertion or modification of genes to produce desired proteins (correct)

Which of the following BEST describes a vector in the context of recombinant DNA?

  • A self-replicating DNA molecule used to transport foreign DNA into a cell (correct)
  • A type of computer virus
  • A specific type of protein
  • A mathematical equation

What is a 'clone' in the context of recombinant DNA technology?

<p>A population of genetically identical cells arising from one cell (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the process of selecting for a naturally occurring microbe that produces a desired product known as?

<p>Selection (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do mutagens cause?

<p>Mutations (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the term for a targeted and specific change in a gene?

<p>Site-directed Mutagenesis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of restriction enzymes?

<p>To cut DNA at specific sequences (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key way that bacteria protect their own DNA from digestion?

<p>By having methylated cytosines in their DNA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the ends of DNA fragments created by some restriction enzymes called?

<p>Sticky ends (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of vectors in genetic engineering?

<p>To carry new DNA to desired cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a crucial property of vectors in the context of genetic engineering?

<p>They must be able to self-replicate (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following can be used as vectors?

<p>Plasmids and viruses (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where do shuttle vectors exist?

<p>In several different species (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)?

<p>Increasing small quantities of DNA for analysis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For what are PCR techniques commonly used?

<p>Diagnostic tests for genetic diseases and detecting pathogens (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What serves as a template in Reverse-Transcription PCR?

<p>mRNA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes a method by which DNA can be inserted into a cell?

<p>Transformation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is electroporation?

<p>A method where electrical current forms pores in cell membranes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What process involves removing cell walls from two bacteria to allow them to fuse?

<p>Protoplast Fusion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one direct method of inserting foreign DNA into a cell?

<p>Gene Gun (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the method of directly injecting foreign DNA into a cell?

<p>Microinjection (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are collections of clones containing different DNA fragments called?

<p>Genomic Libraries (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are genomic libraries constructed from?

<p>Digested and spliced organism DNA (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is complementary DNA (cDNA) used when working with Eukaryotic genes?

<p>Eukaryotic DNA has introns that do not code for proteins (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is removed from mRNA to code only for the protein product?

<p>Introns (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What machine is used to build genes?

<p>DNA synthesis machine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the blue-white screening technique typically use?

<p>A plasmid vector containing an ampicillin resistance gene and Beta-galactosidase gene (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is added to the media in blue-white screening?

<p>Ampicillin and X-gal (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does colony hybridization utilize to identify specific DNA sequences?

<p>DNA probes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic makes E. coli particularly useful in creating a gene product?

<p>It is easily grown and its genomics are known (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a disadvantage of using E. coli to produce gene products?

<p>It produces endotoxins and does not secrete its protein products (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What's an advantage of using Saccharomyces cerevisiae?

<p>Expresses eukaryotic genes easily (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What's a trait of using Mammalian Cells?

<p>Can make products for medical use (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the goal of gene therapy in therapeutic applications?

<p>To replace defective or missing genes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What therapeutic application uses CRISPR to correct genetic mutations at specific locations?

<p>Gene editing (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the goal of RNAi?

<p>To transfer into a cell (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the field of metagenomics study?

<p>The genetic material directly from environmental samples (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which project sequenced the entire human genome?

<p>The Human Genome Project (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does bioinformatics primarily involve?

<p>Understanding gene function via computer-assisted analysis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which scientific application focuses on determining the proteins expressed in a cell?

<p>Proteomics (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does Southern blotting use to detect specific DNA in fragments separated by gel electrophoresis?

<p>DNA probes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one use of genetic testing?

<p>To screen parental or fetal tissue for possible genetic diseases (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes disinfection from antisepsis?

<p>Disinfection is used on inanimate objects, while antisepsis is used on living tissue. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios exemplifies sanitization?

<p>Washing eating utensils in a restaurant to lower microbial counts. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does bacteriostasis differ from the actions of a biocide?

<p>Bacteriostasis inhibits microbial growth, while biocides kill microbes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a microbial death rate curve, what does the slope of the curve represent?

<p>The rate at which the population decreases per unit of time. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor most significantly affects the effectiveness of a microbial control treatment?

<p>The number of microorganisms initially present. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a microbial control agent damages nucleic acids, what is the most likely outcome?

<p>Disruption of protein synthesis and genetic mutations. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of thermal death time (TDT) in microbial control?

<p>It is the minimum time for all bacteria in a liquid culture to be killed at a specific temperature. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the critical parameter that autoclaves rely on to achieve sterilization?

<p>Heat and steam under pressure. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does pasteurization differ fundamentally from sterilization?

<p>Pasteurization reduces spoilage organisms and pathogens, while sterilization eliminates all microbial life. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which dry heat sterilization kills microorganisms?

<p>By oxidation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are membrane filters used for sterilizing certain substances?

<p>Because they physically remove microbes from heat-sensitive materials. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does high pressure control microbial growth?

<p>By denaturing proteins and altering carbohydrate structures. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main effect of ionizing radiation on microorganisms?

<p>It ionizes water to create reactive hydroxyl radicals and damages DNA. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a factor influencing the effectiveness of a disinfectant?

<p>The color of the disinfectant. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are metal cylinders used in dilution tests to evaluate disinfectants?

<p>To provide a standardized surface for bacterial attachment and disinfectant testing. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do bisphenols, such as triclosan, act as disinfectants?

<p>They disrupt plasma membranes, causing leakage. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of alcohols that makes them effective disinfectants?

<p>They denature proteins and dissolve lipids, but require water to do so effectively. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is Oligodynamic action?

<p>The antimicrobial activity exerted by very small amounts of heavy metals. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a typical use of peroxygens?

<p>Antiseptic on open wounds. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main mechanism by which aldehydes disinfect?

<p>Inactivating proteins by cross-linking with functional groups (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the degeneracy of the genetic code impact protein synthesis?

<p>It allows multiple codons to code for the same amino acid, providing some robustness against mutations. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes a bacterial chromosome from eukaryotic chromosomes in terms of structure?

<p>Bacterial chromosomes are typically single and circular, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes are multiple and linear. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does horizontal gene transfer contribute to genetic diversity in bacteria?

<p>It allows for the exchange of genetic material between cells of the same generation, leading to new combinations of genes. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of hydrogen bonds in maintaining the structure of a DNA molecule?

<p>They hold the two strands of nucleotides together by pairing adenine with thymine and cytosine with guanine. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During DNA replication, what is the function of topoisomerase and gyrase?

<p>To relax the supercoiling of DNA ahead of the replication fork. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does DNA polymerase ensure the accuracy of DNA replication?

<p>By proofreading and repairing errors during DNA synthesis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of bidirectional replication in bacteria?

<p>It allows for faster replication of the bacterial chromosome from a single origin of replication. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does RNA differ structurally from DNA?

<p>RNA is single-stranded and contains ribose sugar; DNA is double-stranded and contains deoxyribose sugar. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of messenger RNA (mRNA) in protein synthesis?

<p>It carries coded information from DNA to ribosomes to make proteins. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the promoter sequence in transcription?

<p>It is the region where RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does transcription in eukaryotes differ from transcription in prokaryotes?

<p>Eukaryotic genes contain introns that must be removed after transcription, while prokaryotic genes do not contain introns. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During translation, what role do codons play?

<p>They are groups of three mRNA nucleotides that code for a particular amino acid. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the start codon, AUG, in translation?

<p>It codes for the amino acid methionine and initiates translation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does tRNA contribute to the process of translation?

<p>It transports the required amino acids to the ribosome and recognizes codons via its anticodon. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of ribosomes in protein synthesis?

<p>They are the sites where mRNA is translated into protein. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In bacteria, what is a key difference in the timing of transcription and translation compared to eukaryotes?

<p>In bacteria, translation can begin before transcription is complete, whereas in eukaryotes, transcription and translation are spatially separated. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of a repressor in the context of pre-transcriptional control?

<p>To inhibit gene expression by binding to the operator and blocking transcription. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the lac operon, what occurs in the absence of lactose?

<p>The repressor binds to the operator, preventing transcription. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of a corepressor in a repressible operon such as the tryptophan (trp) operon?

<p>It binds to the repressor, enabling it to bind to the operator and block transcription. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes a silent mutation?

<p>A change in the DNA sequence that has no effect on the amino acid sequence of the protein. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the direct consequence of a frameshift mutation?

<p>The reading frame of the genetic code is altered, leading to a completely different amino acid sequence from the point of mutation onwards. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do nucleoside analogs cause mutations?

<p>They incorporate into DNA in place of normal bases, causing mistakes in base pairing during replication. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of UV radiation on DNA?

<p>It causes thymine dimers, which interfere with DNA replication and transcription. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of photolyases in DNA repair?

<p>They use energy from visible light to separate thymine dimers. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of the Ames test?

<p>To expose mutant bacteria to mutagenic substances and measure the rate of reversal of the mutation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurs during genetic recombination?

<p>Genes are exchanged between two DNA molecules, creating genetic diversity. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key difference between vertical and horizontal gene transfer?

<p>Vertical gene transfer occurs from parent to offspring, while horizontal gene transfer occurs between cells of the same generation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is required for conjugation to occur in bacteria?

<p>Cell-to-cell contact via sex pili. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In transduction, how is DNA transferred from a donor cell to a recipient cell?

<p>Via a bacteriophage. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key characteristic of plasmids?

<p>They are self-replicating circular pieces of DNA. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

What is Biotechnology?

The use of microorganisms, cells, or cell components to make a product.

What is Recombinant DNA (rDNA) technology?

The insertion or modification of genes to produce desired proteins.

What is a Vector?

A self-replicating DNA molecule used to transport foreign DNA into a cell.

What is a Clone?

A population of genetically identical cells arising from one cell; each carries the vector.

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What is Selection?

Selecting for a naturally occurring microbe that produces a desired product.

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What is Mutation?

Mutagens cause mutations that might result in a microbe with a desirable trait.

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What is Site-directed Mutagenesis?

A targeted and specific change in a gene.

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What are Restriction Enzymes?

Enzymes that cut specific sequences of DNA.

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What is Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)?

Small quantities of DNA are amplified for analysis.

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What is PCR used for?

Process used for diagnostic tests for genetic diseases and detecting pathogens.

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What is Reverse-Transcription PCR?

A variation of PCR that uses mRNA as a template.

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What is Electroporation?

Electrical current forms pores in cell membranes to introduce foreign DNA.

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What is Protoplast Fusion?

Removing cell walls from two bacteria allows them to fuse and exchange DNA.

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What are Genomic Libraries?

Collections of clones containing different DNA fragments.

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What is Complementary DNA (cDNA)?

Made from mRNA by reverse transcriptase. Eukaryotic DNA has introns that do not code for proteins.

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What is Synthetic DNA?

Uses a machine to builds genes.

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What is Southern blotting?

DNA probes detect specific DNA separated by gel electro.

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What is Shotgun sequencing?

Sequences small pieces of genomes.

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What is Metagenomics?

Study of genetic material directly from environmental samples.

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One safety issue of DNA technology

Need to avoid accidental release into the environment.

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Sepsis

Refers to bacterial contamination.

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Asepsis

The absence of significant contamination.

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Sterilization

Removing and destroying all microbial life.

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Disinfection

Destroying harmful microorganisms on objects.

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Antisepsis

Destroying harmful microorganisms from living tissue.

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Degerming

The mechanical removal of microbes from a limited area.

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Biocide (germicide)

Treatments that kill microbes.

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Bacteriostasis

Inhibiting, not killing, microbes.

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Thermal death point (TDP)

The lowest temperature at which all cells in a liquid culture are killed in 10 minutes.

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Thermal death time (TDT)

The minimal time for all bacteria in a liquid culture to be killed at a particular temperature.

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Decimal reduction time (DRT)

Minutes to kill 90% of a population at a given temperature.

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Autoclave

Heat/steam under pressure.

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Pasteurization

Reduces spoilage organisms and pathogens, but does not sterilize.

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Filtration

Passage of substance through a screenlike material.

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Desiccation

Absence of water prevents metabolism; cells remain viable.

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Osmotic pressure

Salts and sugars create hypertonic environment, causing plasmolysis.

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Nonionizing radiation

Damages DNA by creating thymine dimers.

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Phenol and Phenolics

Injure lipids of plasma membranes, causing leakage.

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Chlorine

Oxidizing agents; shut down cellular enzyme systems.

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Aldehydes

Inactivate proteins by cross-linking with functional groups.

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What is genetics?

The study of genes, heredity, and variation in living organisms.

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What are chromosomes?

Structures containing DNA that carry hereditary information; they contain genes.

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What are genes?

Segments of DNA that encode functional products, usually proteins.

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What is the genetic code?

A set of rules determining how a nucleotide sequence is converted into an amino acid sequence of a protein.

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What is degeneracy?

A property of the genetic code where each amino acid is coded by several codons.

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What is a genotype?

The genetic makeup (genes) of an organism.

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What is a phenotype?

The expression of the genes; physical appearance.

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What is genomics?

The molecular study of genomes.

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What is a genome?

All the genetic information in a cell.

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What are short tandem repeats (STRs)?

Repeating sequences of noncoding DNA.

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What is vertical gene transfer?

Flow of genetic information from one generation to the next.

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What is horizontal gene transfer?

Flow of genetic information between cells of the same generation.

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What are the components of DNA?

Polymer of nucleotides; adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine.

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What is DNA polymerase?

An enzyme that adds nucleotides to the growing DNA strand during replication

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What is DNA ligase?

An enzyme that makes covalent bonds to join DNA strands and Okazaki fragments.

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What is transcription?

Synthesis of a complementary mRNA strand from a DNA template.

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What is a promoter?

Region of DNA where RNA polymerase initiates transcription.

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What is a terminator?

Sequence on DNA where transcription stops.

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What are exons?

Regions of DNA that code for proteins.

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What are introns?

Regions of DNA that do not code for proteins.

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What is a Codon?

Are groups of three mRNA nucleotides that code for a particular amino acid

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What is a an anticodon?

tRNA molecules that recognize codons and carry specific amino acids to the growing protein chain

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What is Repression?

Inhibits gene expression and decreases enzyme synthesis

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What is Induction?

Turns on gene expression

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What is a promoter(in operons)?

A segment of DNA where RNA polymerase initiates transcription of structural genes.

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What is an operator?

Segment of DNA that controls transcription of structural genes.

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What is an operon?

A set of operator and promoter sites and the structural genes they control.

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What is an inducible operon?

Where structural genes are not transcribed unless an inducer is present.

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What is a repressible operons?

Structural genes are transcribed until they are turned off

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What are mutagens?

Agents that cause mutations.

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What is Base substitution?

Change in one base in DNA.

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What is a frameshift mutation?

Insertion or deletion of one or more nucleotide pairs.

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What is Nitrous acid?

Agents that causes adenine to bind with cytosine instead of thymine.

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What is UV radiation?

Radiation Causes thymine dimers (intra-strand bonding).

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What is Spontaneous mutation?

Have a rate of 1 in 1,000,000 replicated genes or 10-6

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What is Positive (direct) selection?

Detects mutant cells because they grow or appear different than unmutated cells

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What is Negative (indirect) selection?

Detects mutant cells that cannot grow or perform a certain function

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What is a Ames test?

Uses mutant bacteria to measure the rate of reversal of the mutation

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What is Genetic recombination?

Exchange of genes between two DNA molecules and creates genetic diversity

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What is Transformation?

Genes transferred as naked DNA and from one bacterium to another

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What is Conjugation?

plasmids transferred from one bacterium to another

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What is Transduction?

DNA is transferred from a donor cell to a recipient via a bacteriophage

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What are the two types of gene transfer?

Vertical and Horizontal

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Study Notes

Okay, I've updated the study notes on Microbial Control. Here are the additions, integrated into your existing structure:

  • Genetics pertains to genes, how they carry information, how information is expressed, and how genes are replicated.

  • Chromosomes are DNA-containing structures that physically carry hereditary information with genes.

  • Genes are DNA segments/nucleotide sequences encoding functional products, usually proteins.

  • The genetic code dictates how nucleotide sequences translate into a protein's amino acid sequence.

  • Genetic code involves the degeneracy, each amino acid is coded by multiple codons.

  • Genotype refers to the genetic makeup of an organism.

  • Phenotype is the expression of genes.

  • Genomics studies of genomes at a molecular level.

  • A genome is an individual cell's complete genetic information.

  • Bacteria usually have a single circular chromosome made of double stranded DNA and associated proteins.

  • DNA serves as the original genetic information in a bacterial cell.

  • Short tandem repeats (STRs) are repeating sequences of noncoding DNA.

  • Vertical gene transfer: flow of genetic information from one generation to the next.

  • Horizontal gene transfer: flow of genetic information between cells of the same generation.

  • DNA forms a double helix

  • It is a polymer of nucleotides: adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine

  • It's "Backbone" consists of deoxyribose-phosphate

  • Two strands of nucleotides are held together by hydrogen bonds between A-T and C-G

  • Strands are antiparallel

  • The nitrogen-containing bases' order forms the organism's genetic instructions

  • During DNA Repliation, one strand serves as a template for a second strand's production.

  • Topoisomerase and gyrase unwind and then relax the DNA strands for replication.

  • Helicase separates the DNA strands at the replication fork.

  • DNA polymerase adds nucleotides only to the 3' end of the growing DNA strand.

  • DNA polymerase adds nucleotides in the 5' → 3' direction

  • The process is initiated by an RNA primer

  • The leading strand is synthesized continuously

  • The lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously, creating Okazaki fragments

  • DNA polymerase removes RNA primers and then the DNA polymerase and DNA ligase joins Okazaki fragment strands

  • DNA replication error rate: 1 out of 109 or 1 in 1010 bases is changed (mutation).

  • DNA replication has its' own proofreading mechanisms.

  • Most bacterial DNA replication is bidirectional

  • Each offspring cell receives one DNA molecule copy

  • Replication is highly accurate due to DNA polymerase's proofreading ability

  • DNA Replication energy is supplied by nucleotides

  • Hydrolysis of two phosphate groups of ATP supplies energy

  • RNA is ribonucleic acid

  • It is a single-stranded nucleotide

  • Contains 5-carbon ribose sugar

  • Contains uracil (U) instead of thymine (T) nucleotides

  • Ribosomal RNA (rRNA): integral part of ribosomes

  • Transfer RNA (tRNA): transports amino acids during protein synthesis

  • Messenger RNA (mRNA): carries coded information from DNA to ribosomes to make proteins

  • Prokaryotes synthesize a complementary mRNA strand from a DNA template

  • Transcription starts when RNA polymerase binds to the promoter sequence on DNA

  • Transcription proceeds in the 5' → 3' direction, one DNA strand is transcribed due to DNA polymerase's 3' start point only

  • Transcription stops when it reaches the terminator sequence on DNA

  • Steps of Transcription

  • RNA polymerase binds to DNA sequence called promoter (TATA box)

  • RNA polymerase makes RNA copy of gene (transcript).

  • RNA synthesis continues until RNA polymerase reaches a terminator.

  • New RNA molecule and RNA polymerase are released

  • In eukaryotes only, transcription occurs in the nucleus, while translation occurs in the cytoplasm

  • Exons are regions of DNA that code for proteins

  • Introns are regions of DNA that do not code for proteins

  • Translation occurs when mRNA is translated into the "language" of proteins.

  • mRNA is the template created by transcription on which protein chains are assembled.

  • Codons are groups of three mRNA nucleotides coding a particular amino acid

  • 61 sense codons encode the 20 amino acids

  • Antisense codons are stop codons and do not code for any amino acid.

  • mRNA Translation begins at the start codon: AUG (methionine)

  • Translation ends at nonsense codons: UAA, UAG, UGA

  • mRNA codons are "read" sequentially

  • Translation occurs on the ribosome (made of two subunits, large and small).

  • tRNA molecules have an anticodon which recognizes codons, carrying specific amino acids to the growing protein chain.

  • tRNA molecules transport required amino acids to the ribosome.

  • Anticodon containing tRNA molecules base-pairs with the codon.

  • Individual amino acids are then joined by peptide bonds

  • Nucleic acid sequence within a gene determines the primary structure of proteins

  • 2º, 3º and 4º structure then are determined by folding of the protein due to bond formation of side groups on amino acids.

  • Ribosomal subunits and mRNA assemble.

  • Start codon (AUG) binds to tRNA with methionine (formylmethionine for bacteria)

  • Subsequent amino acids are added by translating one codon at a time during elongation.

  • Ribosomes attach each amino acid to growing protein chain using peptide bond formation.

  • When a stop codon is reached, translation stops, and ribosome-mRNA complex falls apart during Termination.

  • In bacteria, translation can begin before transcription is complete

  • Constitutive genes are expressed at a fixed rate

  • Other genes are expressed only as needed; Inducible genes; Repressible genes; Catabolite repression

  • Repression inhibits gene expression and decreases enzyme synthesis

  • Repression is Mediated by repressors that are proteins that block transcription

  • In Repression, the default position of a repressible gene is ON

  • Induction turns ON gene expression using an inducer

  • In Induction, the default position of an inducible gene is OFF

  • Promoter: segment of DNA where RNA polymerase initiates transcription of structural genes (ex. TATA box)

  • Operator: segment of DNA that controls transcription of structural genes (stop/go)

  • Operon: set of operator and promoter sites and the structural genes they control

  • Two operon types are Inducible and Repressible

  • In an inducible operon, structural genes are not transcribed unless an inducer is present (lac operon)

  • In the absence of lactose, the repressor binds to the operator, preventing transcription

  • In the presence of lactose, lactose (inducer) binds to the repressor; the repressor cannot bind to the operator and transcription occurs

  • In repressible operons, structural genes are transcribed until they are turned off

  • Excess tryptophan is a corepressor binding and activating the repressor to bind to the operator, then stopping tryptophan synthesis

  • Mutation: a permanent change in DNA's base sequence

  • Mutations may be neutral (silent), beneficial, or harmful

  • Mutagens: agents causing mutations

  • Spontaneous mutations: occur without a mutagen (1 mutation per million replicated genes)

  • Base substitution (point mutation): Most common mutation, changing one base in DNA; Silent, Missense, Nonsense, Frameshift, Base addition or deletion

  • Missense mutation: Base substitution results in change in an amino acid

  • Nonsense mutation: Base substitution results in a nonsense (stop) codon

  • Frameshift mutation: Insertion or deletion of one or more nucleotide pairs; Shifts the translational "reading frame“

  • Nitrous acid is a chemical mutagen that causes adenine to bind with cytosine instead of thymine

  • Mutagens can increase mutation rate up to 1000x

  • Nucleoside analog: incorporates into DNA in place of normal base; causes mistakes in base pairing (chemotherapeutic agents)

  • Intercalating agents (aflatoxin, ethidium bromide) cause frameshift mutations

  • Ionizing radiation (X rays and gamma rays) causes the formation of ions oxidizing nucleotides and breaking the deoxyribose-phosphate backbone

  • Ionizing radiation causes deletion mutations

  • UV radiation (non-ionizing radiation) damages DNA by creating thymine dimers (intra-strand bonding)

  • Photolyases separate thymine dimers. Light repair enzymes use energy from visible light to fix UV light damage

  • Nucleotide excision repair: Enzymes cut out incorrect bases and fill in with correct bases, repairs all mutations, cuts nonmethylated (defective) strand

  • Methylase: enzyme adding methyl group to adenine of the sequence 5'-GATC-3' in newly synthesized DNA.

  • Spontaneous mutation rate: 1 in 106 (1 in 1,000,000) replicated genes, 10-6

  • Mutagens increase the mutation rate by a factor of 10–1000. This changes the rate to 10-3 -10-5

  • Positive (direct) selection detects mutant cells as they grow or appear differently than unmutated cells

  • Negative (indirect) selection detects mutant cells that cannot grow or perform a certain function

  • Auxtotroph: mutant w/a nutrition requirement that is absent in the parent via replica plating identification

  • An Ames test exposes mutant bacteria to mutagenic substances to measure mutation reversal rate

  • Genetic recombination: exchange of genes between two DNA molecules that creates genetic diversity

  • Crossing over: Two chromosomes breaking and rejoining, causing insertion of foreign DNA into the chromosome

  • Vertical gene transfer: genes transfer from an organism to its offspring

  • Horizontal (lateral) gene transfer: genes transfer between same-generation cells resulting in genetic recombination

  • Mechanisms of horizontal gene transfer: Transformation; Conjugation; Transduction

  • Transformation: genes transferred from one bacterium to another as "naked" DNA

  • Conjugation: plasmids transfer from one bacterium to another that requires cell-to-cell contact via sex pili

  • Donor cells contain the plasmid (F factor), termed F+ cells; Recipient cells (F-), then become F+

  • In some cells the F factor integrates into the chromosome (Hfr cell) that then transfers R plasmids (R factors) through conjugation

  • Transduction transfers DNA from a donor cell to a recipient via a bacteriophage (transducing phage)

  • Generalized transduction: random bacterial DNA is packaged inside a phage and is transferred to a recipient cell

  • Specialized transduction: specific bacterial genes are packaged inside a phage and transferred to a recipient cell

  • Plasmids are self-replicating circular DNA pieces, 1-5% the size of a bacterial chromosome

  • Plasmids often code for proteins enhancing a bacterium's pathogenicity, encoding antibiotic resistance (Resistance factors, R factors).

  • Mutations and recombination create cell diversity raw materials for evolution

  • Natural selection acts on populations of organisms, ensuring survival of organisms fit for a particular environment

  • Some mutations can be beneficial, over time creates genetic diversity keeping populations healthy, though many mutations have no effect at all. </existing_notes>

Please update these study notes with any new information from the following text:

Terminology of Microbial Control

  • Sepsis refers to bacterial contamination.
  • Asepsis is the absence of significant contamination.
  • Aseptic surgery techniques prevent the microbial contamination of wounds.
  • Sterilization removes/destroys all microbial life.
  • Disinfection destroys harmful microorganisms on objects.
  • Antisepsis destroys harmful microorganisms from living tissue.
  • Nosocomial refers to hospital-acquired infections.
  • Degerming is the mechanical removal of microbes from a limited area like an injection site.
  • Sanitization lowers microbial counts on eating utensils to safe levels.
  • Biocides (germicides) are treatments that kill microbes.
  • Bacteriostasis inhibits microbial growth without killing.
  • Commercial sterilization kills Clostridium botulinum endospores from canned goods using heat.
  • A sterilant is a sterilizing agent.

Rate of Microbial Death

  • Effectiveness of treatment depends on the number of microbes present, environment (organic matter, temperature, biofilms), exposure time, and microbial characteristics, including endospores.
  • Microbial death occurs at an exponential rate.
  • Decimal reduction time (DRT): Minutes to kill 90% of a population at a given temperature.

Actions of Microbial Control Agents

  • Agents can alter membrane permeability, leading to leakage.
  • Agents damage proteins and enzymes by breaking bonds, causing denaturation.
  • Damage to nucleic acids can be caused by heat, radiation, and chemicals.

Physical Methods of Microbial Control: Heat

  • Heat denatures enzymes.
  • Thermal death point (TDP) is the lowest temperature at which all cells in a liquid culture are killed in 10 minutes.
  • Thermal death time (TDT) is the minimal time for all bacteria in a liquid culture to be killed at a particular temperature.

Moist Heat Sterilization

  • Moist heat denatures proteins.
  • Methods include boiling and free-flowing steam.
  • Autoclaving uses heat and steam under pressure and is a common sterilization method.
  • Autoclaving typically occurs at 121°C at 15 psi for 15 minutes.
  • Autoclaving kills all organisms and endospores.
  • Steam must contact the item's surface.
  • Large containers require longer sterilization times when autoclaving.
  • Autoclaving cannot sterilize heat-labile substances.
  • Test strips are used to indicate sterility after autoclaving.

Heat

  • Pasteurization reduces spoilage organisms and pathogens, but does not sterilize.
  • High-temperature short-time (HTST) pasteurization uses 72°C for 15 seconds.
  • Thermoduric organisms can survive pasteurization.

Dry Heat Sterilization

  • Dry heat kills by oxidation.
  • Methods include flaming, incineration (effective for prions), and hot-air sterilization.

Filtration

  • Filtration involves the passage of a substance through a screen-like material.
  • It is used for heat-sensitive materials.
  • High-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filters remove microbes larger than 0.3 µm, often used in rooms or hoods.
  • Membrane filters remove microbes larger than 0.22 µm.
  • Pore size for bacteria: 0.22 – 0.4 µm.
  • Pore size for viruses: 0.01 µm.

Physical Methods of Microbial Control

  • Low temperature has a bacteriostatic effect.
  • Methods include refrigeration, deep-freezing, and lyophilization (freeze-drying).
  • High pressure denatures proteins and alters CHO structure, killing vegetative bacteria.
  • Desiccation, or the absence of water, prevents metabolism but organisms can remain viable.
  • Osmotic pressure uses salts and sugars to create a hypertonic environment, causing plasmolysis.

Radiation

  • Ionizing radiation (X rays, gamma rays, electron beams) ionizes water to create reactive hydroxyl radicals.
  • Ionizing radiation damages DNA by causing lethal mutations and is commonly used using Cobalt-60 radioisotope.
  • Salmonella and Pseudomonas are particularly sensitive to ionizing radiation.
  • Ionizing radiation is used for sterilization of heat-sensitive materials like drugs, vitamins, herbs, suture material, and Petri plates.
  • Some use ionizing radiation as "cold pasteurization" of food.
  • Nonionizing radiation (UV, 260 nm) damages DNA by creating thymine dimers.
  • Actively dividing organisms are more sensitive to nonionizing radiation.
  • Nonionizing radiation use to limit air and surface contamination at close range on directly exposed microorganisms.
  • Germicidal lamps employed in operating rooms or cafeterias are examples of using nonionizing radiation.
  • Microwaves kill by heat, not primarily antimicrobial, through indirect killing via H2O energy absorption.

Principles of Effective Disinfection

  • Key factors for effective disinfection include the concentration of disinfectant, organic matter present, pH, and contact time.
  • Disinfectants are regulated by the EPA.
  • Antiseptics are regulated by the FDA.

Evaluation of Disinfectant

  • In dilution tests, metal cylinders/rings dipped in test bacteria are dried, placed in disinfectant for 10 minutes at 20°C, then transferred to culture media to check for survival.
  • The disk-diffusion method evaluates chemical agents' efficacy using filter paper disks soaked in a chemical that is then placed on a culture.
  • The disk-diffusion method identifies efficacy by looking for a zone of inhibition around disks.

Phenol and Phenolics Disinfectants

  • Phenol and Phenolics injure lipids in plasma membranes, causing leakage.
  • Bisphenols contain two phenol groups connected by a bridge.
  • Examples of Bisphenols include hexachlorophene (pHisoHex) and triclosan.
  • Phenol and Phenolics are active in presence of organic matter.

Biguanides Disinfectants

  • Chlorhexidine is in surgical hand scrubs.
  • Biguanides disrupt plasma membranes.
  • They are effective against Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria (except pseudomonads), and some enveloped viruses.
  • Biguanides are used on skin and mucous membranes.
  • Alexidine is used to replace Betadine as a halogen disinfectant.

Alcohols Disinfectants

  • Alcohols are effective against bacteria and fungi.
  • They denature proteins and dissolve lipids.
  • Alcohols have no effect on endospores and nonenveloped viruses.
  • Ethanol and isopropanol require water to be effective, at a concentration of 60-80% solutions.
  • They are used in hand sanitizers and cosmetics.

Heavy Metals and Their Compounds Disinfectants

  • Oligodynamic action: Very small amounts exert antimicrobial activity.
  • Heavy metals denature proteins by targeting -SH bonds.
  • Examples include silver, mercury, copper, and zinc.
  • Silver nitrate is used to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum.
  • Mercuric chloride prevents mildew in paint.
  • Copper sulfate is an algicide.
  • Zinc chloride is found in mouthwash.

Surface-Active Agents Disinfectants

  • Soap is a surface-acting agent works by degerming and emulsification.
  • Acid-anionic sanitizers/detergents have anions react with the plasma membrane.
  • Quaternary ammonium compounds (quats) are bactericidal, denature proteins, and disrupt the plasma membrane via cations.

Chemical Food Preservatives Disinfectants

  • Sulfur dioxide prevents wine spoilage.
  • Organic acids inhibit metabolism.
  • Sorbic acid, benzoic acid, and calcium propionate prevent molds/bacteria in acidic foods and cosmetics.
  • Nitrites and nitrates prevent endospore germination.
  • They are used in cold cuts/hot dogs but can convert to nitrosamine (carcinogenic).

Halogens Disinfectants

  • Halogens are effective against bacteria, endospores, fungi, and viruses.
  • Tincture is a solution in aqueous alcohol (wound antiseptic).
  • Iodophor is combined with organic molecules (Betadine).
  • Iodine impairs protein synthesis and alters membranes.
  • Oxidizing agents shut down cellular enzyme systems.
  • Bleach contains hypochlorous acid (HOCl).
  • Chlorine is widely used in pool and drinking water.
  • Chloramine contains chlorine and ammonia.

Antibiotics Disinfectants

  • Nisin and natamycin prevent spoilage of cheese.
  • Bacteriocins are proteins produced by one bacterium that inhibits other bacteria.
  • They are tasteless, non-toxic, and easily digested.

Aldehydes Disinfectants

  • Aldehydes inactivate proteins by cross-linking with functional groups (-NH2, -OH, -COOH, -SH).
  • Used for preserving specimens and in medical equipment.
  • Formaldehyde (virus inactivation for vaccines) and ortho-phthalaldehyde
  • Glutaraldehyde is one of the few liquid chemical sterilizing agents, killing S. aureus in 5 min; M. tuberculosis in 10 min.
  • Cidex is an example, for hospital equipment is bactericidal, tuberculocidal, and virucidal.

Chemical Sterilization Disinfectants

  • Gaseous sterilants cause alkylation, replacing hydrogen atoms of a chemical group with a free chemical radical.
  • Sterilants cross-link nucleic acids and proteins.
  • They inhibit cellular function.
  • Used for heat-sensitive material.
  • Ethylene oxide is an example of Chemical Sterilization.

Plasma Disinfectant

  • Fourth state of matter: Consisting of electrically excited gas.
  • Uses free radicals to destroy microbes.
  • For tubular instruments.

Supercritical Fluids

  • CO2 with gaseous and liquid properties (supercritical state achieved by compression).
  • Used for medical implants (bone, tendons, or ligaments taken from donor patients).

Peroxygens and Other Forms of Oxygen Disinfectants

  • Oxidizing agents.
  • Used for contaminated surfaces and food packaging, specifically inanimate objects.
  • Examples include O3, H2O2, and peracetic acid.
  • H2O2 is used as a 3% solution or higher.
  • Especially effective against anaerobic bacteria.
  • Effervescent action may be useful for wound cleansing through removal of tissue debris but is not as effective as an antiseptic for open wounds.

Microbial Characteristics and Microbial Control

  • Glutaraldehyde has fair effectiveness on Endospores and good effectiveness against Mycobacteria.
  • Chlorines have fair effectiveness on both Endospores and Mycobacteria.
  • Alcohols have poor effectiveness on Endospores and good effectiveness against Mycobacteria.
  • Iodine has poor effectiveness on Endospores and good effectiveness against Mycobacteria.
  • Phenolics have poor effectiveness on Endospores and good effectiveness against Mycobacteria.
  • Chlorhexidine has no effectiveness on Endospores and only fair effectiveness against Mycobacteria.
  • Bisphenols effectiveness on Endospores and Mycobacteria is none.
  • Quats effectiveness on Endospores and Mycobacteria is none.
  • Silver effectiveness on Endospores and Mycobacteria is none. </existing_notes>

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