Infertility in Sows and Pseudorabies Overview
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Questions and Answers

Which of the following diseases primarily causes decreased litter size and weak piglets in sows?

  • Brucellosis
  • Pseudorabies
  • Hog cholera (correct)
  • Leptospirosis pomona

    • What characterizes the effects of Pseudorabies in a pregnant sow?

  • Causes infertility immediately upon infection
  • Results in mummification at any stage of pregnancy
  • Induces abortion 10 to 20 days after clinical signs appear (correct)
  • Causes normal pregnancy with no complications

    • Which of the following statements about Brucella suis is true?

  • It causes primarily respiratory issues in pigs.
  • It can lead to orchitis in male pigs. (correct)
  • It is transmitted only through contaminated feed.
  • It is not associated with embryonic death.

    • What is a characteristic sign of Baylisascaris procyonis infection in dogs?

    <p>Neurological symptoms like ataxia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Hog cholera is primarily known to lead to which of the following outcomes in pigs?

    <p>High rates of stillbirths</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mode of transmission for Pseudorabies?

    <p>Direct contact or inhalation of the virus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Leptospirosis pomona in sows typically causes abortions during which part of gestation?

    <p>Last month of pregnancy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary location of larval development in infected cats?

    <p>Pulmonary arteries and caudal lung lobes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition indicates that pigs infected with Pseudorabies are likely affected neurologically?

    <p>Tremors and convulsions in neonatal pigs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What causes the asthma-like symptoms in cats infected with heartworms?

    <p>Inflammation and eosinophilic response</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the average lifespan of adult heartworms in infected cats?

    <p>18 to 24 months</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement is true about Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV)?

    <p>Once infected, a cat remains infected for its lifetime.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What symptom is NOT commonly associated with FIV infection in cats?

    <p>Jejunum swelling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following indicates the immune system suppression in an FIV-infected cat?

    <p>Increased susceptibility to infections</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is Feline Immunodeficiency Virus primarily transmitted between cats?

    <p>Through bite wounds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common initial response of an infected cat's body to FIV?

    <p>Fever and lymph node swelling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical signs are commonly associated with a Giardia felis infection in cats?

    <p>Soft and pale diarrhea with weight loss</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is Giardia felis primarily transmitted to cats?

    <p>Via contaminated food or water</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common clinical sign seen in dogs suffering from a central nervous system component of a viral infection?

    <p>Seizures</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical step in diagnosing Giardia felis in a cat?

    <p>Direct saline examination of fecal samples</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What factors can lead to metabolic acidosis?

    <p>Renal tubular acidosis and diarrhea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a potential infectious cause of abortion in dogs?

    <p>Feline leukemia virus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where do adult Dirofilaria immitis worms typically reside in an infected animal?

    <p>In the pulmonary arteries and right ventricles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What laboratory findings are expected during the early acute phase of a viral infection in dogs?

    <p>Lymphopenia and thrombocytopenia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary method through which mosquitoes transmit Dirofilaria immitis to other animals?

    <p>Through saliva during feeding</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which hormonal condition can lead to abortion in dogs?

    <p>Hypothyroidism</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What significant effect does metabolic acidosis have on blood chemistry?

    <p>Causes a low blood pH and high hydrogen ion concentration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary traumatic cause of diaphragmatic hernia in dogs?

    <p>Motor vehicle accident</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following tests is utilized to confirm the presence of a virus in dogs?

    <p>Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How long is the life cycle of Dirofilaria immitis from infection to sexual maturity in the host?

    <p>3 to 4 months</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a diaphragmatic hernia, what is the result of intestinal organs bulging into the chest cavity?

    <p>Decreased oxygenation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of fever is observed post-infection in certain viral diseases in dogs?

    <p>Diphasic fever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of aortic stenosis is most commonly encountered in dogs?

    <p>Subaortic or subvalvular aortic stenosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common outcome of left ventricular hypertrophy caused by aortic stenosis?

    <p>Development of ischemic areas in the myocardium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which parasite is associated with causing diarrhea originating in the small intestine of dogs?

    <p>Histoplasmosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What factor does NOT affect clinical signs in a dog with heartworm infection?

    <p>Age of the dog</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breed is specifically predisposed to aortic stenosis?

    <p>Golden Retriever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Canine ehrlichiosis is caused by which rickettsia?

    <p>Ehrlichia canis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What significant test is used for definitive diagnosis of heartworm in dogs?

    <p>Antigen detection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What symptoms are NOT commonly associated with heartworm infection in dogs?

    <p>Hypercalcemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of large bowel diarrhea in dogs and cats due to Clostridium perfringens?

    <p>Enterotoxin binding to the mucosa</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What treatment is indicated for dogs infected with Isospora canis causing coccidiosis?

    <p>Sulfadimethoxine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following pathways is NOT a common cause of acute diarrhea in dogs and cats?

    <p>Stress-related</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of stool is typically observed in animals suffering from clostridial enterotoxicosis?

    <p>Loose and watery with mucus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which parasite is commonly involved in causing acute diarrhea in cats?

    <p>Coccidia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of dietary manipulation in treating Clostridium perfringens infections?

    <p>Reduce clostridial numbers and acidify the colon</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common clinical manifestation of coccidiosis in affected puppies?

    <p>Weakness and dehydration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT typically associated with acute diarrhea in dogs and cats?

    <p>Chronic liver disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of aldosterone in the body?

    <p>Regulate blood pressure and electrolyte balance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breed has a higher risk for developing hypoadrenocorticism?

    <p>West Highland White Terrier</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which laboratory finding is NOT typically associated with diagnosing hypoadrenocorticism?

    <p>High glucose levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom of megaesophagus in both puppies and adult animals?

    <p>Regurgitation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions can lead to the development of megaesophagus later in life?

    <p>Myasthenia gravis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What typically occurs to puppies suffering from megaesophagus compared to their littermates?

    <p>They regurgitate solid food and become smaller.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the nature of canine hemangiosarcoma?

    <p>A very malignant tumor originating in endothelial cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following laboratory results would be expected in a dog with Addison's disease?

    <p>Increased calcium and eosinophilia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic of oral fibrosarcomas in large breed male dogs over seven years of age?

    <p>They present with bone lysis as seen in radiographs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of salivary mucocele occurs underneath the jaw or in the upper neck region?

    <p>Cervical mucocele</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary means by which cats contract plague?

    <p>By consuming infected rodents</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common manifestation of oral squamous cell carcinoma in cats?

    <p>The affected tissue appears irregular, elevated, and may be ulcerated.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement correctly describes the bacterium Yersinia pestis?

    <p>It can survive in flea intestines, causing intestinal blockage.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of salivary mucocele occurs alongside the tongue on the floor of the mouth?

    <p>Sublingual mucocele (ranula)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines the progression of plague once an animal is infected with Yersinia pestis?

    <p>Spread to the lymphatic system resulting in buboes.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is a deep biopsy important for diagnosing oral fibrosarcomas?

    <p>It allows for a broader examination of surrounding tissues.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following can occur as a result of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in cats?

    <p>Sudden rear limb paralysis from aortic thromboembolism</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are common clinical signs associated with feline gingivitis/stomatitis syndrome?

    <p>Drooling and oral pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these fungi is NOT known to cause ringworm in cats?

    <p>Candida albicans</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition can lead to renal problems due to poor blood perfusion in cats?

    <p>Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a typical radiographic appearance of gastric dilation and volvulus in dogs?

    <p>A distended gas-filled stomach occupying most of the abdomen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason long-haired cats are more likely to be infected by ringworm?

    <p>Increased moisture retention in fur</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What percentage reduction in the risk of developing mammary tumors can be achieved by spaying a female dog before her first estrus?

    <p>0.5 percent</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common diagnostic method for identifying ringworm in cats?

    <p>Fungal culture combined with clinical examination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which physical examination finding is characteristic of feline gingivitis/stomatitis syndrome?

    <p>Gingival inflammation and stomatitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following factors is NOT a common risk for developing elbow dysplasia?

    <p>Low-calorie diet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In cats, which condition is almost 100% fatal if left untreated?

    <p>Protozoal infection causing vascular congestion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of elbow dysplasia involves a piece of cartilage detaching from the bone?

    <p>Osteochondritis dissecans</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which group of dogs is elbow dysplasia most commonly found?

    <p>Large and giant breeds aged 4-18 months</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is often the first step taken during the acute phase of gastric dilation and volvulus regarding additional testing?

    <p>Postponement of further testing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of estrogen and progesterone in the context of mammary tumors in female dogs?

    <p>They influence the development of mammary tumors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition may NOT mimic the symptoms of gastric dilation and volvulus?

    <p>Chronic pancreatitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the clinical signs associated with Giardia felis infection in cats?

    <p>Soft and pale diarrhea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the primary methods used to detect cysts of Giardia felis?

    <p>Direct saline examination and antigen detection assays</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What aspect of Dirofilaria immitis life cycle is crucial for its transmission?

    <p>Transmission of L3 larvae via a mosquito bite</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of insufficient removal of acid in metabolic acidosis?

    <p>Decreased blood plasma bicarbonate concentration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where do adult Dirofilaria immitis predominantly reside in an infected animal?

    <p>In the right half of the heart</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum time required for Dirofilaria immitis to reach sexual maturity after infection?

    <p>2 to 3 months</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What commonly leads to metabolic acidosis besides renal issues?

    <p>Excessive production of acids due to specific syndromes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the adult form of Giardia felis reproduce within the host?

    <p>By forming cysts that are expelled in feces</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is indicative of ketoacidosis in diabetic animals?

    <p>Excessive drinking and urination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is primarily indicated by a dog's large-volume gray or yellow cow-patty-like diarrhea?

    <p>Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What commonly causes left-sided congestive heart failure?

    <p>Idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic approach is considered definitive for confirming exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?

    <p>Serum trypsin-like immunoreactivity measurement</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions can cause right-sided congestive heart failure?

    <p>Heartworm disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common result of Vitamin B12 malabsorption due to pancreatic insufficiency?

    <p>Cobalamin deficiency</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which heart rhythm disturbance is associated with left-sided congestive heart failure?

    <p>Atrial fibrillation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What electrolyte imbalance is most likely caused by acidosis in diabetic animals?

    <p>Hyperkalemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a typical clinical sign of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency in dogs?

    <p>Weight gain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breed of dog is noted to have a hereditary predisposition to exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?

    <p>German Shepherd</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor does NOT contribute to the failure of the heart muscle?

    <p>Increased hydration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The presence of high blood and urine glucose levels along with exocrine pancreatic insufficiency in a dog may suggest which condition?

    <p>Diabetes mellitus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential cause of increased blood pressure on the heart's left side?

    <p>Subaortic stenosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition does NOT typically lead to right-sided heart failure?

    <p>Chronic cough</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is NOT listed as a broad category in the differential diagnosis for chronic small bowel diarrhea in dogs?

    <p>Viral infections</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition can lead to diarrhea as a result of bacterial overgrowth due to the loss of normal flora?

    <p>Small intestinal disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What results from inadequate perfusion of the brain?

    <p>Temporary loss of consciousness and postural tone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of syncope?

    <p>Severe headaches</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which category of diseases is associated with coughs originating from the upper respiratory tract?

    <p>Tracheal collapse</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Infective endocarditis primarily affects which part of the heart?

    <p>Mural endocardium or heart valves</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can lead to left-sided congestive heart failure in animals?

    <p>Infection of the aortic valve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions can cause temporary loss of consciousness?

    <p>Hypocalcemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is specific to syncope rather than other collapses?

    <p>Loss of consciousness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the physiological response during a cough?

    <p>Stimulation of vagus nerve endings or glossopharyngeal nerves</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common treatment used to alleviate coughing in dogs suffering from kennel cough?

    <p>Antitussives</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which organism is responsible for causing blastomycosis in dogs?

    <p>Blastomyces dermatitidis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is a primary clinical sign associated with Bordetella bronchiseptica infection?

    <p>Paroxysmal hacking cough</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic method is NOT typically used to identify blastomycosis in dogs?

    <p>Blood smear analysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition can occur if the skin lesions caused by blastomycosis invade the bone?

    <p>Osteomyelitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the primary modes of transmission for Bordetella bronchiseptica?

    <p>Airborne transmission</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a common clinical sign of canine distemper?

    <p>Abdominal pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which type of dog breeds is blastomycosis most commonly seen due to their exposure to environments containing the fungus?

    <p>Hunting or sporting breeds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What components make up the passive stay apparatus in horses?

    <p>Proximal sesamoid bones, sesamoidean ligaments, and tendons</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which part of the spinal cord is responsible for combining to form spinal nerves?

    <p>White matter roots</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is NOT a function of the passive stay apparatus in horses?

    <p>Provides structural support during high-speed activities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which membrane lies directly against the spinal canal?

    <p>Dura mater</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about the structure of the spinal cord is incorrect?

    <p>The spinal cord is composed solely of gray matter.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does aldosterone primarily play in the body?

    <p>Regulates sodium and potassium levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes a common sign of megaesophagus in puppies?

    <p>Regurgitation after eating</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition can result from the immune response of a dog to heartworm infection?

    <p>Vena caval syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What specific blood laboratory finding is typically associated with Addison's disease?

    <p>Increased potassium and low sodium levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breed is NOT commonly associated with a higher risk of developing hypoadrenocorticism?

    <p>Golden retrievers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a sign that can occur during the prodromal stage of rabies in an infected animal?

    <p>Loss of appetite</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What secondary diseases can lead to the development of megaesophagus?

    <p>Dysautonomia and myasthenia gravis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which form of rabies does the animal exhibit increased activity and aggressive behavior?

    <p>Furious form</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary diagnostic method for confirming rabies?

    <p>Immunofluorescence on brain tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What symptom is NOT typically seen in an animal suffering from hypoadrenocorticism?

    <p>Weight gain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defining feature differentiates megasophagus in adult animals from congenital cases?

    <p>Idiopathic or secondary to other diseases</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What complication can arise due to glomerulonephritis in dogs infected with heartworms?

    <p>Renal failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following symptoms indicates a severe hypoadrenocortical crisis in affected dogs?

    <p>Hypoglycemia and collapse</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common characteristic of nasal polyps in cats?

    <p>Pedunculated or elongated inflammatory growths</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following factors does NOT influence the severity of cardiac lesions due to heartworms in dogs?

    <p>Dog's breed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What symptom is associated with the paralytic form of rabies?

    <p>Loss of muscle coordination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary characteristic of glaucoma in dogs?

    <p>Increased ocular pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a common cause of epistaxis?

    <p>Development of cataracts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is likely to cause glaucoma specifically in cats?

    <p>Chronic eye problems</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the pressure threshold indicating glaucoma in animals?

    <p>25 mm Hg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the likely result of untreated narrow angle glaucoma in dogs?

    <p>Sudden blindness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which type of glaucoma is the angle between the iris and cornea narrowed?

    <p>Narrow angle glaucoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do cataracts typically present in affected animals?

    <p>Opacity of the lens or its capsule</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What could be a likely secondary cause of cataracts in dogs?

    <p>Trauma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most severe sign of infection in dogs affected by Leptospira spirochetes?

    <p>Kidney damage leading to renal failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical signs are commonly associated with Lyme disease in dogs?

    <p>Swollen lymph nodes and loss of appetite</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterium is responsible for causing nocardiosis in animals?

    <p>Nocardia asteroides</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant route through which Nocardia asteroides can enter the body?

    <p>Inhalation or through wounds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of disease course might some dogs experience when infected with Leptospira?

    <p>Fulminant acute disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a correct treatment option for handling Lyme disease in dogs?

    <p>Doxycycline or amoxicillin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the primary preventive measures against Lyme disease?

    <p>Adequate control of the tick vector</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is associated with the chronic progression of nocardiosis in dogs?

    <p>Pleural effusion and abscess formation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does Clostridium perfringens have on the intestinal mucosa?

    <p>It causes cell damage and cell death.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key treatment option for coccidiosis caused by Isospora canis in dogs?

    <p>Sulfadimethoxine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is NOT typically associated with clostridial enterotoxicosis in animals?

    <p>Skin rashes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of stool is commonly seen in cases of coccidiosis in puppies?

    <p>Loose and watery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What dietary approach is recommended in treating Clostridium perfringens infections?

    <p>High soluble and insoluble fiber diet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a category of causes for acute diarrhea in dogs and cats?

    <p>Environmental causes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How can the presence of Isospora oocysts be confirmed in infected animals?

    <p>Fecal examination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What potential outcome can occur in puppies infected with Isospora felis?

    <p>Severe lethargy and weakness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of rhegmatogenous retinal detachment?

    <p>A tear or break in the retina</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the progression of fibrosarcoma in dogs?

    <p>It tends to remain localized and invade nearby bone.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which dog breeds are most commonly associated with cataracts?

    <p>Labrador retriever and Boston terrier</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does exudative retinal detachment differ from other types of retinal detachment?

    <p>It results from fluid leaking underneath the retina.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is true about the oral tumor known as the epulis in dogs?

    <p>It generally appears smooth and adheres to the bone.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of retinal detachment is caused by scar tissue on the retinal surface?

    <p>Tractional retinal detachment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition should be differentiated from cataracts in dogs?

    <p>Nuclear sclerosis related to aging</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of tumors are the most common in the oral cavity of cats?

    <p>Squamous cell carcinomas</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary metabolic effect of hyperthyroidism in cats?

    <p>Increased levels of thyroid hormones</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which physical examination finding is typically associated with hyperthyroidism in cats?

    <p>Enlarged thyroid gland</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is a potential complication of feline leukemia virus (FeLV) infection?

    <p>Fading kitten syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of tumor is most commonly associated with hyperthyroidism in cats?

    <p>Benign adenoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential consequence of untreated hyperthyroidism in cats?

    <p>Severe liver damage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant symptom of feline panleukopenia that distinguishes it from other feline diseases?

    <p>Extreme lethargy and hiding</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of cells does the feline parvovirus primarily target in infected cats?

    <p>Actively dividing cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are typical clinical signs of Otodectes cynotis infestation in kittens?

    <p>Irritation and pruritis around the ears</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common gastrointestinal sign of hyperthyroidism in cats?

    <p>Malabsorption</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which laboratory finding is typically observed in cats suffering from feline panleukopenia?

    <p>Severe panleukopenia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What diagnostic test is commonly used to confirm hyperthyroidism in cats?

    <p>Thyroid function tests</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential outcome for female cats with FeLV who are not spayed during pregnancy?

    <p>Abortions or stillbirths</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom observed in kittens infected with feline panleukopenia?

    <p>Ataxia and gait abnormalities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the likely outcome for a cat with a radical tumor excision and subsequent radiation therapy?

    <p>Frequent recurrence of the tumor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does feline leukemia virus (FeLV) contribute to immunosuppression in infected cats?

    <p>Interfering with cell-mediated immunity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a symptom related to glomerulonephritis as a result of FeLV infection?

    <p>Weight gain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of aortic stenosis is most frequently encountered in dogs?

    <p>Subaortic aortic stenosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential complication associated with left ventricular hypertrophy due to aortic stenosis?

    <p>Mitral regurgitation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following infections is NOT a cause of diarrhea originating in the small intestine of dogs?

    <p>Clostridium perfringens</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How long after exposure is the antigen typically detected in dogs infected with heartworm?

    <p>6-7 months</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following breeds is NOT commonly predisposed to aortic stenosis?

    <p>Poodle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition can be caused by Ehrlichia canis in dogs?

    <p>Chronic anemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical sign is least likely to be observed in dogs suffering from heartworm infection?

    <p>Excessive thirst</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following factors does NOT affect the clinical signs in a dog with heartworm infection?

    <p>Size of the dog</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a function associated with aldosterone?

    <p>Immune function enhancement</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common sign indicating a dog may be suffering from hypoadrenocorticism?

    <p>Depression</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following breeds is NOT mentioned as having a higher risk for developing hypoadrenocorticism?

    <p>Beagle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary clinical sign of megaesophagus in affected animals?

    <p>Regurgitation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A dog with a diagnosis of megaesophagus will most likely experience what kind of health issue?

    <p>Respiratory problems</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which laboratory finding would NOT typically be associated with hypoadrenocorticism?

    <p>Hyperglycemia (high glucose)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which of the following conditions could megaesophagus be acquired later in life?

    <p>Myasthenia gravis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the likely consequence of a dog experiencing a hypoadrenocortical crisis?

    <p>Collapse due to severe dehydration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a definitive method for diagnosing oral fibrosarcomas in larger breed male dogs over seven years of age?

    <p>Deep biopsy for histopathology</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which classification of salivary mucocele occurs underneath the jaw or in the upper neck region?

    <p>Cervical mucocele</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What caused the flea to transmit Yersinia pestis to cats?

    <p>The flea regurgitated the bacteria from its digestive system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common presentation of oral squamous cell carcinoma in cats?

    <p>Irregular, elevated, necrotic, and ulcerated tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the initial location where plague bacteria spread in an infected animal?

    <p>To the lymph nodes via lymphatic vessels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential outcome of a Baylisascaris procyonis infection in humans?

    <p>Permanent damage or death</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a typical characteristic of a cervical mucocele in affected animals?

    <p>It is usually a soft, luctuant mass</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary clinical sign of a cat with an active Giardia felis infection?

    <p>Soft and pale diarrhea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of disease can manifest after a flea bite from a host infected with Yersinia pestis?

    <p>Bubonic plague</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What surgical procedure is typically performed as part of the treatment for oral fibrosarcomas?

    <p>Hemimandibulectomy with wide margins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does Dirofilaria immitis primarily reach its host animal from an infected mosquito?

    <p>Through the bite wound</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What causes the development of metabolic acidosis in the body?

    <p>Excessive acid production or insufficient acid removal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the method used to detect Giardia felis cysts in infected cats?

    <p>Direct saline examination of stool</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the correct sequence of larval development stages of Dirofilaria immitis after being transmitted from a mosquito?

    <p>L3 → L4 → L5 → adult</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test is useful for diagnosing the presence of Giardiasis in cats?

    <p>Zinc-sulfate flotation method</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which metabolic condition primarily involves an increase in hydrogen ion concentration?

    <p>Metabolic acidosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment regimen for coccidioidomycosis in dogs?

    <p>Ketoconazole at a dose of 10-30 mg/kg three times daily for one year</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which characteristic is indicative of small intestinal diarrhea in dogs?

    <p>Large-volume diarrhea with occasional vomiting</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What underlying factors may make a dog more susceptible to cruciate disease?

    <p>Being obese or a vigorous athlete</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical sign is NOT typically associated with a torn ACL in dogs?

    <p>Persistent tail wagging</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment method is used for chronic diarrhea in dogs after localizing the cause?

    <p>Dietary manipulation based on diarrhea type</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the consequences of a torn anterior cruciate ligament in dogs?

    <p>Pain, lameness, and potential arthritis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What feature differentiates large-bowel diarrhea from small-bowel diarrhea in dogs?

    <p>Smaller volume of stool with blood and mucus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason for the cause of cruciate disease in dogs?

    <p>Trauma resulting from quick, forceful movements</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a likely consequence of the loss of bicarbonate production in cases of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?

    <p>Malabsorption of Vitamin B12</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a sign commonly associated with exocrine pancreatic insufficiency in dogs?

    <p>Ravenous appetite</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What diagnostic criterion is considered definitive for confirming exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?

    <p>Low serum trypsin concentration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breed of dog is noted for having a hereditary predisposition to exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?

    <p>German Shepherd</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary underlying mechanism causing diarrhea in cases of small intestinal disease related to pancreatic insufficiency?

    <p>Inadequate nutrient absorption</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical sign is likely to appear with chronic small bowel diarrhea due to pancreatic insufficiency?

    <p>Cachexia and weight loss</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of nutrient malabsorption is specifically associated with exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?

    <p>Fat-soluble vitamin malabsorption</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition might be confused with exocrine pancreatic insufficiency due to similar clinical signs?

    <p>Diabetes mellitus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common cause of blindness in dogs over five years of age?

    <p>Cataracts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breed is NOT commonly affected by cataracts?

    <p>Dalmatian</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment method for cataracts in dogs?

    <p>Lens removal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of retinal detachment is caused by a tear in the retina?

    <p>Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following oral tumors in dogs is typically benign?

    <p>Epulis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which tumor is the most common malignant oral tumor in both cats and dogs?

    <p>Squamous cell carcinoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic feature of an epulis in dogs?

    <p>Smooth surface and adherence to bone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What causes tractional retinal detachment?

    <p>Scar tissue on the retina</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following signs is NOT commonly associated with FeLV infection in cats?

    <p>Persistent neck pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What diagnostic test is initially recommended to detect FeLV in cats?

    <p>ELISA test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about the neoplastic form of FeLV is correct?

    <p>It can cause tumors in the gastrointestinal tract.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which opportunistic infections might FeLV-infected cats be particularly vulnerable to?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What additional test is recommended after a cat is confirmed to be persistently FeLV infected?

    <p>IFA test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common clinical sign leading to a suspicion of FeLV infection?

    <p>Recurring infections</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What complication may arise from the multicentric form of neoplastic FeLV?

    <p>Kidney cancer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical sign indicates that a cat may be experiencing central nervous system effects due to FeLV?

    <p>Seizures</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of modified transudate with high protein content?

    <p>Fluid leakage from hepatic lymph</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism by which Clostridium perfringens causes injury to the intestinal cells?

    <p>Release of enterotoxin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition can lead to glomerular disease in cats, potentially influencing protein levels?

    <p>Lymphocytic/plasmacytic cholangiohepatitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of a fecal examination in cases of coccidiosis?

    <p>Detecting the oocysts of Isospora canis or Isospora felis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In diabetes mellitus, which metabolic state commonly results from the body's inability to utilize insulin effectively?

    <p>Ketoacidosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary dietary approach to managing Clostridial infections in animals?

    <p>Manipulating the diet to reduce clostridial numbers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical sign may indicate the development of diabetes mellitus in dogs?

    <p>Cataract formation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of diarrhea is typically observed in dogs and cats infected with clostridial enterotoxicosis?

    <p>Frequent small amounts of bloody stool with mucus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which laboratory finding is typically elevated in a dog with poorly managed diabetes mellitus?

    <p>Increased cholesterol levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by the presence of ketones in the body due to excessive fat metabolism?

    <p>Ketoacidosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following drugs is used for treating Isospora felis infection in cats?

    <p>Sulfadimethoxine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What weight-related sign might be evident in animals with undiagnosed diabetes mellitus?

    <p>Sudden weight loss despite increased appetite</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of infectious pathogens can lead to acute diarrhea in dogs and cats?

    <p>Various pathogens including viral, bacterial, and parasitic causes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT considered a dietary cause of acute diarrhea in dogs and cats?

    <p>Monitoring water intake</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following contributes to the acute onset of diabetic neuropathy in cats?

    <p>Deficient insulin production</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following could indicate broader health issues when observed alongside diarrhea in animals?

    <p>Increased gas and vomiting</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first stage of periodontal disease characterized by?

    <p>Gingivitis caused by plaque accumulation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is commonly associated with feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions?

    <p>Drooling and reluctance to eat</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What classification stage indicates advanced periodontal disease with deep pocket formation?

    <p>Stage 3</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common complication of untreated periodontal disease in later stages?

    <p>Loss of bone and loose teeth</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary method of transmission for coccidioidomycosis in dogs?

    <p>Inhalation of fungal spores</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At which stage of feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions should teeth extraction be considered?

    <p>Stage 3</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical sign is NOT typically associated with coccidioidomycosis in dogs?

    <p>Severe vomiting</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic of the lesions in feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions?

    <p>Loss of dental tissue at the neck of the teeth</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which disease is most likely to cause both infertility and weak piglets in sows?

    <p>Hog cholera</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic outcome of porcine parvovirus infection in naïve herds?

    <p>Mummification</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about Pseudorabies is incorrect?

    <p>It has no effect on adult swine.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the survival mechanism of Pseudorabies outside its primary host?

    <p>It is effectively killed by sunlight.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which parasite can lead to neurological signs in dogs due to Baylisascaris procyonis infection?

    <p>None of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment is NOT effective against adult Baylisascaris procyonis infections in dogs?

    <p>Probucol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Leptospirosis pomona causes abortions in sows during which time frame?

    <p>Last month of pregnancy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common clinical sign in older piglets affected by Pseudorabies?

    <p>Anorexia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which laboratory finding is most likely indicative of a chronic infection in the context of infective endocarditis?

    <p>Normal leukogram</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of skin lesion is described as a large solid lump that is elevated above the skin and greater than one centimeter in diameter?

    <p>Nodule</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sign might be detected by an examiner if the aortic valve is involved in infective endocarditis?

    <p>Hyperdynamic femoral arterial pulses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of hypersensitivity reaction is induced by flea saliva in dogs and cats?

    <p>Type I hypersensitivity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following findings could indicate kidney involvement in an infection related to infective endocarditis?

    <p>Urinalysis revealing proteinuria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Echocardiography is most useful in diagnosing which specific complication of infective endocarditis?

    <p>Aortic valve endocarditis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which laboratory result is NOT typically associated with infective endocarditis?

    <p>Normal glucose levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which infectious agent is NOT associated with causing chronic diarrhea in cats?

    <p>Cytauxzoon felis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of skin lesion is a macule characterized as?

    <p>Discolored area less than one centimeter</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is NOT a symptom of Cryptococcosis in cats?

    <p>Severe anemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which chronic inflammatory condition in cats is linked to diarrhea?

    <p>Granulomatous enteritis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is unlikely to directly contribute to chronic diarrhea in cats?

    <p>Intestinal obstruction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What treatment is generally recommended for cats affected by Cryptococcosis?

    <p>Antifungals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is primarily spread through tick bites in cats?

    <p>Cytauxzoon felis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which metabolic disorder is NOT commonly associated with diarrhea in cats?

    <p>Hyperlipidemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions would NOT be a likely cause of diarrhea due to obstruction in cats?

    <p>Granulomatous enteritis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes the 'wet' form of feline infectious peritonitis (FIP)?

    <p>Causes ascites and effusions due to vasculitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor influences the development of feline leukemia virus (FeLV) related disease conditions?

    <p>The strength of the immune response to the virus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a definitive method for diagnosing feline infectious peritonitis (FIP)?

    <p>Biopsy of necropsy samples</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the general symptoms shared by both wet and dry forms of feline infectious peritonitis (FIP)?

    <p>Malaise, anorexia, and fever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes how FeLV spreads in cats?

    <p>Via direct contact through saliva</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do the immune systems of most cats respond to an initial FeLV infection?

    <p>They successfully eliminate the virus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main reason the 'dry' form of feline infectious peritonitis is characterized as such?

    <p>Lack of effusion in the abdomen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of immune response is likely to result in a cat being a carrier of FeLV?

    <p>Strong cell-mediated response</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are common disease conditions that may occur in cats affected by immunosuppression from FeLV?

    <p>Periodontal disease and upper respiratory tract infections</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of antigen-antibody complexes in glomerulonephritis related to FeLV?

    <p>They cause renal failure.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical sign is specifically associated with fetal or neonatal nervous system damage from feline panleukopenia?

    <p>Ataxia and gait abnormalities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What leads to severe dehydration in cats infected with feline panleukopenia?

    <p>Severe vomiting and diarrhea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why are kittens born to FeLV-infected mothers at risk for fading kitten syndrome?

    <p>They inherit a weaker immune system.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common laboratory finding in a cat with feline panleukopenia?

    <p>Severe panleukopenia with low leukocyte count</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a major risk factor for unvaccinated cats regarding feline panleukopenia?

    <p>Severe and sudden illness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which environmental characteristic contributes to the stability of the feline parvovirus?

    <p>Favorable conditions for years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary location of damage caused by L5 larvae in infected cats?

    <p>Pulmonary arteries</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What common clinical sign indicates that an infected cat may be suffering from FIV?

    <p>Weight loss</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What symptom is often associated with the inflammatory response due to heartworm infection in cats?

    <p>Coughing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV) primarily spread among cats?

    <p>Saliva through bite wounds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following reflects the duration that adult heartworms can live in a cat?

    <p>18 to 24 months</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What common initial response might an infected cat experience after contracting FIV?

    <p>Fever and lymph node swelling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What best describes the average number of adult heartworms typically found in a cat?

    <p>One to two worms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What kind of immune response is characterized by eosinophilia in heartworm-infected cats?

    <p>Inflammatory response</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary method of diagnosing ear mites in kittens?

    <p>Performing ear swabs and microscopy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What organism is primarily identified in the blood to diagnose Babesiosis?

    <p>Babesia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptoms are primarily associated with Chlamydia psittaci infection in cats?

    <p>Coughing, sneezing, and watery eyes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of biliary tract disease is most likely caused by a bacterial infection in cats?

    <p>Suppurative cholangitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following clinical signs is specifically associated with ocular infections caused by Blastomyces dermatitidis?

    <p>Ocular uveitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common concurrent issue in cats suffering from biliary tract disease?

    <p>Inflammatory bowel disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What primary clinical manifestation arises in dogs affected by Bordetella bronchiseptica?

    <p>Hacking dry cough</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In dogs with blastomycosis, which of the following symptoms indicates possible invasion of the bone?

    <p>Lameness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment is typically preferred for managing Chlamydia psittaci infections in cats?

    <p>Tetracycline drugs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following antibiotics is considered most effective against Bordetella bronchiseptica?

    <p>Erythromycin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What anatomical structure is primarily responsible for stabilizing a horse's joints to prevent flexion?

    <p>Passive stay apparatus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical signs may indicate a cat is experiencing pneumonia due to C.psittaci infection?

    <p>Coughing, sneezing, and difficulty breathing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which part of the spinal cord is covered by the dura mater?

    <p>Spinal canal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is likely to block the biliary ducts OR breed bacteria in cats with stasis?

    <p>Cholecystitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Canine distemper is primarily diagnosed through what method?

    <p>Clinical signs and laboratory testing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What components are involved in the formation of spinal nerves as they exit the vertebral canal?

    <p>Intervertebral foramina</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In feline health, chronic diarrhea can result from which of the following issues?

    <p>Dietary causes and metabolic disorders</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breed of dogs is notably more susceptible to blastomycosis due to environmental exposure?

    <p>Hunting or sporting breeds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical form of clinical presentation associated with respiratory tract infections from Blastomyces dermatitidis?

    <p>Pneumonia and weight loss</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bones are part of the passive stay apparatus that contributes to the horse's ability to stand with minimal effort?

    <p>Proximal sesamoid bones and sesamoidean ligaments</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the components of the white matter in the spinal cord responsible for transmitting signals?

    <p>Ventral and dorsal roots</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What primary enzyme production is decreased due to exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?

    <p>Amylase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical sign is often associated with exocrine pancreatic insufficiency in dogs?

    <p>Coprophagia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common diagnostic test for assessing pancreatic function?

    <p>Trypsin concentration test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In dogs, low levels of which vitamin may indicate a case of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?

    <p>Vitamin B12</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a cause of chronic diarrhea in dogs?

    <p>Liver failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic stool appearance in dogs with pancreatic insufficiency?

    <p>Greasy and yellow</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breed is noted for a hereditary predisposition to exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?

    <p>German Shepherd</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of diarrhea is associated with malabsorption due to pancreatic issues?

    <p>Chronic small bowel diarrhea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breed is specifically predisposed to develop demodicosis?

    <p>Siberian husky</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary underlying mechanism of atopy in dogs?

    <p>Interaction between IgE and skin mast cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is characterized by skin hypersensitivity to environmental allergens?

    <p>Atopy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following breeds is NOT typically associated with systemic lupus erythematosus?

    <p>Labrador retrievers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of cancer is more commonly associated with nasal dermatoses in dogs?

    <p>Basal cell carcinoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these allergens is commonly implicated in canine atopy?

    <p>Animal dander</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What laboratory finding is characteristic of Babesiosis in dogs?

    <p>Hemolytic anemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which group of dogs is dermatomyositis more frequently found?

    <p>Herding breeds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common reason for the occurrence of epistaxis in animals?

    <p>Erosion of nasal arteries from infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which primary condition can lead to the development of glaucoma in dogs?

    <p>Genetic defects</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What indicates the presence of narrow angle glaucoma in an animal?

    <p>Iris base pushed forward causing increased pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a possible secondary cause of cataracts in dogs?

    <p>Chronic uveitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant early sign of glaucoma in animals?

    <p>Enlarged pupil with redness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following factors is least likely to contribute to epistaxis?

    <p>Increased eye pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What form of glaucoma is more common in dogs than open angle glaucoma?

    <p>Narrow angle glaucoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes goniodysgenesis from pigmentary glaucoma?

    <p>Presence of abnormal tissue at the iris-angle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most significant indicator that periodontal disease has progressed to Stage 3?

    <p>Presence of deep gingival pockets</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic feature of feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions once they extend into the dentin?

    <p>Teeth should be extracted</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following symptoms is NOT commonly associated with coccidioidomycosis in dogs?

    <p>Increased appetite</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a parasite known to cause diarrhea in cats?

    <p>Aspergillus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common possible consequence of untreated periodontal disease at Stage 5?

    <p>Tooth loss due to infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom associated with Cryptococcosis in cats?

    <p>Nasal discharge</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does coccidioidomycosis typically enter the dog's body?

    <p>Inhalation of fungal spores</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes Stage 1 of periodontal disease from more advanced stages?

    <p>Gingivitis caused by plaque accumulation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which infectious agent is associated with chronic diarrhea in cats?

    <p>Feline leukemia virus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom indicates that feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions are likely advancing?

    <p>Bright red gingival inflammation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition may lead to chronic diarrhea in cats and is characterized by inflammation of the intestinal wall?

    <p>Lymphoplasmacytic enterocolitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is a potential cause of pain in dogs with coccidioidomycosis?

    <p>Joint involvement</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mode of transmission for Cytauxzoonosis in cats?

    <p>Tick bites</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment is commonly recommended for Cryptococcosis in cats?

    <p>Antifungals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following symptoms is likely seen in cats suffering from Cytauxzoonosis?

    <p>Icterus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true regarding the infection caused by Cryptococcus neoformans in cats?

    <p>Respiratory symptoms are commonly observed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary symptom of clostridial enterotoxicosis in dogs and cats?

    <p>Large bowel diarrhea with blood and mucus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment is NOT typically used for coccidiosis caused by Isospora canis in dogs?

    <p>Metronidazole</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following pathogens can cause acute diarrhea in both dogs and cats?

    <p>Giardia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What dietary change is recommended to treat infections caused by Clostridium perfringens?

    <p>Adopt a high soluble and insoluble fiber diet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is least associated with acute diarrhea in dogs and cats?

    <p>Increased appetite and playful behavior</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the likely result of delaying treatment for puppies afflicted with coccidiosis?

    <p>Increased risk of severe dehydration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which biological mechanism primarily leads to cell damage in clostridial enterotoxicosis?

    <p>Binding of enterotoxin to the mucosa</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common indication of antibiotic therapy in cases of diarrhea caused by Clostridium perfringens?

    <p>High clostridial counts in feces</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical treatment regimen for coccidioidomycosis using ketoconazole?

    <p>10-30 mg/kg three times daily for one year</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which characteristic is associated with large-bowel diarrhea in dogs?

    <p>Increased defecation frequency with smaller stool volume</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can be a consequence of ketoacidosis in diabetic animals?

    <p>Severe dehydration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What predisposing factors are associated with cruciate ligament injuries in dogs?

    <p>Obesity, large breed, and vigorous athletic activity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions can lead to left-sided congestive heart failure?

    <p>Mitral valve dysplasia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common clinical sign indicating a torn anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) in dogs?

    <p>Lameness and reluctance to walk</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these factors can contribute to the diagnosis of chronic diarrhea in dogs?

    <p>Duration of symptoms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which heart condition is most commonly associated with failure of the right side of the heart?

    <p>Idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What definitive treatment is indicated for a dog diagnosed with coccidiosis caused by Isospora canis?

    <p>Treatment with anti-coccidial medications</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical effect of left-sided congestive heart failure on blood circulation?

    <p>Pooling of blood in the pulmonary circulation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary effect of AV block in a patient with heart conditions?

    <p>Slower heart rate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What physical examination finding is most indicative of cruciate disease in dogs?

    <p>Hyperextension of the stifle joint</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following can be a sign of ketoacidosis in a diabetic animal?

    <p>Persistent vomiting</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following characterizes small intestinal diarrhea in dogs?

    <p>Large-volume diarrhea without frank blood</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What underlying condition can contribute to diabetic ketoacidosis?

    <p>Ongoing infections</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is a common cause of right-sided congestive heart failure?

    <p>Pericarditis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism that leads to syncope?

    <p>Inadequate perfusion of the brain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is NOT typically associated with causing syncope?

    <p>Epilepsy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of infective endocarditis?

    <p>Destruction of heart valves</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What factor commonly triggers a cough in animals?

    <p>Stimulation of vagus nerve endings</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component of the heart is most commonly affected in bovine infective endocarditis?

    <p>Tricuspid valve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of diseases can lead to a cough due to upper respiratory tract issues?

    <p>Viral infections and tumors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is a typical consequence of aortic valve involvement in infective endocarditis?

    <p>Left-sided congestive heart failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one potential cause of temporary loss of consciousness besides cardiovascular problems?

    <p>Hypoglycemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most definitive diagnostic technique for detecting a rupture or partial tear in the knee?

    <p>Cranial drawer motion testing while the leg is extended</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What common condition might be suspected if a dog experiences pododermatitis in only one foot?

    <p>Neoplastic condition</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breeds are particularly affected by dermatomyositis?

    <p>Collies and Shetland sheepdogs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical sign is least likely to accompany myositis in dogs suffering from dermatomyositis?

    <p>Enhanced muscle strength and endurance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What might longer standing cases of joint injuries in dogs present as?

    <p>Muscle atrophy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What systemic condition can cause pododermatitis affecting multiple feet in dogs?

    <p>Parasitic infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is NOT a characteristic symptom of dermatomyositis in dogs?

    <p>Extensive joint swelling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In cases of pododermatitis, what type of embedded material could a veterinarian suspect if only one foot shows lesions?

    <p>Embedded foreign bodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the key functions of aldosterone in the body?

    <p>Regulates blood pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breed is identified as having an increased risk of developing hypoadrenocorticism?

    <p>Great Dane</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What laboratory finding is typically associated with Addison’s disease?

    <p>Elevated potassium levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary sign associated with megaesophagus?

    <p>Regurgitation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions can lead to the development of megaesophagus in adult animals?

    <p>Systemic lupus erythematosus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What diagnostic test is definitive for diagnosing Addison’s disease?

    <p>ACTH stimulation test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What symptom in puppies with megaesophagus typically manifests as they start eating solid food?

    <p>Regurgitation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary concern associated with aspiration due to megaesophagus?

    <p>Respiratory problems</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of the equine passive stay apparatus?

    <p>To allow the horse to rest without falling over</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which joints are primarily stabilized by the passive stay apparatus in a horse?

    <p>Shoulder joint and carpal joint</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the three components that make up the equine passive stay apparatus?

    <p>Interosseus, proximal sesamoid bones, and sesamoidean ligaments</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which layer lies directly against the spinal canal?

    <p>Dura mater</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of nerve roots branch from the white matter of the spinal cord?

    <p>Ventral and dorsal roots</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment approach for canine hemangiosarcoma?

    <p>Surgical removal or debulking of the tumor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic symptom is associated with tracheal collapse in dogs?

    <p>Goose honk cough</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which form of feline infectious peritonitis is associated with a weak cell-mediated response?

    <p>Wet form</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common sign of the dry form of feline infectious peritonitis?

    <p>Granulomatous reactions in organs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic tool is particularly useful for confirming tracheal collapse in dogs?

    <p>Chest X-rays</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of virus is feline leukemia virus (FeLV)?

    <p>An RNA retrovirus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What common condition is often seen in dogs diagnosed with tracheal collapse?

    <p>Chronic bronchitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which body part does feline leukemia virus primarily infect cells?

    <p>Pharyngeal lymph nodes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to the trachea during the diagnosis of cervical tracheal collapse on X-ray during inspiration?

    <p>It collapses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What proportion of cats that contract feline leukemia virus will likely develop persistent infection?

    <p>Approximately 2%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breed of dog is mentioned as having a higher likelihood of developing hemangiosarcoma?

    <p>Golden retriever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What diagnostic test is considered definitive for feline infectious peritonitis?

    <p>Biopsy of necropsy samples</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a known risk factor for superficial dermal hemangiosarcoma in dogs?

    <p>Chronic ultraviolet irradiation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential outcome for the subset of cats unable to mount an immune response to FeLV?

    <p>Development of various FeLV-associated diseases</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition might need to be ruled out during the diagnosis of chronic bronchitis in dogs?

    <p>Cushing syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What general symptom is not typically associated with feline infectious peritonitis, regardless of form?

    <p>Vocalization increase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic radiographic finding for a dog with gastric dilation and volvulus?

    <p>A gas-filled stomach appearing as a double bubble</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary risk factor for the development of mammary tumors in female dogs?

    <p>Exposure to high levels of estrogen and progesterone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which types of elbow dysplasia are recognized in dogs?

    <p>Ununited anconeal process and elbow incongruity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What age range is most commonly associated with elbow dysplasia in dogs?

    <p>4 to 18 months</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breed is particularly predisposed to developing elbow dysplasia?

    <p>Rottweiler</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does spaying a female dog before her first estrus affect her risk of mammary tumors?

    <p>Reduces the risk to 0.05%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What impact does high-calorie feeding have on elbow dysplasia?

    <p>It can exacerbate the disorder</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a notable clinical finding upon blood testing during the acute phase of gastric dilation and volvulus?

    <p>Significant electrolyte abnormalities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is NOT commonly associated with the development of metabolic acidosis?

    <p>Acute cholecystitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the anion gap formula AG = (Na + K) - (HCO3 + Cl) help diagnose?

    <p>Metabolic acidosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following enzymes is considered liver-specific?

    <p>Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of fluid is characterized as a transudate?

    <p>Low-protein fluid due to increased hydrostatic pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which metabolic condition is primarily indicated by elevated levels of lactate in the bloodstream?

    <p>Lactic acidosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What abnormal finding would most likely accompany kidney failure in relation to metabolic acidosis?

    <p>High levels of phosphate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of liver function tests, what does a significant elevation in AST levels indicate?

    <p>Potential damage to multiple organ systems</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment to correct disturbances associated with metabolic acidosis?

    <p>IV therapy with lactated Ringer’s solution</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition caused by Brucella suis may affect male pigs?

    <p>Orchitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant effect of porcine parvovirus in naïve herds?

    <p>Mummification of fetuses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following viral infections in pigs can lead to signs similar to rabies?

    <p>Pseudorabies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mode of transmission for Baylisascaris procyonis from raccoons to dogs?

    <p>Ingestion of infected eggs in soil</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which disease is specifically known to cause neurological signs in infected dogs due to a parasite?

    <p>Baylisascaris procyonis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What environmental factor can help inactivate the Pseudorabies virus?

    <p>Exposure to sunlight</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does Leptospirosis pomona have on a pregnant sow?

    <p>Causes mummification</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is characterized by early embryonic loss in sows?

    <p>Brucellosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary diagnostic method for assessing metabolic acidosis?

    <p>Blood serum chemistry testing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is associated with a normal anion gap when diagnosing metabolic acidosis?

    <p>Diarrhea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the anion gap formula AG = (Na + K) - (HCO3 + Cl) help to identify?

    <p>Underlying diseases related to metabolic acidosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary physiological mechanism leading to syncope?

    <p>Inadequate brain perfusion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which enzyme is considered more liver-specific in the assessment of liver damage?

    <p>Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cardiovascular condition is NOT commonly associated with syncope?

    <p>Pulmonary hypertension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of fluid is collected in ascites?

    <p>Transudate or modified transudate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is indicated by elevated levels of ALT and AST in blood testing?

    <p>Sustained liver damage or disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most definitive method for diagnosing oral fibrosarcomas in larger breed male dogs over seven years of age?

    <p>Deep biopsy for histopathology</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What category does a cough caused by tracheal collapse fall under?

    <p>Upper respiratory tract disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of salivary mucocele is most commonly observed under the jaw or in the upper neck region?

    <p>Cervical mucoceles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the case of infective endocarditis, which valve is least likely to be affected in horses?

    <p>Pulmonary valve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is NOT commonly associated with increased levels of potassium in metabolic acidosis?

    <p>Chronic dehydration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which fluid therapy is typically employed to correct metabolic acidosis?

    <p>Lactated Ringer’s solution with sodium bicarbonate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a potential non-cardiovascular cause of syncope?

    <p>Hypoglycemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary host from which cats are likely to contract plague?

    <p>Dead rodents infected with Yersinia pestis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which form of plague develops through inhaling aerosolized droplets or through septicemia?

    <p>Pneumonic plague</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical complication may arise if the aortic valve is involved in infective endocarditis?

    <p>Left-sided congestive heart failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which characteristic is NOT associated with oral squamous cell carcinoma in cats?

    <p>High rate of lymph node spread</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is NOT typically associated with cough induced by lower respiratory tract diseases?

    <p>Dry, non-productive cough</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the initial result of a damaged salivary duct in the formation of a salivary mucocele?

    <p>Leaking of saliva into surrounding tissues</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common cause of cough related to upper respiratory tract diseases?

    <p>Nasal tumor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term used for the swollen lymph nodes associated with plague infection?

    <p>Buboes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about salivary mucoceles is incorrect?

    <p>They are always associated with pain.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breed is least likely to be predisposed to developing cherry eye?

    <p>Great Dane</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What symptom is most commonly associated with gastric dilation and volvulus syndrome?

    <p>Unproductive retching</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is NOT considered a predisposition for gastric dilation and volvulus syndrome?

    <p>A prior history of pancreatitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most likely clinical sign indicating that a dog is in shock due to gastric dilation and volvulus syndrome?

    <p>Weak pulse</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What anatomical structure is primarily affected in cherry eye?

    <p>Third eyelid gland</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which situation may increase the risk of developing gastric dilation and volvulus syndrome?

    <p>Consuming one large meal at once</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What common sign might a dog exhibit if affected by cherry eye?

    <p>Red mass under the eyelid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breed is most at risk for developing gastric dilation and volvulus syndrome due to its physical structure?

    <p>Great Dane</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common secondary cause of glaucoma in cats?

    <p>Retinal detachment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of glaucoma is more likely to develop suddenly in dogs?

    <p>Narrow angle glaucoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic feature of cataracts in dogs?

    <p>Opacity of the lens or its capsule</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the normal range of intraocular pressure in dogs?

    <p>10 to 20 mm Hg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is NOT typically associated with the development of cataracts in dogs?

    <p>Erosion of nasal arteries</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant sign of glaucoma in animals?

    <p>Enlargement of the eye</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What underlying issue can lead to the development of glaucoma in cats?

    <p>Genetic causes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of glaucoma is specifically more common in Beagles?

    <p>Open angle glaucoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common consequence of feline hyperthyroidism if left untreated?

    <p>Development of cardiac arrhythmias</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is NOT typically associated with hyperthyroidism in cats?

    <p>Severe lethargy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic test is most indicative of hyperthyroidism in cats?

    <p>Thyroid function tests</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of tumor is most often associated with hyperthyroidism in cats?

    <p>Adenoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the potential outcomes of the tumor surrounding the gingival surface in affected cats?

    <p>Weight loss due to anorexia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is known to affect the gastrointestinal tract in cats due to hyperthyroidism?

    <p>Malabsorption and diarrhea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary method of treatment for cats diagnosed with oral tumors?

    <p>Radical surgery and radiation therapy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical sign is specifically indicative of Otodectes cynotis infestation in cats?

    <p>Thick, dark, crusty material in ears</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason that humans are at risk for permanent damage due to Baylisascaris procyonis?

    <p>It causes significant disease that may lead to death.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method is NOT typically used to detect Giardia felis cysts?

    <p>PCR testing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a clinical sign associated with Giardia felis infection in cats?

    <p>Soft and pale diarrhea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    After how long do adult Dirofilaria immitis larvae typically migrate to the pulmonary arteries post-infection?

    <p>3 months</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What leads to the development of metabolic acidosis in the body?

    <p>Increased production of acids or inadequate acid elimination.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition could contribute to the low blood pH seen in metabolic acidosis?

    <p>Chronic renal failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended dosage of ketoconazole for treating coccidioidomycosis?

    <p>10-30 mg/kg three times daily</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the L3 larvae in the life cycle of Dirofilaria immitis?

    <p>They mature into adult worms in the pulmonary arteries.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which characteristic is NOT associated with small intestinal diarrhea in dogs?

    <p>Blood and mucus in the stool</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a consequence of an excessive amount of acids due to diarrhea in metabolic acidosis?

    <p>Decreased pH and bicarbonate levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions can lead to cruciate disease in dogs?

    <p>Obesity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common clinical sign of a torn anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) in dogs?

    <p>Reluctance to walk</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is primarily responsible for the stability provided by the anterior cruciate ligament?

    <p>Limiting tibial rotation and displacement</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of diarrhea is characterized by increased frequency of defecation with smaller amounts of stool?

    <p>Large-bowel diarrhea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic approach is essential for confirming a diagnosis of cruciate disease?

    <p>Observing clinical signs and thorough history</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cause is NOT typically associated with small intestinal diarrhea in dogs?

    <p>Blood and mucus in the stool</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment for cataracts in dogs?

    <p>Lens removal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of retinal detachment is caused by a tear in the retina?

    <p>Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common benign oral tumor found in dogs?

    <p>Epulis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which breed is cataracts most commonly observed?

    <p>Labrador Retriever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of retinal detachment is associated with inflamed or traumatized eyes?

    <p>Exudative retinal detachment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a notable characteristic of fibrosarcomas in dogs?

    <p>They invade local bone but do not spread to lymph nodes.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions primarily leads to cataracts in dogs?

    <p>Age-related factors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for developing malignant oral tumors in dogs?

    <p>Weight</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common cause of epistaxis in animals?

    <p>Trauma to the nasal passages</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is characterized by increased intraocular pressure in the eye?

    <p>Glaucoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of glaucoma is more common in dogs?

    <p>Narrow angle glaucoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which dog breed is known to have an inherited tendency toward open angle glaucoma?

    <p>Beagle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary cause of cataracts in dogs?

    <p>Genetic defects</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is NOT typically associated with glaucoma?

    <p>Cataract formation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What may lead to secondary glaucoma in cats?

    <p>Chronic uveitis or other eye problems</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition can arise alongside glaucoma due to increased pressure in the eye?

    <p>Lens luxation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the typical signs of ketoacidosis in diabetic animals?

    <p>Increased drinking and urination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential cause of left-sided congestive heart failure in dogs and cats?

    <p>Hypertension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Inflammation of which heart structure is NOT typically associated with left-sided congestive heart failure?

    <p>Aorta</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a reason for right-sided heart failure?

    <p>Idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What contributes to the development of heart rhythm disturbances in left-sided congestive heart failure?

    <p>Improper heart muscle function</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is NOT directly related to complications of ketoacidosis in diabetic animals?

    <p>High carbohydrate intake</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common consequence of right-sided congestive heart failure?

    <p>Reduced blood flow to lungs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions can elevate the risk of developing left-sided congestive heart failure?

    <p>Obesity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first step in diagnosing a cat with suspected ear mite infestation?

    <p>Taking ear swabs to examine exudates</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical sign is NOT commonly associated with Chlamydia psittaci in cats?

    <p>Ulcerative keratitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What underlying condition is more likely to cause cholangitis in cats?

    <p>Bacterial infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment option is considered off-label for ear mite infestation in cats?

    <p>Ivermectin administration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common concurrent problem associated with biliary tract disease in cats?

    <p>Cholecystitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of chronic diarrhea in cats?

    <p>Aging process</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which age group of kittens is most commonly affected by Chlamydia psittaci?

    <p>Two to six months</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In cases of biliary tract diseases, which type of immune reaction is associated with lymphocytic-plasmacytic inflammation?

    <p>Autoimmune response</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a clinical sign associated with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in cats?

    <p>Coughing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which organisms are known to cause dermatophytosis in cats?

    <p>Microsporum canis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What underlying mechanism primarily leads to renal problems in cats with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

    <p>Poor blood perfusion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common consequence of aortic thromboembolism in affected cats?

    <p>Sudden limb paralysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What initial approach is recommended for treating feline gingivitis/stomatitis syndrome?

    <p>Thorough dental examination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is commonly associated with ringworm in cats?

    <p>Hair loss in a circular pattern</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is most likely to be associated with young dogs less than one year old?

    <p>Zinc-responsive dermatosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant risk factor for cats developing ringworm?

    <p>Long hair</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the underlying immune response mechanism involved in atopy?

    <p>IgE binding to skin mast cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a likely outcome if cats with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy experience severe left atrial blood stasis?

    <p>Formation of thromboembolism</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breed is notably predisposed to developing dermatomyositis?

    <p>Collie</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common sign observed in dogs with Babesia gibsoni infection?

    <p>Pale mucous membranes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of dermatitis is commonly associated with plastic food dishes in dogs?

    <p>Contact dermatitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which allergens are most commonly implicated in canine atopy?

    <p>Molds and pollens</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following represents a potential differential diagnosis for atopy?

    <p>Mange</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of cancer is nasal dermatoses most commonly seen in dogs?

    <p>Squamous cell carcinoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Infertility in Sows

    • Brucellosis: Caused by Brucella suis, spreads through breeding, leads to embryonic death, abortion, infertility, and orchitis in boars.
    • Porcine Parvovirus: Causes infertility, mummification, and stillbirths in naive herds. Immunity develops after herd infection.
    • Hog Cholera: Impacts pregnant sows causing embryonic death, abortion, mummification, stillbirths, decreased litter size, and weak piglets.
    • Pseudorabies: Causes abortion in pregnant sows 10-20 days after illness onset.
    • Leptospirosis pomona: Results in abortions during the last month of pregnancy, despite the sow appearing normal.
    • Smedi Virus: Causes various complications, including abortions, mummification, stillbirths, infertility, weak piglets, and decreased litter size.

    Pseudorabies

    • Caused by a DNA herpesvirus, highly fatal in swine.
    • Reportable disease in the USA, shares symptoms with rabies.
    • Dogs and cats are dead-end hosts and die within days of infection.
    • Spread through direct contact or inhaling the virus.
    • Virus can travel up to a mile and persists for days in specific conditions.
    • Inactivated by high temperatures, drying, and sunlight.
    • Replicates in the nose, tonsils, and pharynx of infected animals.
    • Neonatal pigs display CNS signs like tremors and convulsions, leading to death.
    • Older piglets exhibit respiratory signs, including anorexia, sneezing, fever, weight loss, and difficulty breathing.

    Baylisascaris Procyonis

    • Common ascarid parasite of raccoons that infects dogs.
    • Adult worms reside in the raccoon's small intestine, eggs are released through feces.
    • Eggs develop into the infective stage in the soil.
    • Raccoons ingest eggs or infected hosts, becoming infected.
    • Dogs can host the adult worm or develop neurological signs like ataxia, blindness, paresis, or death.
    • Canine adult worm infections can be treated with various medications.
    • Dogs can carry the disease and transmit it to humans, posing a significant public health concern.

    Giardia Felis

    • Identified by its binucleated, flagellated trophozoite form.
    • Found in the small intestine, forms a resistant cyst wall in the large intestine.
    • Cyst divides in the large intestine, producing trophozoites, and is released in feces.
    • Cats become infected through fecal-oral contamination or contaminated water.
    • Infected cats exhibit soft and pale diarrhea, weight loss, and kittens may fail to gain weight despite a normal appetite.
    • Diagnosis through direct saline examination of diarrhea samples or antigen detection assays.

    Dirofilaria Immitis

    • Life cycle as short as six months.
    • Adult worms live in the pulmonary arteries and right ventricle.
    • Microfilariae released into the circulatory system and ingested by mosquitoes.
    • L1 larvae develop into L3 larvae in the mosquito.
    • L3 larvae are deposited into the bite wound and enter the bloodstream.
    • 10-12 L3 larvae are transmitted per infected mosquito bite.
    • L3 larvae molt to L4 and L5 (adult) larvae, reaching the pulmonary arteries in three months.
    • Adults mature and migrate to the right ventricle in two to three months.

    Metabolic Acidosis

    • Occurs due to excessive acid production or insufficient kidney removal of acid.
    • Characterized by decreased bicarbonate levels, high hydrogen ion concentration, and low blood pH.
    • Can result from syndromes increasing chloride-containing acids, including diarrhea, medication ingestion, and renal tubular acidosis.

    Heartworm in Cats

    • Symptoms mainly revolve around the lungs.
    • Adult larvae develop in the pulmonary arteries and caudal lung lobes, causing lung damage.
    • Most larvae die, triggering inflammatory and eosinophilic responses.
    • Damage to the pulmonary arteries and capillary beds leads to asthma-like symptoms, including coughing and difficulty breathing.
    • Cats have a different response to heartworm infection than dogs.
    • Adult heartworms live for 18-24 months in cats.
    • Average worm burden is 1-3 worms, with minimal pulmonary hypertension or heart problems.

    Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV)

    • Lentivirus similar to HIV but doesn't infect humans.
    • Transmitted primarily through bite wounds, as the virus is found in saliva.
    • Also transmitted through the uterus or milk from infected mothers to kittens.
    • Infected cats remain infected for life, becoming susceptible to infections due to immunosuppression.
    • Initial infection leads to fever, lymph node swelling, and neutropenia, followed by a period of normalcy lasting months to years.
    • Clinical signs are variable, but immunosuppression increases susceptibility to various diseases.
    • Virus replicates in T-lymphocytes in lymph nodes.
    • Signs of compromised health include gingivitis, stomatitis, weight loss, unkempt coat, anorexia, and fever.
    • Diphasic fever occurs, with the first phase 3-6 days post-infection and the second phase several days later.
    • Generalized signs include anorexia, listlessness, and potential secondary gastrointestinal, ocular, and respiratory signs.
    • Neurological signs can present as seizures, myoclonus, ataxia, paralysis, muscle tremors, and paresis.
    • Laboratory tests show lymphopenia and thrombocytopenia during the early acute phase, with potential monocyte increase.
    • Diagnosis through ELISA and PCR.

    Causes of Abortion in Dogs

    • Can be categorized as fetal defects, reproductive organ dysfunction, infectious organisms, and hormonal dysfunction.
    • Fetal defects include chromosomal abnormalities and organ defects.
    • Reproductive organ problems include lysis of corpora lutea, trauma, neoplasia, chloramphenicol use, pyometra, and cystic endometrial hyperplasia.
    • Infectious agents include viruses like distemper, parvovirus, and herpesvirus.
    • Bacteria causing abortion include E. coli, Campylobacter, Streptococci, and Brucella canis.
    • Other organisms include Toxoplasma, Ureaplasma, and mycoplasma.
    • Hormonal imbalances, like hypothyroidism or hypoluteoidism, can also cause abortion.

    Diaphragmatic Hernia

    • Surgical emergency in dogs.
    • Can be congenital or mostly caused by trauma, especially car accidents.
    • Diaphragm muscle tears or ruptures, causing abdominal organs to bulge into the chest cavity.
    • Hypoventilation results from the lungs being out of place or fractured ribs.
    • Fluid accumulation and organ bulging further contribute to hypoventilation.
    • Lungs may collapse or be bruised.
    • Heart muscle can be traumatized, leading to cardiac problems.

    Small Intestinal Diarrhea in Dogs

    • Liver or kidney damage, hypoadrenocorticism can cause small intestinal diarrhea.
    • Infections from Histoplasmosis, Giardia, Salmonella, or mycobacteria are also linked.
    • Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency can be a cause.

    Aortic Stenosis

    • Three types: valvular, supravalvular, and subaortic (subvalvular) stenosis.
    • Subaortic stenosis is the most common type.
    • Obstruction increases stress on the ventricular wall.
    • Left ventricular hypertrophy develops to attempt normalization of function.
    • Hypertrophy can lead to ischemic areas and ventricular arrhythmias.
    • Predisposed breeds include large breeds like Newfoundland, Boxer, Rottweiler, German Shepherd, and Golden Retriever.

    Heartworm in Dogs

    • Clinical signs depend on worm burden, infection duration, immune response, and damage.
    • Some dogs are asymptomatic, while others show signs like exercise intolerance, coughing, difficulty breathing, epistaxis, lethargy, and ascites.
    • Increased lung sounds, heart murmur, and altered chest X-rays may be present.
    • Anemia, eosinophilia, basophilia, hyperglobulinemia, and proteinuria can be observed.
    • Definitive diagnosis through antigen detection, generally detected 6-7 months post-exposure.

    Canine Ehrlichiosis

    • Caused by the rickettsia, Ehrlichia canis.
    • Infects monocytes and lymphocytes.
    • Presents as acute or chronic disease with various signs.
    • Transmitted by the brown dog tick, Rhipicephalus sanguineus.

    Clostridial Enterotoxicosis

    • Caused by Clostridium perfringens, which releases enterotoxin into the intestine.
    • Enterotoxin binds to the mucosa, causing cell damage and death.
    • Symptoms:
      • Large bowel diarrhea (bloody stool with mucus) lasting for 1 week.
      • Chronic cases with intermittent diarrhea.
      • Increased gas, vomiting, abdominal pain.
    • Treatment:
      • Diet high in soluble and insoluble fiber to reduce clostridial numbers and acidify colon.
      • Antibiotic therapy may be used.

    Coccidiosis Infection

    • Isospora canis causes coccidiosis in dogs, while Isospora felis affects cats.
    • Symptoms:
      • Loose watery stool with mucus.
      • Blood in stool.
      • Weakness in puppies.
    • Diagnosis:
      • Fecal examination reveals oocysts in stool sample.
    • Treatment:
      • Sulfadimethoxine: loading dose of 55 mg/kg for the first day, followed by 27.5 mg/kg for four days.
      • Fenbendazole (50 mg/kg once daily for three days) or albendazole (25 mg/kg twice daily for two days).

    Acute Diarrhea

    • Many causes, broadly categorized as parasitic, drug and toxin-induced, infectious, dietary and miscellaneous.
    • Parasites:
      • Coccidia, ascarids, hookworms, Giardia, and Strongyloides.
    • Infectious pathogens:
      • Rickettsia, Salmonella, Campylobacter, Bacillus piriformis, E.coli, Clostridial spp., Yersinia, funguses, rotavirus, coronavirus, and parvovirus.
    • Dietary causes:
      • Foods containing lactose or excess fat, abrupt food changes, eating garbage or spoiled food, overeating.
    • Drugs and toxins:
      • Antibiotics, analgesics, pesticides, and insecticides.

    Oral Fibrosarcomas

    • Higher incidence in larger breed male dogs over seven years of age.
    • Radiographs show bone lysis in the tumor area.
    • Definitive diagnosis: deep biopsy for histopathology.
    • Treatment: hemimandibulectomy with wide margins around the tumor.

    Salivary Mucocele

    • Occurs due to saliva leaking from damaged salivary duct or gland.
    • Presents as a soft, fluctuant, generally painless mass.
    • Four types:
      • Sublingual mucoceles (ranula): alongside the tongue on the floor of the mouth.
      • Cervical mucoceles: under the jaw or in the upper neck region (most common).
      • Pharyngeal mucoceles: fluid collection in the pharynx.
      • Zygomatic mucoceles: below the eye, originating from the zygomatic salivary glands.

    Feline Plague

    • Caused by Yersinia pestis, transmitted through eating dead rodents infected with the bacteria.
    • Transmitted by fleas: bacteria replicate in the flea’s digestive system, causing regurgitation during feeding.
    • Three forms:
      • Pneumonic: inhaled aerosolized droplets from an infected animal.
      • Bubonic: bacteria spread to lymph nodes.
      • Septicemia: bacteria spread from lymph nodes to other organs.

    Oral Squamous Cell Carcinoma

    • Most common tumor in cats.
    • Malignant, invades the bone.
    • Affected tissue is irregular, elevated, necrotic, and ulcerated.
    • Locally aggressive, typically doesn't spread to lymph nodes.

    Ehrlichia

    • Protozoa multiply, causing macrophages to swell and line the vascular system.
    • Results in congestion in various organs.
    • Almost 100% fatal.
    • Antiparasiticals to prevent tick bites are beneficial in endemic areas.

    Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

    • Causes clinical signs: respiratory distress, collapse, exercise intolerance, cough, sudden death.
    • Due to left ventricular wall or interventricular septum hypertrophy.
    • Enlarged left ventricle: causes high filling pressures and arterial enlargement.
    • Respiratory problems: pulmonary hypertension and edema.
    • Other problems:
      • Thromboembolism due to blood stasis in the left atrium.
      • Heart arrhythmias.
      • Renal problems due to poor blood perfusion.
      • Congestive heart failure.

    Ringworm (Dermatophytosis)

    • Caused by fungi: Microsporum canis, Microsporum gypseum, and Trichophyton mentagrophytes.
    • Clinical signs:
      • Hair loss in a circular pattern.
      • Itching.
      • Redness.
      • Scaling/flaking skin.
      • Long-haired cats are more likely to be infected.
      • Asymptomatic cats can spread the disease.
    • Fungus location: superficial layers of the skin, hair, and nails.
    • Diagnosis: clinical examination combined with fungal culture.

    Feline Gingivitis/Stomatitis Syndrome

    • Symptoms:
      • Drooling.
      • Anorexia.
      • Halitosis.
      • Oral pain.
    • Physical examination:
      • Gingival inflammation.
      • Stomatitis.
      • Pharyngitis.
      • Palatitis.
      • Inflammation of the caudal fauca.
    • Treatment:
      • Thorough dental examination and prophylaxis.
      • Removal of teeth with end-stage periodontal disease and odontoclastic resorptive lesions.

    Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison’s Disease)

    • Adrenal glands produce insufficient aldosterone and cortisol.
    • Aldosterone role:
      • Increases reabsorption of sodium and water.
      • Releases potassium.
      • Maintains blood pressure.
    • Clinical signs:
      • Poor response to stress.
      • Intermittent or fulminant episodes of gastroenteritis leading to collapse (hypoadrenocortical crisis).
      • Loss of body conditioning.
      • Loss of appetite.
      • Increased drinking and urination.
      • Dehydration.
      • Hyperpigmentation of the skin.
      • Depression.
      • Vomiting.
      • Diarrhea.
      • Abdominal pain.
      • Weakness.
    • Laboratory diagnosis:
      • Increased potassium and calcium levels.
      • Low levels of glucose and sodium.
      • Azotemia.
      • Anemia.
      • Eosinophilia.
      • Lymphocytosis.
    • Definitive diagnosis: ACTH stimulation test.

    Megaesophagus

    • Esophageal dilation, congenital or acquired.
    • Congenital causes:
      • Esophageal diverticula.
      • Vascular ring anomalies.
    • Acquired causes:
      • Idiopathic.
      • Secondary to other diseases: esophageal lesions, nervous system disorders, myasthenia gravis, polymyositis, hypoadrenocorticism, systemic lupus erythematosus, dysautonomia, hypothyroidism, lead poisoning.
    • Symptoms:
      • Regurgitation.
      • Puppies: smaller than littermates, regurgitation starts when eating solid food.
      • Adults: weight loss.
      • Respiratory problems due to food aspiration.

    Hemangiosarcoma

    • Highly malignant tumor originating in endothelial cells.
    • Right lateral abdominal radiograph in dogs with gastric dilation and volvulus:
      • Distended gas-filled stomach occupying most of the abdomen.
      • Stomach may appear as a double bubble or compartmentalized due to twisting.
    • Blood testing shows acute inflammation, electrolyte abnormalities, and acid/base disturbances.
    • Conditions mimicking gastric dilation and volvulus: abdominal foreign bodies, splenic or mesenteric torsion, hernias, abdominal neoplasia.

    Mammary System Tumors

    • More than half of tumors in female dogs are mammary.
    • About half of these are malignant.
    • More common in dogs over eight years old.
    • Most tumors occur in the caudal sets of mammary glands.
    • Spaying before the second estrus reduces the risk to less than 10%.
    • Spaying before the first estrus reduces the risk to 0.05%.

    Elbow Dysplasia

    • General term for developmental elbow joint arthritis.
    • Four types:
      • Ununited anconeal process.
      • Osteochondritis dissecans.
      • Fragmented coronoid process.
      • Elbow incongruity.
    • Can occur separately or combined.
    • Often affects both elbows.
    • Inherited disease affecting young dogs 4-18 months old.
    • Predisposed breeds:
      • Rottweiler.
      • Newfoundland.
      • German shepherd.
      • Labrador retriever.
      • Golden retriever.
      • Chow.
      • Bearded collie.
      • Bernese mountain dog.
    • Risk factors:
      • High-calorie diet.
      • Rapid weight and growth.
    • Osteochondritis dissecans:
      • Cartilage forms a flap or detaches from the bone.
      • Affects the distal humerus at the medically trochlear ridge.

    Baylisascaris procyonis

    • Causes significant disease in humans
    • May lead to permanent damage or death

    Giardia felis

    • Found in the small intestine
    • Moves to the large intestine where it forms a resistant cyst wall
    • Cyst divides in the large intestine, producing two trophozoites
    • Transmitted through fecal-oral contamination and contaminated water
    • Clinical signs: soft and pale diarrhea, weight loss, kittens may fail to gain weight despite normal appetite

    Dirofilaria immitis

    • Life cycle is as short as six months
    • Adults live in pulmonary arteries and right ventricles
    • Microfilariae are released into the circulatory system and ingested by mosquitos
    • L1 larvae migrate to the mosquito's stomach and develop into L3 larvae
    • L3 larvae migrate to the mosquito's mouthparts
    • L3 larvae are deposited in the bite wound and enter the animal's bloodstream
    • Only 10-12 L3 larvae are transmitted to the animal per infected mosquito
    • L3 larvae molt to L4 and L5 larvae and arrive at the pulmonary arteries about three months after infection
    • Adults sexually mature and migrate to the right ventricle after two to three months

    Metabolic Acidosis

    • Caused by excessive acid production or insufficient acid removal by the kidneys
    • Characterized by decreased blood plasma concentration of bicarbonate, high hydrogen ion concentration and low blood pH
    • May result from syndromes that increase acids containing chloride (e.g. diarrhea, medication, fluids, renal tubular acidosis)
    • Causes azotemia, electrolyte problems, and dehydration
    • Can lead to death if not treated

    Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)

    • Can be caused by failure of the left or right side of the heart
    • Left-sided failure causes blood to pool in the pulmonary circulation or deprives the body of blood
    • Left-sided failure can result in heart rhythm disturbances (e.g. atrial tachycardia, ventricular tachycardia, atrial fibrillation, AV block)
    • Common cause of left-sided failure: idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy
    • Other causes of left-sided failure: subaortic stenosis, hypertension, pericarditis, endocarditis, mitral valve dysplasia, septal defects, cardiomyopathy, thromboembolism, patent ductus arteriosus
    • Right-sided failure can be caused by parasitic load, structural defects, toxins, infections, or tumors
    • Right-sided failure can be caused by heartworm disease, lung disease, stenosis of pulmonary veins, tumors, Tetralogy of Fallot, and pulmonary hypertension
    • Other causes of right-sided failure: idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy, doxorubicin toxicity, tricuspid stenosis, tumors, pericarditis, pericardial effusion, heart rhythm disturbances

    Syncope

    • Caused by inadequate perfusion of the brain, depriving it of oxygen and metabolic substrates
    • Leads to temporary loss of consciousness and postural tone
    • Can be caused by cardiovascular problems
    • Other causes: reduced cardiac output due to cardiomyopathy, infections, narrowed arteries/veins in the heart/lung, embolism, tumors, heartworm disease, nervous system or vasomotor problems, drugs, hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia, vascular disease
    • Must be differentiated from neuromuscular or musculoskeletal diseases that cause collapse but not loss of consciousness

    Cough Reflex

    • Caused by stimulation of vagus nerve endings in the larynx, trachea, and bronchi, or glossopharyngeal nerves in the pharynx
    • Divided into three categories: upper respiratory tract (URT), lower respiratory tract (LRT), diseases of the esophagus or pleura
    • URT causes: infections, tumors or foreign bodies in the nasal passages, pharynx, larynx, or trachea, or tracheal collapse
    • LRT causes: bronchial infections, inflammation, tumors, or allergies, lung infections, tumors, or edema, aspiration of foreign bodies or substances, congestive heart failure, heartworm disease, pulmonary emboli or thrombi, or pulmonary hypertension

    Infective Endocarditis

    • Infection of the mural endocardium or heart valves
    • Pathological changes in the valve or endocardium allow bloodborne bacteria to invade and colonize
    • Leads to valvular destruction and insufficiency
    • Most commonly affected valves in the horse, dog, and cat are the mitral and aortic valves
    • Most commonly affected valve in cattle is the tricuspid valve
    • Left-sided congestive heart failure occurs within a few months if the aortic valve is involved
    • Diagnosis based on demonstrating Babesia in the blood, titers, Coombs’ testing, and indirect fluorescent antibody tests

    Blastomycosis

    • Caused by Blastomyces dermatitidis, a systemic fungal infection affecting the lungs, male genitalia, eyes, and/or skin of dogs
    • Hunting or sporting breeds are more prone to acquiring this fungus
    • Presentation of clinical signs depends on the area affected
    • Skin lesions manifest as abscesses or thickened areas that ooze fluid and are ulcerated; may lead to osteomyelitis
    • Male dogs may have skin lesions in the testicles or an enlarged prostate
    • Ocular infection presents as uveitis
    • Respiratory tract form presents with difficulty breathing, fever, cough, enlarged lymph nodes, pneumonia, and weight loss

    Bordetella Bronchiseptica

    • Causes kennel cough or infectious tracheobronchitis in dogs
    • Gram-negative bacterium transmitted through air and contaminated fomites
    • Bacteria colonize respiratory tract epithelial cells and excrete endotoxins and exotoxins that harm the respiratory tract and suppress the immune system
    • Primary clinical sign: paroxysmal hacking, dry cough that worsens with exercise or palpation of the throat
    • Disease is generally self-limiting, but antibiotics and other medications may be used to ease symptoms
    • Effective antibiotics: erythromycin, azithromycin, tetracycline, clarithromycin, chloramphenicol, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, cephalosporins, etc
    • To control coughing, limit exercise and use bronchodilators and antitussives
    • Vaccinations are available in intranasal or injectable form

    Canine Distemper

    • Diagnosed based on clinical signs and laboratory testing
    • Clinical signs are variable, from no visible signs to severe disease with central nervous system signs

    Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency (EPI)

    • Caused by loss of pancreatic function, leading to maldigestion and associated digestive disturbances
    • Causes include chronic pancreatitis, idiopathic atrophy of the pancreatic acinar cells, pancreatic duct obstruction, or tumor formation
    • Damage to the pancreas causes loss of lipase, trypsin, and amylase production, as well as decreased production of bicarbonate
    • This leads to malabsorption of nutrients
    • Signs: large-volume gray or yellow cow-patty like diarrhea occurring frequently, gas, episodes of diarrhea, weight loss, ravenous appetite, cachexia, unthrifty hair coat, pica, coprophagia
    • Hereditary in German Shepherds
    • Diagnosis based on history, clinical signs, and serum blood testing
    • Routine blood and chemistry testing are usually normal
    • If high blood and urine glucose with signs of EPI are present, concurrent diabetes mellitus should be considered
    • Some dogs have decreased levels of vitamin B12, A, or E
    • Definitive diagnosis: serum trypsin-like immunoreactivity concentration will be low after fasting

    Chronic Small Bowel Diarrhea

    • Differential diagnosis includes five categories: small intestinal disease, dietary issues, metabolic disturbances, infectious diseases, and exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
    • Small intestinal disease causes: bacterial overgrowth, motility disorders, tumors, inflammation, obstructions, congenital abnormalities, lymphangiectasia
    • Dietary issues: intolerances or food allergy

    Cardiac and Pulmonary Lesions

    • The parasite can cause cardiac and pulmonary lesions of variable severity
    • The severity depends on the number of worms, the duration of infection, the dog's activity level, and its immune response
    • Conditions caused by the parasite include congestive heart failure, exercise intolerance, vena caval syndrome, and glomerulonephritis

    Rabies

    • Rabies is a viral infection that causes central nervous system disturbance
    • Signs of rabies include nervousness, hyperexcitability, irritability, loss of appetite, and aggression
    • The prodromal stage lasts 1-3 days with intense itching, temperament changes, apprehension, and anxiety
    • Furious form involves increased activity, biting, voice changes, salivation, ataxia, paralysis, and death
    • Paralytic form involves hiding, depression, muscle tremors, difficulty swallowing, and death
    • Unapparent form is a long-term carrier state

    Diagnosis of Rabies

    • Diagnosis can be difficult due to a variety of clinical signs
    • History of exposure, bite wounds, and vaccination history are crucial
    • Disease can mimic other CNS disorders such as infections, toxins, distemper, listeriosis, pseudorabies, or feline infectious peritonitis
    • Quarantine exposed animals for 10 days
    • Euthanize and test the animal if clinical signs develop during quarantine
    • Definitive diagnosis is through immunofluorescence on brain tissue

    Nasal Polyps

    • Pedunculated or elongated inflammatory growths resembling neoplasms
    • Usually a single polyp in a nasal cavity
    • Outer surface composed of smooth mucous membrane
    • Inner layers composed of fibrous and myxomatous tissue
    • Infiltrate of granulocytes, lymphocytes, and capillaries

    Epistaxis (Nosebleeds)

    • Typically caused by trauma to the nose or nasal passages
    • Other causes include ulcerated nasal tissues, sinus or nasal passage infections, erosion of nasal arteries due to infection, neoplasia, or fractured bones

    Glaucoma

    • Optic disease caused by increased ocular pressure leading to vision loss
    • Can be primary (genetic) or secondary to other conditions
    • Most dogs develop glaucoma due to genetic causes
    • Cats typically have another eye problem that leads to glaucoma

    Signs of Glaucoma

    • Eye redness, dilated pupil, corneal edema
    • Eye enlargement, pain, lens luxation as the disease progresses
    • Intraocular pressure increases from 10-20 mmHg to over 25 mmHg

    Types of Glaucoma

    • Primary or inherited glaucoma is due to abnormal fluid drainage through the iridocorneal angle
    • Open angle glaucoma has a wide angle where the iris and cornea join
    • Narrow angle glaucoma has the iris base pushed forward
    • Narrow angle glaucoma is more common in dogs
    • Open angle glaucoma develops slowly, narrow angle glaucoma causes sudden pressure increases
    • Goniodysgenesis involves abnormal tissue at the angle
    • Pigmentary glaucoma involves pigment cells blocking the angle

    Cataracts

    • Opacity of the lens or its capsule, typically affecting both eyes
    • Cats develop cataracts secondary to chronic uveitis
    • Dogs develop cataracts due to genetic defects, diabetes, trauma, neoplasia, or chronic uveitis

    Hypoadrenocorticism

    • Also known as Addison's disease
    • Affects a variety of bodily functions including glucose metabolism, blood pressure regulation, immune function, insulin release, and inflammatory response
    • Aldosterone increases sodium and water reabsorption and potassium release in the kidneys
    • This helps maintain blood pressure
    • Hypoadrenocorticism causes non-specific signs
    • Mostly affects young to middle-aged female dogs
    • Breeds at risk include Portuguese water dogs, poodles, Rottweilers, Great Danes, West Highland white terriers, and Wheaton terriers

    Signs of Hypoadrenocorticism

    • Poor response to stress
    • Intermittent or fulminant gastroenteritis leading to collapse (hypoadrenocortical crisis)
    • Loss of body conditioning
    • Lack of appetite, increased drinking and urination, dehydration, hyperpigmentation, depression, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and weakness

    Laboratory Diagnosis of Hypoadrenocorticism

    • Increased potassium and calcium levels
    • Low glucose and sodium levels
    • Azotemia, anemia, eosinophilia, and lymphocytosis
    • ACTH stimulation test confirms diagnosis

    Megaesophagus

    • Dilation of the esophagus
    • Can be congenital or acquired
    • Congenital causes include esophageal diverticula, vascular ring anomalies, or idiopathic dilation
    • Acquired causes include idiopathic causes or secondary to other diseases

    Diseases Leading to Megaesophagus

    • Esophageal lesions, nervous system disorders, myasthenia gravis, polymyositis, hypoadrenocorticism, systemic lupus erythematosus, dysautonomia, hypothyroidism, or lead poisoning

    Signs of Megaesophagus

    • Regurgitation
    • Puppies are smaller than littermates and regurgitate when eating solid food
    • Adult animals regurgitate and lose weight
    • Both adults and puppies have respiratory problems due to food aspiration

    Hemangiosarcoma

    • Very malignant tumor originating in endothelial cells
    • Signs vary from asymptomatic to fulminant acute disease
    • Transmitted by dogs carrying Leptospira canicola or rodents carrying Leptospira icterohaemorrhagiae
    • Spirochetes attack various organs: liver, kidney, spleen, and lymph nodes

    Signs of Hemangiosarcoma

    • Vomiting, refusal to eat, fever
    • Liver and spleen damage lead to icterus
    • Kidney damage leads to renal failure, the most severe sign
    • Gastrointestinal damage results in vomiting and bloody stools

    Treatment of Hemangiosarcoma

    • Good nursing care and antibiotics such as penicillin G, erythromycin, streptomycin, ampicillin, or chloramphenicol

    Lyme Disease

    • Caused by the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi
    • Spread by the Ixodes dammini tick
    • Causes various syndromes: kidney problems, cardiac abnormalities, neurological disorders, joint and limb disease

    Signs of Lyme Disease

    • Fever, lameness, painful and swollen joints, loss of appetite, depression, swollen lymph nodes
    • Renal disease is the second most common manifestation

    Diagnosis and Treatment of Lyme Disease

    • Based on clinical signs and laboratory testing
    • Treatment includes a 10-14 day course of doxycycline or amoxicillin

    Prevention of Lyme Disease

    • Adequate tick control and vaccination

    Nocardia Asteroides

    • Caused by the gram-positive, aerobic bacterium Nocardia asteroides
    • Found in soil
    • Enters the body through wounds or inhalation
    • Causes chronic disease in cats, dogs, and other animals

    Canine Nocardiosis

    • Thoracopulmonary disease characterized by loss of appetite, weight loss, and fever
    • Pleuritis, peritonitis, abscess formation in brain, heart, liver, and kidneys
    • Mycetoma or skin form involves lump formation, rupture, drainage, and coalescing into sinuses

    Treatment of Nocardiosis

    • Replacement thyroxine (T4) at 0.01 to 0.02 mg/lb daily, divided into two doses

    Equine Passive Stay Apparatus

    • Allows horses to stand for long periods without muscular effort
    • Consists of tendons and ligaments that stabilize joints
    • Prevents flexing of joints
    • Three parts: interosseus, proximal sesamoid bones, and sesamoidean ligaments
    • Shoulder, elbow, and carpal joints are stabilized by muscle and ligament pressure
    • Pastern and fetlock joints are extended and overextended to prevent fetlock drooping

    Spinal Cord

    • Lies within the spinal canal
    • Wall formed by vertebrae, intervertebral ligaments, and discs
    • Composed of gray matter and white matter
    • White matter branches into roots (ventral and dorsal) that combine to form spinal nerves
    • Spinal nerves and blood vessels exit the vertebral canal through intervertebral foramina
    • Covered by three membranes: dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater
    • Dura mater has two layers: periosteum and investing layer

    Clostridial Enterotoxicosis

    • Clostridium perfringens is a bacterium that causes large bowel diarrhea in dogs and cats.
    • The bacterium releases an enterotoxin that damages the intestinal mucosa.
    • Symptoms include bloody diarrhea, increased gas, vomiting, abdominal pain, and general ill health.
    • Treatment involves dietary manipulation to reduce clostridial numbers and acidify the colon.
    • Antibiotic therapy may be necessary.

    Coccidiosis

    • Isospora canis causes coccidiosis in dogs, while Isospora felis causes the disease in cats.
    • Symptoms include loose, watery diarrhea, possibly with mucus and blood.
    • Puppies may experience weakness.
    • Treatment includes sulfadimethoxine, fenbendazole, or albendazole.

    Acute Diarrhea

    • Causes of acute diarrhea in dogs and cats:
      • Parasitic: coccidia, ascarids, hookworms, Giardia, Strongyloides.
      • Infectious: Rickettsia, Salmonella, Campylobacter, Bacillus piriformis, E. coli, Clostridial spp., Yersinia, fungi, rotavirus, coronavirus, parvovirus.
      • Dietary: lactose or excess fat in food, abrupt food switch, eating garbage or spoiled food, overeating.
      • Drug and toxin induced: antibiotics, analgesics, pesticides, insecticides.

    Cataracts

    • The most common cause of blindness in dogs.
    • Typically affects dogs over 5 years old.
    • Common breeds affected: Labrador Retriever, Cocker Spaniel, Boston Terrier, Poodle, Bichon Frise, Miniature Schnauzer.
    • Treatment involves lens removal.

    Retinal Detachment

    • Occurs when the retina detaches from the underlying tissues.
    • Types:
      • Rhegmatogenous: caused by a tear in the retina.
      • Tractional: caused by scar tissue on the retina.
      • Exudative: caused by eye disease or trauma.

    Oral Tumors in Dogs and Cats

    • Benign tumors in dogs:
      • Epulis: tumor arising from the periodontal ligament.
    • Benign conditions in cats:
      • Eosinophilic granulomas.
    • Malignant tumors in both dogs and cats:
      • Squamous cell carcinoma.
      • Malignant melanoma.
      • Fibrosarcomas.

    Fibrosarcoma

    • The second most common malignant oral tumor in cats and the third in dogs.
    • Locally aggressive, invading bone but not spreading to lymph nodes or other organs.
    • Symptoms: red growth on the gingival surface, difficulty eating, excessive salivation, bad breath, weight loss, loose teeth.
    • Treatment involves radical surgery and radiation therapy.

    Hyperthyroidism

    • A metabolic disease affecting middle-aged and older cats.
    • Most common endocrine disorder in cats.
    • Caused by enlarged nodules on the thyroid gland that secrete excess thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3).
    • Symptoms: weight loss despite increased appetite, diarrhea, increased thirst and urination, hyperactivity, vomiting, greasy coat.
    • Diagnosis involves blood tests (CBC, blood chemistry, thyroid function tests).

    Otodectes Cynotis

    • A common mite that infects the ear canals of cats.
    • Particularly prevalent in kittens.
    • Symptoms: itching around the head and ears, thick, dark, crusty material in the ear canal.

    Non-Neoplastic FeLV

    • Can cause immunosuppression, glomerulonephritis, or reproductive disorders in cats.
    • Immunosuppression:
      • Symptoms: recurring infections (periodontal disease, upper respiratory tract infections, infections around claws), poor wound healing.
    • Reproductive problems:
      • Aborting, stillbirths, failed pregnancies.
    • Glomerulonephritis:
      • Antigen-antibody complexes in the kidney, leading to renal failure.

    Feline Panleukopenia

    • An acute viral disease lasting for 5 to 7 days.
    • Caused by feline parvovirus, a single-stranded DNA virus.
    • Highly contagious and stable in the environment.
    • Spreads through infected secretions, urine, and feces.
    • Attacks actively dividing cells in the blood and intestinal tract.
    • Symptoms: vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, lethargy, depression, hiding, nasal discharge, conjunctivitis, abdominal pain, fever.
    • Kittens may show neurological symptoms (ataxia, gait abnormalities, vision problems).
    • Diagnosis involves a complete blood count (leukocyte count).

    Small Intestinal Diarrhea

    • Causes: diseases affecting the liver or kidneys, hypoadrenocorticism, parasites (Histoplasmosis or Giardia), bacteria (Salmonella), mycobacteria, exocrine pancreatic insufficiency.

    Aortic Stenosis

    • A condition affecting the dog's aorta.
    • Types:
      • Valvular: narrowing at the aortic valve.
      • Supravalvular: narrowing above the aortic valve.
      • Subaortic: narrowing below the aortic valve.
    • Most common type is subaortic stenosis.
    • The obstruction causes increased stress on the left ventricle.
    • Symptoms: left ventricular hypertrophy, ischemic areas on the myocardium, mitral regurgitation, ventricular arrhythmias.
    • Predisposed breeds: Newfoundland, Boxer, Rottweiler, German Shepherd, Golden Retriever.

    Heartworm

    • Caused by the parasite Dirofilaria immitis.
    • Symptoms vary depending on worm burden, infection duration, immune response, and damage caused.
    • Some dogs may have no symptoms.
    • Other symptoms include: exercise intolerance, coughing, difficulty breathing, lethargy, ascites.
    • Diagnosis involves antigen detection in the blood.

    Canine Ehrlichiosis

    • Caused by the bacterium Ehrlichia canis.
    • Spread by the brown dog tick Rhipicephalus sanguineus.
    • Can be acute or chronic.
    • Symptoms vary depending on the stage of the infection.

    Baylisascaris procyonis

    • Causes significant disease in humans, potentially resulting in permanent damage or death

    Giardia Felis

    • Binucleate, flagellated trophozoite found in the small intestine of cats
    • Forms resistant cysts in the large intestine, which are passed into the environment through feces
    • Infection occurs through fecal-oral contamination and contaminated water
    • Clinical signs include soft and pale diarrhea, weight loss (kittens may fail to gain weight despite normal appetite)
    • Diagnosis involves identifying trophozoites in diarrhea samples using direct saline, centrifugal flotation, and antigen detection assays

    Dirofilaria Immitis

    • Heartworm with a life cycle of six months
    • Adult worms reside in the pulmonary arteries and right ventricles
    • Microfilariae released into the circulatory system are ingested by mosquitos
    • L1 larvae develop into L3 larvae within the mosquito and are deposited into the bite wound of an animal
    • L3 larvae molt into L4 and L5 (adult) larvae, reaching the pulmonary arteries after three months
    • Adults mature sexually after two to three months and migrate to the right ventricle

    Metabolic Acidosis

    • Caused by excessive acid production or insufficient acid removal by the kidneys
    • Characterized by decreased bicarbonate concentration, high hydrogen ion concentration, and low blood pH
    • May result from syndromes causing increased chloride-containing acids, such as diarrhea, medications, fluids, or renal tubular acidosis

    Oral Fibrosarcomas

    • Occur more frequently in larger breed male dogs over seven years of age
    • Radiographs reveal bone lysis in the tumor area
    • Definitive diagnosis requires histopathology of a deep biopsy
    • Treatment involves hemimandibulectomy with wide margins around the tumor

    Salivary Mucocele

    • Occurs when saliva leaks from a damaged salivary duct or gland into surrounding tissues
    • Presents as a soft, fluctuant mass that is usually painless
    • Causes inflammation in the tissues and becomes lined with granulation tissue
    • Classified into four types: sublingual mucoceles (ranula), cervical mucoceles, pharyngeal mucoceles, and zygomatic mucoceles

    Feline Plague

    • Cats are infected by consuming dead rodents infected with Yersinia pestis
    • Manifests in three forms: pneumonic, bubonic, and septicemia
    • Bacteria spread to lymph nodes via lymphatic vessels, causing buboes
    • Septicemia occurs when bacteria spread from lymph nodes to other organs
    • Pneumonic plague can develop from septicemia or inhalation of aerosolized droplets from an infected animal

    Oral Squamous Cell Carcinoma

    • Most common tumor in cats, characterized by malignant growth and bone invasion
    • Affected tissue appears irregular, elevated, necrotic, and ulcerated
    • Locally aggressive but typically doesn't spread to lymph nodes
    • Treatment involves long-term and aggressive antifungal therapy

    Coccidioidomycosis

    • Treated with ketoconazole (10-30 mg/kg three times daily) for one year or amphotericin B (.5 mg/kg IV every other day) until an accumulative dose of 8-10 mg/kg is given

    Chronic Diarrhea in Dogs

    • Categorized as small intestinal or large intestinal diarrhea
    • Small intestinal diarrhea: large-volume, occasional vomiting, melena, weight loss, caused by metabolic disorders, maldigestion, primary small intestinal disease, parasites, infection, diet
    • Large-bowel diarrhea: increased defecation frequency, smaller amounts, blood and mucus in stool, straining, urgency, caused by dietary issues, metabolic disorders, intestinal problems, parasites, infection

    Cruciate Disease

    • Common surgical disease in dogs involving partial or full tear of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
    • Results in lameness, pain, and arthritis
    • Prevalent in obese animals, large breeds, vigorous athletes, luxated patella, poor conformation
    • Caused by acute trauma or ligament degeneration
    • ACL provides stability to the stifle joint, limiting rotation and displacement of the tibia and preventing hyperextension

    Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison’s Disease)

    • Affects young to middle-aged female dogs, with certain breeds having higher risk
    • Characterized by poor response to stress, intermittent gastroenteritis, fulminant gastroenteritis leading to collapse, loss of body conditioning
    • Other signs: lack of appetite, increased drinking and urination, dehydration, hyperpigmentation, depression, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, weakness
    • Diagnosis involves ACTH stimulation test, revealing increased potassium and calcium, low glucose and sodium, azotemia, anemia, eosinophilia, lymphocytosis

    Megaesophagus

    • Dilation of the esophagus, either congenital or acquired
    • Congenital causes include esophageal diverticula or vascular ring anomalies
    • Acquired causes in adults include idiopathic reasons, esophageal lesions, nervous system disorders, myasthenia gravis, polymyositis, hypoadrenocorticism, systemic lupus erythematosus, dysautonomia, hypothyroidism, lead poisoning
    • Primary sign is regurgitation, occurring in puppies as soon as they start eating solid food
    • Adults also regurgitate and lose weight, experiencing respiratory problems due to food aspiration

    Hemangiosarcoma

    • Very malignant tumor originating in endothelial cells
    • May occur due to chronic pancreatitis, idiopathic atrophy of acinar cells, pancreatic duct obstruction, or tumor formation

    Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency

    • Caused by loss of pancreatic function, leading to maldigestion and digestive disturbances
    • Diagnosis based on history, clinical signs (frequent loose stools, diarrhea, weight loss, muscle mass loss), and serum blood testing
    • Signs include large-volume gray or yellow diarrhea, gas production, diarrhea episodes, weight loss, ravenous appetite, cachexia, unthrifty hair coat, pica, coprophagia
    • Hereditary in German Shepherds
    • Serum trypsin-like immunoreactivity testing confirms diagnosis, as trypsin levels are low in cases of insufficiency

    Chronic Small Bowel Diarrhea

    • Differential diagnosis includes small intestinal disease, dietary issues, metabolic disturbances, infectious diseases of the GI tract, and exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
    • Small intestinal disease: caused by bacterial overgrowth, motility disorders, tumors, inflammation, obstructions, congenital abnormalities, lymphangiectasia
    • Dietary intolerances or allergies can also cause diarrhea

    Modified Transudate

    • Occurs when transudate has a higher protein content.
    • Causes include:
      • Hepatic lymph leaking into the transudate
      • Inflammation
    • Other causes include:
      • Liver disease
      • Protein-losing enteropathy
      • Kidney disease
      • Right-sided congestive heart failure
      • Neoplasia
      • Peritonitis
      • Lymphocytic/plasmacytic cholangiohepatitis (in cats)
      • Serious damage to biliary or urinary tract

    Diabetes Mellitus

    • Deficiency in insulin.
      • Type 1: pancreas stops producing insulin
      • Type 2: body does not respond adequately to insulin
    • Leads to:
      • Impaired glucose production and use
      • Hyperglycemia
      • Glucosuria
      • Body uses fat stores for energy, producing ketones, leading to weight loss, fatty liver changes, and ketoacidosis.
    • Clinical signs:
      • Increased drinking and urination
      • Increased hunger
      • Weight loss
      • Overweight (predisposition to developing diabetes)
      • Off feed, vomiting, listless
      • Liver swelling (and jaundice in cats)
      • Trunk muscle wasting
      • Oily, dandruff-laden hair coat (especially common in cats)
      • Cataracts (in dogs)
      • Diabetic neuropathy (plantigrade stance in cats)
    • Blood testing:
      • High glucose levels
      • Increases in ALT, AST, and SAP
      • Increased cholesterol levels
      • Increased blood fat

    Ketoacidosis

    • Life-threatening emergency in dogs and cats with poorly regulated diabetes mellitus.
    • Caused by lack of insulin, resulting in increased fat mobilization from body stores.
    • Metabolism of fat leads to ketone body formation and blood becoming acidic.

    Clostridium Perfringens

    • Causes clostridial enterotoxicosis in dogs and cats.
    • Releases enterotoxin into the intestine, binding to the mucosa, causing cell damage and death.
    • Symptoms:
      • Large bowel diarrhea (frequent small amounts of bloody stool with mucus) for about one week.
      • Chronic cases with intermittent periods of large bowel diarrhea.
      • Increased gas, vomiting, abdominal pain, and generalized ill health.
    • Treatment:
      • Manipulating diet to reduce clostridial numbers and acidify the colon (high in soluble and insoluble fiber)
      • Antibiotic therapy

    Coccidiosis Infection

    • Isospora canis causes coccidiosis in dogs
    • Isospora felis causes coccidiosis in cats
    • Symptoms:
      • Loose, watery stool (possibly with mucus)
      • Blood in the stool
      • Weakness (in puppies)
    • Diagnosis:
      • Fecal examination reveals oocysts.
    • Treatment:
      • Sulfadimethoxine (loading dose of 55 mg/kg by mouth for the first day, followed by 27.5 mg/kg for four days)
      • Fenbendazole (50 mg/kg once daily for three days)
      • Albendazole (25 mg/kg twice daily for two days)

    Acute Diarrhea

    • Causes:
      • Parasitic (coccidia, ascarids, hookworms, Giardia, Strongyloides)
      • Drug- and toxin-induced
      • Infectious (Rickettsia, Salmonella, Campylobacter, Bacillus piriformis, E. coli, Clostridial spp., Yersinia, funguses, rotavirus, coronavirus, parvovirus)
      • Dietary (lactose or excess fat, abrupt food changes, eating garbage or spoiled food, overeating)
      • Miscellaneous (antibiotics, analgesics, pesticides, insecticides)

    Cataracts

    • Most common cause of blindness in dogs, affecting dogs over five years old.
    • Common breeds: Labrador retriever, cocker spaniel, Boston terrier, poodle, Bichon Frise, miniature Schnauzer
    • Differentiate from nuclear sclerosis (normal aging) or lens imperfections in younger dogs.
    • Treatment:
      • Lens removal

    Retinal Detachment

    • Retina detaches from underlying tissues.
    • Types:
      • Rhegmatogenous: tear or break in the retina allows fluid to flow under it, separating it from the retinal pigment epithelium (RPE)
      • Tractional: scar tissue on the retina contracts and separates it from the RPE
      • Exudative: eye disease (inflammation or trauma) causes fluid to leak under the retina without breaks or tears

    Oral Tumors

    • Occur in dogs; benign or malignant.
    • Benign tumors in dogs:
      • Epulis (tumor arising from the periodontal ligament)
      • Generally solitary and located around the molars.
      • Smooth surface and closely adhered to the bone.
    • Benign tumors in cats:
      • Eosinophilic granulomas
    • Malignant tumors (dogs and cats):
      • Squamous cell carcinoma
      • Malignant melanoma
      • Fibrosarcomas
    • Fibrosarcomas:
      • Second most common malignant oral tumor in cats.
      • Third most common malignant oral tumor in dogs.
      • Locally aggressive tumor that invades bone but tends not to spread.
      • Resembles a red growth on the gingival surface that may be necrotic or ulcerated.

    Feline Leukemia Virus (FeLV)

    • Most common cause of cancer in cats.
    • Attacks the immune system, leaving cats vulnerable to opportunistic infections.
    • Symptoms:
      • Gingivitis and stomatitis
      • Recurring infections of the bladder, upper respiratory tract, and skin
      • Constant fever
      • Anorexia
      • Weight loss
      • Generalized lymphadenopathy
      • Unkempt appearance
      • Constant diarrhea
      • Signs attributable to the CNS
      • Ocular infections or problems
      • Reproductive failure or abortion in intact females
    • Diagnosis:
      • Complete examination to rule out other diseases.
      • ELISA test (detects primary and secondary stages of viremia)
      • IFA test (positively identifies persistently infected cats)
      • Both tests detect the p27 FeLV antigen.

    Neoplastic FeLV

    • One of the disease manifestations of FeLV infection.
    • Lymphosarcoma:
      • Gastrointestinal tract (masses in intestines and Mesenteric lymph nodes)
      • Bone marrow (cancerous lymphocytes cause generalized lymph node enlargement, spleen, and liver enlargement)
      • Multicentric form (in young cats, causes kidney cancer, liver and spleen enlargement)
      • Thymus (cancerous, causing difficulty with breathing and eating)
    • Myeloid leukemia:
      • Affects various bone marrow cells, causing lymph node, liver, and spleen enlargement.

    Canine Parvovirus

    • Feline panleukopenia virus antigen is detected on the canine parvovirus antigen fecal immunoassay.
    • Serological testing on paired serum samples can also help with diagnosis.

    Periodontal Disease

    • Very common in cats over six years old.
    • Stages:
      • Stage 1: gingivitis (accumulation of plaque)
      • Stage 2: advanced gingivitis (reversible)
      • Stage 3: first stage of advanced periodontal disease (gingival inflammation and deep pocket formation)
      • Stage 4: deeper pockets, bone loss, loose teeth
      • Stage 5: only treatment option is tooth removal

    Odontoclastic Resorptive Lesions

    • Common dental lesions in cats; very painful.
    • Symptoms:
      • Loss of dental tissue at the neck or crown of the tooth
      • Various stages of dental tissue resorption
      • Bright red gingival inflammation
    • Cause:
      • Unknown, but may involve increased activity of odontoclasts.
    • Stages:
      • Lesions only on enamel
      • Lesions extending into dentin
      • Lesions extending into pulp
      • Lesions causing crown destruction
    • Treatment:
      • Extraction is recommended once lesions reach dentin.

    Canine Specific Coccidioidomycosis

    • Fungal infection caused by Coccidioides immitis.
    • Found in dogs.
    • Spores found in arid regions of the southwestern United States.
    • Symptoms:
      • Fever
      • Weakness
      • Lack of appetite
      • Coughing
      • Listlessness
      • Painful and stiff joints

    Infertility in Swine

    • Brucella suis (brucellosis) causes embryonic death, abortion, infertility, and orchitis in boars. It is spread through breeding.
    • Porcine parvovirus causes infertility, mummification, and stillbirth in naive herds. Immunity generally develops after herd infection.
    • Hog cholera causes embryonic death, abortion, mummification, stillbirths, decreased litter size, and weak piglets in pregnant sows.
    • Pseudorabies causes abortion 10 to 20 days after signs of illness in pregnant sows.
    • Leptospirosis pomona causes abortions during the last month of pregnancy, even if the sow appears normal.
    • Smedi virus causes abortions, mummification, stillbirths, infertility, weak piglets, and decreased litter size.

    Pseudorabies

    • Caused by a DNA herpesvirus.
    • Highly fatal in swine and can affect other animals.
    • Reportable disease in the USA.
    • Signs are similar to rabies.
    • Dogs and cats are dead-end hosts and die within days of infection.
    • Spread by direct contact or inhaling the virus.
    • Virus can travel up to a mile and survive for days in certain conditions.
    • Inactivated by high temperatures, drying, and sunlight.
    • Replicates in the nose, tonsils, and pharynx.
    • Neonatal pigs show CNS signs (tremors, convulsions) leading to death.
    • Older piglets show respiratory signs (anorexia, sneezing, fever, weight loss, difficulty breathing).

    Baylisascaris Procyonis

    • Ascarid parasite of raccoons that infects dogs.
    • Adult worms live in the raccoon's small intestine, eggs pass in feces.
    • Embryonate in the soil to the infective stage.
    • Raccoons ingest eggs or infected hosts.
    • Dogs can be hosts to the adult worm or paratenic hosts, developing neurological signs (ataxia, blindness, paresis, death).
    • Canine infections can be treated with piperazine, ivermectin, fenbendazole, moxidectin, pyrantel, or albendazole.
    • Dogs can be carriers and transmit the disease to humans.

    Infective Endocarditis

    • Signs include heart murmur, pyrexia, shifting leg lameness, exercise intolerance, lethargy, cough, and respiratory distress.
    • Hyperdynamic femoral arterial pulses might be present if the aortic valve is involved.
    • Diagnosis and treatment can be difficult.
    • Laboratory testing may reveal an active infection (left-shift leukogram, neutrophilia, monocytosis) or a chronic infection (normal leukogram or mature neutrophilia with monocytosis).
    • Other test results might reveal thrombocytopenia, low albumin, low glucose, or high SAP activity.
    • Urinalysis may reveal proteinuria, casts, hematuria, or pyuria indicating pyelonephritis or glomerulonephritis.
    • Blood cultures should be performed to identify the responsible bacteria.
    • Echocardiography reveals aortic valve endocarditis.
    • Chest x-rays may show enlarged heart chambers or a defective valve.

    Skin Lesions

    • Classified to accurately diagnose skin conditions.
    • Macule: reddened or hyperpigmented discoloration, less than 1 cm in diameter.
    • Papule: discrete, small, firm elevation of the skin surface.
    • Comedones: blackened blockages of follicles, similar to a human blackhead.
    • Pustule: elevated, reddened pus-filled bump.
    • Nodule: large (greater than 1 cm) solid lump elevated above the skin.
    • Erosions and ulcers: breaks in the skin with a slightly depressed area.
    • Ulcer: erodes deeper than an erosion, reaching the basement membrane.
    • Sinus: infection that has eroded through the basement membrane.

    Flea Bite Hypersensitivity

    • Commonly caused by Ctenocephalides felis (cat flea) in cats and dogs.
    • Causes feline miliary dermatitis.
    • Flea injects saliva rich in allergens (amino acids, histamine-like compounds, polypeptides) causing hypersensitivity reactions (basophil, Type I, and Type IV).
    • Dogs previously unexposed develop IgE and IgG anti-flea antibodies.

    Chronic Diarrhea in Cats

    • Parasites: Toxoplasma gondii, Cryptosporidium, Dirofilaria immitis, Toxocara cati, Giardia.
    • Fungus infections: aspergillosis, histoplasmosis, mycobacteria, phycomycosis.
    • Inflammatory conditions: granulomatous enteritis, lymphoplasmacytic enterocolitis, eosinophilic enteritis/hypereosinophilic syndrome.
    • Obstructions: cancer, foreign bodies, strictures, intussusception.
    • Infectious agents: viruses (feline leukemia virus, feline infectious peritonitis virus, feline immunodeficiency virus), bacteria (Salmonella, Yersinia, Clostridium, Campylobacter).
    • Metabolic disorders: hyperthyroidism, diabetes, kidney and liver disease.
    • Diets: sudden changes, intolerances, garbage eating.

    Cryptococcosis

    • Disease of cats manifesting as upper respiratory signs (rhinitis, nasal discharge), eye signs (retinal detachment, dilated pupils, optic nerve inflammation, chorioretinitis), skin lesions, or neurological disease.
    • Respiratory signs are most common.
    • Caused by inhalation of Cryptococcus neoformans, a yeast-like organism found in bird droppings (especially pigeons) and soil.
    • It can survive in soil for up to two years.
    • Treatment with antifungals: itraconazole or fluconazole for one to two months after clinical signs resolve.

    Cytauxzoonosis

    • Infection with the protozoa Cytauxzoon felis.
    • Rare disease spread by tick bites (Dermacentor variabilis).
    • Occurs in bobcats and Florida panthers.
    • The organism affects the vascular systems of many organs: brain, bone marrow, lungs, kidneys, liver, and spleen.
    • Clinical signs appear 1-3 weeks after infection.
    • Cats are severely ill with anemia, fever, dehydration, depression, enlarged spleen and liver, and icterus.

    Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP)

    • Develops based on the immune response to infection.
    • Wet form: weak cell-mediated response, sero fibrinous peritonitis or pleuritis due to vasculitis, causing effusion around the heart and ascites, leading to abdominal enlargement.
    • Dry form: moderate cell-mediated response, granulomatous reaction involving internal organs, eye, and brain.
    • Carriers: healthy or recover due to a strong cell-mediated response.
    • Signs vary depending on the form of the disease.
    • General symptoms: malaise, anorexia, fever, weight loss, unkempt hair coat.
    • Wet form: fluid accumulation (ascites).
    • Dry form: granulomas in internal organs, eye, and brain.
    • Diagnosis can be difficult, but strongly suspected if a cat has a fever unresponsive to antibiotic therapy.
    • Diagnostic tests are not specific enough to differentiate between pathogenic and enteric coronavirus.
    • Definitive diagnosis through biopsy of necropsy samples.

    Feline Leukemia Virus (FeLV)

    • Retrovirus causing persistent infection in less than 2% of infected cats.
    • Three subtypes: A, B, and C.
    • Cats spread subtype A.
    • Virus invades tonsils and pharyngeal lymph nodes, infecting B lymphocytes and macrophages, spreading to various tissues.
    • Inserts copies of its genetic material into host cells using reverse transcriptase.
    • Most cats' immune systems eliminate the virus, some remain viremic temporarily and recover without signs of infection.
    • 2% unable to mount an immune response remain viremic and develop diseases associated with FeLV.
    • Signs vary depending on the affected body tissues.

    Non-Neoplastic FeLV

    • Can cause immunosuppression, glomerulonephritis, or reproductive disorders.
    • Immunosuppression: recurring infections (periodontal disease, upper respiratory tract infections, infections around claws), poor wound healing, chronic infections with viruses, bacteria, and fungi.
    • Reproductive disorders: abortions, stillbirths, failure to maintain pregnancy in unspayed females.
    • Kittens born to infected mothers: weakness, sickness, fading kitten syndrome.
    • Glomerulonephritis: antigen-antibody complexes lodged in the kidneys leading to renal failure.

    Feline Panleukopenia

    • Acute viral disease lasting 5-7 days.
    • Caused by feline parvovirus, a single-stranded DNA virus.
    • Highly contagious and the virus is stable in the environment.
    • Spread via infected secretions, urine, and feces.
    • Attacks actively dividing cells in blood and intestinal tract, causing vomiting and diarrhea, leading to dehydration and lethargy.
    • Most white blood cells are lost, leukocyte counts drop to 500-3000 cells/microl.
    • If a pregnant cat is infected, the virus attacks the fetal/neonatal nervous system.
    • Destroys cells of the cerebellum and retina.
    • Strikes suddenly in unvaccinated cats.
    • Symptoms: extreme depression, hiding, dehydration, vomiting, diarrhea, nasal discharge, conjunctivitis, abdominal pain, fever.
    • Kittens: infected in utero or after birth, display CNS symptoms (ataxia, gait abnormalities, vision problems).
    • Differential diagnoses: intestinal foreign bodies, feline infectious peritonitis, poisonings, herpesvirus infection, feline calicivirus, salmonellosis, feline leukemia virus infection.
    • Laboratory testing reveals severe panleukopenia (500-3000 cells/microl leukocytes).

    Ear Mites

    • Kittens often have scratch marks near their ears due to intense itching.
    • A diagnosis can be made by examining ear swabs under a microscope with mineral oil.
    • Treatment involves cleaning the ears, applying topical medication, and treating the environment with pesticides.
    • Ivermectin can also be used off-label.

    Chlamydia Psittaci

    • This bacterium causes a chronic respiratory infection in cats, particularly kittens aged two to six months.
    • It multiplies in the upper and lower respiratory tract, causing symptoms like bronchitis, bronchiolitis, and rhinitis.
    • Chlamydia can also colonize the reproductive and gastrointestinal tracts.
    • Symptoms include coughing, sneezing, and watery eyes.
    • Pneumonia may also occur.
    • Tetracycline drugs are the treatment of choice.

    Biliary Tract Disease

    • Cholangitis and cholangiohepatitis are inflammations of the biliary ducts, intrahepatic ducts, and liver in cats.
    • There are three main types: Lymphocytic, lymphocytic-plasmacytic, and suppurative.
    • Lymphocytic and lymphocytic-plasmacytic types are caused by immune reactions.
    • Suppurative type is often caused by bacterial infection.
    • Many cats with this condition also have inflammatory bowel disease, cholecystitis, or pancreatitis.
    • Stasis (bile blockage) is more common in middle-aged or older cats.

    Chronic Diarrhea in Cats

    • Chronic diarrhea in cats can be caused by various factors, including parasites, fungus, inflammatory diseases, obstructions, infections, metabolic disorders, and dietary causes.

    Heartworm in Cats

    • Adult heartworms live in cats for 18 to 24 months.
    • The average worm burden is one to three worms, and most cats do not experience significant pulmonary hypertension or heart problems.
    • Most symptoms are related to the lungs, as the adult larva (L5) develops in the pulmonary arteries and caudal lung lobes.
    • Most L5 larva dies, causing inflammation and an eosinophilic response.
    • This inflammation can lead to asthma-like symptoms such as coughing and difficulty breathing.

    Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV)

    • FIV is a lentivirus similar to HIV but doesn't infect humans.
    • It spreads primarily through bite wounds, as the virus is present in saliva.
    • Pregnancies pose a transmission risk to kittens through the uterus or milk.
    • Infection results in lifelong viral presence.
    • Cats with FIV become very prone to infections due to immune system suppression.
    • Initial infection often leads to fever, lymph node swelling, and neutropenia.
    • The cat may appear normal for months to years before further signs emerge.
    • Signs include gingivitis, stomatitis, weight loss, unkempt hair, anorexia, and fever.
    • The virus reproduces in T-lymphocytes within the lymph nodes.

    Babesiosis

    • Babesiosis is a disease caused by the parasite Babesia.
    • Diagnosis is based on identifying Babesia in the blood, which can be challenging.
    • Other diagnostic tests include titers, Coombs testing, and indirect fluorescent antibody tests.

    Blastomycosis

    • Blastomycosis is a systemic fungal infection caused by Blastomyces dermatitidis that affects the lungs, male genitalia, eyes, and skin of dogs.
    • Hunting or sporting breeds are more prone to acquiring this fungus.
    • Skin lesions manifest as abscesses, thickened areas with fluid discharge, and ulcers.
    • Osteomyelitis (bone infection) can occur if the skin infection spreads to bone.
    • Male dogs may experience lesions on the testicles or an enlarged prostate.
    • Ocular infection presents as uveitis.
    • Respiratory tract involvement leads to difficulty breathing, fever, coughing, enlarged lymph nodes, pneumonia, and weight loss.

    Bordetella Bronchiseptica

    • Kennel cough or infectious tracheobronchitis is caused by Bordetella bronchiseptica, a major respiratory pathogen in dogs.
    • It's a gram-negative bacterium transmitted through air and contaminated objects.
    • Bacteria colonize respiratory tract epithelial cells, releasing toxins that harm the respiratory tract and suppress the immune system.
    • The primary symptom is a hacking, dry cough that worsens with exercise or throat palpation.
    • The disease is often self-limiting, but antibiotics and other medications can help manage symptoms.
    • Effective antibiotics include erythromycin, azithromycin, tetracycline, clarithromycin, chloramphenicol, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, and cephalosporins.
    • Bronchodilators and antitussives can help control coughing.
    • Vaccinations are available intranasally or injectable.

    Canine Distemper

    • Canine distemper is diagnosed based on clinical signs and laboratory testing.
    • Symptoms vary from no visible signs to severe disease with central nervous system involvement.

    Pancreatic Insufficiency

    • Pancreatic insufficiency can be caused by chronic pancreatitis, idiopathic atrophy of pancreatic acinar cells, and rarely, pancreatic duct obstruction or tumors.
    • Damage to the pancreas leads to reduced production of lipase, trypsin, amylase, and bicarbonate, resulting in nutrient malabsorption.
    • Symptoms include frequent, large-volume gray or yellow diarrhea, gas, diarrhea episodes, weight loss, ravenous appetite, and cachexia.
    • Other signs include unthrifty hair coat, pica, and coprophagia.
    • This condition is often hereditary in German Shepherds.

    Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency

    • Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency is caused by loss of pancreatic function, leading to maldigestion and digestive disturbances.
    • Diagnosis is based on history, clinical signs, and blood testing.
    • Blood and chemistry tests are usually normal.
    • High blood and urine glucose with exocrine pancreatic insufficiency suggests concurrent diabetes mellitus.
    • Some dogs have low levels of Vitamin B12 (cobalamin), Vitamin A, and Vitamin E.
    • Definitive diagnosis involves measuring serum trypsin-like immunoreactivity after fasting, as low levels indicate pancreatic insufficiency.

    Chronic Small Bowel Diarrhea in Dogs

    • Chronic small bowel diarrhea can be caused by various factors categorized into five broad categories:
      • Small intestinal disease: bacterial overgrowth, motility disorders, tumors, inflammation, obstructions, congenital abnormalities, and lymphangiectasia.
      • Dietary issues: intolerances or food allergies.
      • Metabolic disturbances: various causes including hypothyroidism.
      • Infectious diseases of the gastrointestinal tract: various infections.
      • Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency: as discussed previously.

    Hypothyroidism

    • Hypothyroidism in dogs is characterized by a lack of thyroid hormone production.
    • Symptoms include lethargy, weight gain, hair loss, and skin thickening.
    • Diagnosis is made through blood testing to measure thyroid hormone levels.
    • Treatment involves replacing thyroxine (T4) at a dose of 0.01 to 0.02 mg/lb daily, divided into two doses.

    Equine Passive Stay Apparatus

    • The horse has a passive stay apparatus on both front and rear legs that allows for prolonged standing without significant muscular effort.
    • The stay apparatus consists of tendons and ligaments that stabilize joints, preventing flexion.
    • It comprises three parts: interosseus, proximal sesamoid bones, and sesamoidean ligaments.
    • The shoulder, elbow, and carpal joints are stabilized by pressure on muscles and ligaments.
    • The pastern and fetlock joints are overextended to prevent the fetlock from drooping.

    Spinal Cord

    • The spinal cord runs within the spinal canal, formed by vertebrae, intervertebral ligaments, and discs.
    • It consists of gray matter and white matter.
    • White matter branches into ventral and dorsal roots, combining to form spinal nerves.
    • Spinal nerves and blood vessels exit through intervertebral foramina.
    • The spinal cord is covered by three membranes: dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.
    • The dura mater has two layers: periosteum and investing layer.
    • The arachnoid mater is the middle layer, and the pia mater is the innermost layer.

    Clostridial Enterotoxicosis

    • Clostridium perfringens causes large bowel diarrhea in dogs and cats
    • The bacteria releases an enterotoxin that damages intestinal cells
    • Symptoms include bloody diarrhea, gas, vomiting, abdominal pain, and general malaise
    • Treatment involves diet modification, antibiotics, and acidifying the colon

    Coccidiosis

    • Isospora canis causes coccidiosis in dogs, while Isospora felis infects cats
    • Symptoms include watery diarrhea, possibly with mucus and blood
    • Puppies may become weakened
    • Treatment options include sulfadimethoxine, fenbendazole, and albendazole

    Acute Diarrhea

    • Many causes of acute diarrhea, including parasitic, drug/toxin-induced, infectious, dietary, and miscellaneous
    • Parasites implicated: coccidia, ascarids, hookworms, Giardia, and Strongyloides
    • Infectious pathogens: Rickettsia, Salmonella, Campylobacter, Bacillus piriformis, E. coli, Clostridial spp., Yersinia, funguses, rotavirus, coronavirus, and parvovirus
    • Dietary causes: lactose or excess fat in food, sudden food changes, garbage/spoiled food, overeating
    • Drugs and toxins can also cause acute diarrhea

    Glaucoma

    • Leading cause of vision loss in dogs and cats
    • Increased ocular pressure damages the optic nerve
    • Primary glaucoma is often genetic
    • Secondary glaucoma develops due to other eye conditions
    • Signs include eye redness, dilated pupil, corneal edema, eye enlargement, pain, and lens luxation
    • Open angle glaucoma develops slowly
    • Narrow angle glaucoma causes sudden pressure increases
    • Beagles are prone to open angle glaucoma

    Cataracts

    • Opacity of the lens or its capsule
    • Often present in both eyes
    • Causes include genetic defects, diabetes mellitus, trauma, neoplasia, and chronic uveitis

    Chronic Diarrhea in Cats

    • Parasites: Toxoplasma gondii, Cryptosporidium, Dirofilaria immitis, Toxocara cati, and Giardia
    • Fungus infections: aspergillosis, histoplasmosis, mycobacteria, and phycomycosis
    • Inflammatory conditions: granulomatous enteritis, lymphoplasmacytic enterocolitis, and eosinophilic enteritis/hypereosinophilic syndrome
    • Obstructions from cancer, foreign bodies, strictures, or intussusception
    • Viruses: feline leukemia virus, feline infectious peritonitis virus, and feline immunodeficiency virus
    • Bacteria: Salmonella, Yersinia, Clostridium, and Campylobacter
    • Metabolic disorders: hyperthyroidism, diabetes, and kidney/liver disease
    • Dietary changes, intolerances, and garbage eating

    Cryptococcosis

    • Upper respiratory signs (rhinitis, nasal discharge)
    • Eye signs (retinal detachment, dilated pupils, optic nerve inflammation, chorioretinitis)
    • Skin lesions and neurological disease
    • Caused by Cryptococcus neoformans, a yeastlike fungus
    • Found in bird droppings, especially pigeons, and soil
    • Treatment with antifungals: itraconazole or fluconazole

    Cytauxzoonosis

    • Infection with the protozoa Cytauxzoon felis
    • Spread by tick bites (Dermacentor variabilis)
    • Affects bobcats and Florida panthers
    • Affects vascular systems of many organs: brain, bone marrow, lungs, kidneys, liver, and spleen
    • Symptoms: anemia, fever, dehydration, depression, enlarged spleen and liver, and icterus

    Periodontal Disease

    • Common in cats over six years old
    • Classified into five stages: gingivitis, advanced gingivitis, advanced periodontal disease, bone loss, and teeth removal
    • Stage 1: gingivitis due to plaque accumulation
    • Stage 2: advanced gingivitis, reversible
    • Stage 3: gingival inflammation and deep pocket formation
    • Stage 4: deeper pockets, bone loss, loose teeth
    • Stage 5: teeth removal for pain relief and infection control

    Odontoclastic Resorptive Lesions

    • Common and painful dental lesions in cats
    • Loss of dental tissue at the neck or crown
    • Bright red gingival inflammation
    • Painful response when stimulated
    • Drooling and loss of appetite
    • Cause unknown, but odontoclasts are suspected
    • Classified into five stages: enamel, dentin, pulp, crown destruction
    • Extraction recommended once lesions reach dentin

    Canine Coccidioidomycosis

    • Fungal infection caused by Coccidioides immitis
    • Found in arid regions of the southwestern United States
    • Spores inhaled, causing disease
    • Symptoms: fever, weakness, lack of appetite, coughing, listlessness, joint pain, and stiffness

    Nasal Dermatoses

    • Common causes: demodicosis, contact dermatitis, dermatophytosis, nasal pyoderma, discoid lupus erythematosus, dermatomyositis, systemic lupus erythematosus, squamous cell carcinoma, basal cell carcinoma, fibrosarcoma, trauma, zinc-responsive dermatosis, pemphigus foliaceus, pemphigus erythematosus, drug sensitivity, and granulomas
    • Breed predilections: Alaska malamutes, Siberian huskies, collies, German shepherds, Shetland sheep dogs

    Atopy

    • Common condition in dogs
    • Develops in the first years of life
    • Hypersensitivity to environmental allergens: molds, pollens, dust mites, animal dander
    • IgE-mediated reaction
    • Seasonal or year-round
    • Differentials: flea bite hypersensitivity, food allergy, contact dermatitis, yeast allergy/infection, mange

    Babesiosis

    • Caused by the protozoan Babesia gibsoni
    • Causes severe red blood cell disease in dogs
    • Babesia canis causes mild disease in adults but can kill puppies
    • Symptoms: anorexia, pale mucous membranes, listlessness, fever, vomiting, discolored urine, increased heart and respiration rate, enlarged spleen, and icterus
    • Blood work shows hemolytic anemia: spherocytes, anisocytosis, and polychromasia

    Ketoacidosis

    • The body is unable to maintain proper fluid and electrolyte balance which causes azotemia, electrolyte issues, and dehydration.
    • Untreated ketoacidosis in diabetic animals can be fatal.
    • Increased drinking, urination, lack of appetite, lethargy, vomiting, dehydration, low body temperature, and weakness are signs of ketoacidosis.
    • Underlying health issues like kidney and heart disease, pancreatitis, infection, and poor diabetes management can contribute to ketoacidosis.

    Congestive Heart Failure

    • Congestive heart failure (CHF) can affect either the left or right side of the heart.
    • Left-sided CHF causes blood to pool in the pulmonary circulation, depriving the body of adequate blood flow.
    • It can lead to disturbances in heart rhythm like atrial tachycardia, ventricular tachycardia, atrial fibrillation, and AV block.
    • Common causes of left-sided CHF include idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy, subaortic stenosis, hypertension, pericarditis, endocarditis, mitral valve dysplasia, septal defects, cardiomyopathy, thromboembolism, and patent ductus arteriosus.
    • Right-sided CHF can be caused by parasitic load, structural defects, toxins, infections, or tumors.
    • Heartworm disease, lung disease, stenosis of pulmonary veins, tumors, Tetralogy of Fallot, and pulmonary hypertension increase pressure on the right side of the heart.
    • Idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy and doxorubicin toxicity can lead to right-sided CHF.
    • Tricuspid stenosis, tumors, pericarditis, or pericardial effusion can hinder the filling of the right ventricle.
    • AV blocks and supraventricular tachycardia can cause right-sided CHF.

    Syncope

    • Syncope is caused by insufficient blood flow to the brain leading to temporary loss of consciousness and postural tone.
    • Cardiovascular problems such as cardiomyopathy, infections, narrowed arteries or veins in the heart or lung, embolism, tumors, or heartworm disease can cause syncope.
    • Nervous system or vasomotor problems like emotional stress, carotid sinus hyperactivity, drugs, hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia, or vascular disease can also lead to syncope.
    • Syncope should be differentiated from neuromuscular diseases like myasthenia gravis and musculoskeletal diseases which can cause collapse but not loss of consciousness.

    Cough Reflex

    • Coughing is triggered by the stimulation of vagus nerve endings in the larynx, trachea, and bronchi or the glossopharyngeal nerves in the pharynx.
    • Coughs are classified into three categories: those caused by upper respiratory tract (URT) diseases, those caused by lower respiratory tract (LRT) diseases, and those caused by diseases of the esophagus or pleura.
    • URT diseases that cause coughing include infections, tumors, or foreign bodies in the nasal passages, pharynx, larynx, or trachea, or tracheal collapse.
    • LRT diseases that cause coughing include bronchial infections, inflammation, tumors, or allergies, lung infections, tumors, or edema, aspiration of foreign bodies or substances, congestive heart failure, heartworm disease, pulmonary emboli or thrombi, or pulmonary hypertension.

    Infective Endocarditis

    • Infective endocarditis is an infection of the mural endocardium or heart valves.
    • It requires pre-existing pathology in the valve/endocardium allowing bloodborne bacteria to invade and colonize.
    • This infection causes valve destruction and valvular insufficiency.
    • The mitral and aortic valves are commonly affected in horses and dogs, while the tricuspid valve is more commonly affected in cattle.
    • Left-sided congestive heart failure can occur within months if the aortic valve is involved.
    • Treatment involves long-term and aggressive use of antifungals.

    Chronic Diarrhea

    • Chronic diarrhea in dogs requires determining the origin of the diarrhea - small intestinal or large intestinal.
    • Small intestinal diarrhea is characterized by large-volume diarrhea, occasional vomiting, melena, and weight loss.
    • Causes of small intestinal diarrhea include metabolic disorders, maldigestion, primary disease of the small intestine, parasites, infection, and diet.
    • Large-bowel diarrhea is characterized by increased defecation frequency, smaller amounts of stool, blood and mucus in the stool, straining, and urgent need to defecate.
    • Causes of large-bowel diarrhea include dietary causes, metabolic disorders, intestinal inflammation, cancer, parasites, or infection.

    Cruciate Disease

    • Cruciate disease is a common surgical condition in dogs affecting the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL).
    • Partial or full ACL tears lead to lameness, pain, and arthritis.
    • Obese animals, large breeds, vigorous athletes, luxated patella, and poor confirmation are more predisposed to ACL tears.
    • Acute trauma or ligament degeneration can cause cruciate disease.
    • The ACL provides stability to the stifle joint by limiting rotation and displacement of the tibia and preventing hyperextension.
    • ACL tears are often caused by traumatic forces that cause hyperextension or forceful rotation of the stifle.

    Pododermatitis

    • Pododermatitis, also known as interdigital dermatitis, can affect one or multiple paws.
    • The cause can be unknown (idiopathic).
    • In single-paw cases, suspected causes include neoplastic conditions, embedded foreign bodies, or osteomyelitis.
    • Multiple-paw cases can be caused by systemic diseases such as parasitic infections, metabolic diseases, fungal or bacterial infections, allergic reactions, chemical burns, trauma, immune system problems, or low zinc levels.

    Dermatomyositis

    • Dermatomyositis is an inherited disease in dogs, primarily affecting collies, Shetland sheepdogs, and their crosses.
    • It causes skin lesions ranging from mild to severe and muscle atrophy.
    • Sunlight, stress, or factors related to the female reproductive cycle can trigger it.
    • Lesions typically appear between 2-6 months of age on bony prominences, the tail tip, face, and inner tips of the ears.
    • Lesions present with redness, scaling, hair loss, ulceration, and crusting.
    • Muscle inflammation can range from mild lameness to impaired muscle function for eating, drinking, and swallowing.

    Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's Disease)

    • Hypoadrenocorticism involves insufficient production of cortisol and aldosterone from the adrenal glands.
    • It is essential for glucose metabolism, blood pressure regulation, immune function, insulin release, and inflammatory response.
    • Aldosterone increases sodium and water reabsorption and potassium release in the kidneys, maintaining blood pressure.
    • Young to middle-aged female dogs are more susceptible.
    • Breeds with higher risk include Portuguese water dogs, poodles, Rottweilers, Great Danes, West Highland white terriers, and Wheaton terriers.
    • Signs include poor response to stress, intermittent or fulminant gastroenteritis leading to collapse, loss of body conditioning, lack of appetite, increased drinking and urination, dehydration, hyperpigmentation, depression, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and/or weakness.
    • Laboratory diagnosis reveals increased potassium and calcium levels, low glucose and sodium levels, azotemia, anemia, eosinophilia, and lymphocytosis.
    • ACTH stimulation test confirms Addison's disease.

    Megaesophagus

    • Megaesophagus is a dilation of the esophagus, either congenital or acquired.
    • Congenital causes include esophageal diverticula, vascular ring anomalies, or idiopathic dilation.
    • Acquired causes in adult animals include idiopathic causes, esophageal lesions, nervous system disorders, myasthenia gravis, polymyositis, hypoadrenocorticism, systemic lupus erythematosus, dysautonomia, hypothyroidism, or lead poisoning.
    • The primary sign is regurgitation.
    • Puppies may be smaller than littermates and regurgitate after beginning solid food.
    • Adult animals also regurgitate and lose weight.
    • Both experience respiratory problems due to food aspiration.

    Hemangiosarcoma

    • Canine hemangiosarcoma is a highly malignant tumor originating in the endothelial cells.

    Metabolic Acidosis

    • Occurs due to an increase in acid or a decrease in bicarbonate in the blood
    • Caused by conditions like diabetic ketoacidosis, toxic substance ingestion, renal failure, lactic acidosis, and hyperphosphatemia
    • Can be diagnosed via blood serum chemistry
    • Anion gap calculated as AG= (Na +K)-(HCO3+Cl)
    • High or normal anion gap may indicate diseases like hypoadrenocorticism, diarrhea, diabetes ketoacidosis, kidney failure, and lactic acidosis
    • IV therapy with lactated Ringer's solution with or without sodium bicarbonate may be used to correct metabolic acidosis

    ALT and AST

    • Elevated levels of ALT and AST indicate liver damage
    • ALT is a liver-specific enzyme and also found in muscle and brain
    • AST is found in the liver, lungs, kidneys, brain, muscles, and erythrocytes
    • High levels should be evaluated with other serum chemistry tests and whole blood cell counts

    Ascites

    • Collection of serous fluid in the abdomen
    • Can be transudate or modified transudate
    • Transudate is low-protein fluid and exits due to increased hydrostatic or oncotic pressure
    • May be caused by feline infectious peritonitis (FIP)

    Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP)

    • Caused by a coronavirus infection
    • Develops according to the immune system's response to infection
    • Two forms: "wet" caused by a weak cell-mediated response and "dry" caused by a moderate cell-mediated response
    • General symptoms: malaise, anorexia, fever, weight loss, unkempt hair coat
    • "Wet" form causes serofibrinous peritonitis or pleuritis, leading to fluid accumulation in the abdomen and around the heart
    • "Dry" form causes a granulomatous reaction involving internal organs, eye, and/or brain
    • Diagnosis is difficult, but should be suspected if a cat has a fever unresponsive to antibiotics
    • Definitive diagnosis requires biopsy or necropsy

    Feline Leukemia Virus (FeLV)

    • A retrovirus that causes persistent infection in less than 2% of cats
    • Three subtypes: A, B, and C; cats spread subtype A
    • Infects B lymphocytes and macrophages, spreading to various body tissues
    • Most cats eliminate the virus, some remain viremic for a period but recover without any sign of infection
    • The 2% who cannot mount an immune response remain viremic and may develop disease conditions associated with FeLV

    Hemangiosarcoma

    • A malignant tumor of the blood vessels
    • Dogs are more prone than other animal species
    • Large breed dogs, especially Golden Retrievers and German Shepherds, over 10 years old are more susceptible
    • Cause is unknown
    • Chronic ultraviolet irradiation is a risk factor
    • Treatment involves surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy

    Tracheal Collapse

    • Frequent in dogs with chronic bronchitis
    • Diagnosed with chronic cough lasting at least two months
    • Characterized by excessive instability of the trachea, potentially paired with collapse of large bronchi
    • Produces a characteristic "goose honk" cough
    • More common in small breeds that are middle-aged or older
    • Diagnosis involves history taking, physical exam, x-rays, and bronchoscopy

    Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency

    • Loss of pancreatic function
    • Diagnosis involves history taking, physical exam, radiographs, and blood testing

    Gastric Dilation and Volvulus (GDV)

    • A life-threatening condition where the stomach dilates with gas and twists
    • Seen in deep-chested dogs
    • Radiographs reveal a distended gas-filled stomach occupying most of the abdomen
    • Blood testing shows acute inflammation, along with electrolyte abnormalities and acid-base disturbances

    Mammary System Tumors

    • Over half of tumors in female dogs are mammary tumors
    • About half of these are malignant
    • More common in female dogs over 8 years of age
    • Tumors start in the 2 most caudal sets of mammary glands
    • Spaying before the second estrus reduces the risk of acquiring mammary tumors to less than 10%
    • Spaying before the first estrus reduces the risk to 0.05%

    Elbow Dysplasia

    • A general term for elbow joint arthritis associated with developmental causes
    • Four types: ununited anconeal process, osteochondritis dissecans, fragmented coronoid process, and elbow incongruity
    • Can occur separately or in any combination
    • Frequent in both elbows
    • Inherited disease, found in young dogs aged 4 to 18 months
    • Predisposed in large and giant breed dogs, including Rottweilers, Newfoundlands, German Shepherds, Labrador Retrievers, Golden Retrievers, Chows, Bearded Collies, and Bernese Mountain Dogs
    • Risk factors: high-calorie diet, rapid weight and growth

    Osteochondritis Dissecans (OCD)

    • A condition where a piece of cartilage forms a flap or detaches from the bone
    • Affects the distal humerus at the medial trochlear ridge

    Equine Passive Stay Apparatus

    • Allows the horse to stand for long periods without exerting much muscular effort
    • Consists of tendons and ligaments that stabilize the joints
    • Divided into three parts: interosseus, proximal sesamoid bones, and sesamoidean ligaments
    • Prevents flexion of the shoulder, elbow, and carpal joints
    • Extends and overextends the pastern and fetlock joints to prevent drooping

    Spinal Cord

    • Lies within the spinal canal
    • Formed by the vertebra, intervertebral ligaments, and intervertebral discs
    • Composed of gray matter and white matter
    • White matter branches off into roots (ventral and dorsal), which combine to form spinal nerves
    • Spinal nerves and blood vessels exit the vertebral canal via intervertebral foramina
    • Covered by three membranes: dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater

    Infertility in Sows

    • Brucellosis, caused by Brucella suis, can cause embryonic death, abortion, infertility, and orchitis (inflammation of the testicles) in boars.
    • Porcine parvovirus causes infertility, mummification, and stillbirth in naive herds, however, immunity to porcine parvovirus develops after infection.
    • Hog cholera causes a range of reproductive problems including embryonic death, abortion, mummification, stillbirths, decreased litter size, and weak piglets.
    • Pseudorabies can cause abortion in pregnant sows 10 to 20 days after showing symptoms.
    • Leptospirosis pomona causes abortions during the last month of pregnancy even if the sow appears normal.
    • The smedi virus can cause abortions, mummification, stillbirths, infertility, weak piglets, and decreased litter size.

    Pseudorabies

    • Pseudorabies, also known as mad itch, is caused by a DNA herpesvirus and is highly fatal in swine.
    • It is a reportable disease in the USA and has symptoms similar to rabies.
    • Dogs and cats are considered dead-end hosts and die within days of infection.
    • It is spread through direct contact or inhaling the virus.
    • The virus can survive for days in certain conditions.
    • The virus can be inactivated by high temperatures, drying, and sunlight.
    • The virus replicates in the nose, tonsils, and pharynx of infected animals.
    • Neonatal pigs can experience tremors, convulsions, and death due to central nervous system (CNS) involvement.
    • Older piglets can show respiratory signs such as anorexia, sneezing, fever, weight loss, and difficulty breathing.

    Baylisascaris procyonis

    • Baylisascaris procyonis is an ascarid parasite that infects raccoons and can infect dogs.
    • Adult worms live in the raccoon's small intestine and eggs are passed in feces.
    • The eggs become infective in the soil.
    • Raccoons can become infected by ingesting infected eggs or hosts.
    • Dogs can act as hosts for the adult worm or as paratenic hosts, developing neurological signs such as ataxia, blindness, paresis, or death.
    • Canine adult worm infections can be treated with various medications.
    • Dogs can carry this disease and transmit it to humans.

    Metabolic Acidosis

    • Metabolic acidosis occurs due to an excess of acid in the bloodstream.
    • It is caused by the presence of anions other than chloride.
    • It can occur in situations such as diabetic ketoacidosis, ingestion of toxic substances, renal failure, lactic acidosis, and hyperphosphatemia.
    • Animals with chronic conditions like diabetes or hypoadrenocorticism, renal failure, or acute conditions such as toxin ingestion, diarrhea, or those receiving carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are prone to metabolic acidosis.
    • It is diagnosed through blood serum chemistry testing.
    • The clinician may calculate the anion gap to assist in diagnosing metabolic acidosis.
    • Depending on the underlying condition, the animal may have high levels of glucose, lactate, phosphate, or potassium or exhibit azotemia (elevated nitrogen levels in the blood).
    • To correct the disturbance, intravenous (IV) therapy consisting of lactated Ringer’s solution with or without sodium bicarbonate may be used.

    ALT & AST

    • Elevated levels of alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) in blood testing indicate liver damage.
    • Elevation can occur due to various causes such as chemical ingestion, viral, bacterial, fungal, parasitic or protozoal disease, immune diseases, liver diseases, metabolic disturbances, cancer, digestive disorders, or endocrine diseases.
    • ALT is considered liver-specific, although it can also be found in muscle and the brain.
    • AST is found in the liver, lungs, kidneys, brain, muscles, and erythrocytes and is considered less specific to liver damage.
    • High levels require evaluation along with other serum chemistry tests and whole blood cell counts for accurate interpretation.

    Ascites

    • Ascites is the accumulation of serous fluid in the abdomen.
    • It can be a transudate or modified transudate.
    • Transudate is a low-protein fluid that exits the intravascular space due to increased hydrostatic or oncotic pressure.

    Syncope

    • Syncope is caused by inadequate perfusion of the brain leading to temporary loss of consciousness and postural tone.
    • Causes include cardiovascular problems, reduced cardiac output due to cardiomyopathy, infections, narrowed arteries or veins in the heart or lungs, embolism, tumors, or heartworm disease.
    • Also caused by nervous system or vasomotor problems such as emotional stress or carotid sinus hyperactivity, drugs, hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia, or vascular disease.
    • It should be differentiated from neuromuscular diseases and musculoskeletal disease.

    Cough Reflex

    • Coughing results from stimulation of vagus nerve endings in the larynx, trachea, and bronchi or glossopharyngeal nerves in the pharynx.
    • Coughs are categorized into three types: those caused by upper respiratory tract (URT) diseases, lower respiratory tract (LRT) diseases, and those caused by diseases of the esophagus or pleura.
    • URT diseases that cause coughing include infections, tumors, or foreign bodies in the nasal passages, pharynx, larynx, or trachea, or tracheal collapse.
    • LRT diseases that cause coughing include bronchial infections, inflammation, tumors, or allergies, lung infections, tumors, or edema, aspiration of foreign bodies or substances, congestive heart failure, heartworm disease, pulmonary emboli or thrombi, or pulmonary hypertension.

    Infective Endocarditis

    • Infective endocarditis is an infection of the mural endocardium or heart valves.
    • It requires pre-existing pathology of the valve or endocardium for bloodborne bacteria to invade and colonize.
    • This infection damages the valves and causes valvular insufficiency.
    • The most commonly affected valves in horses, dogs, and cats are the mitral and aortic valves, while cattle are more commonly affected with endocarditis on the tricuspid valve.
    • Involvement of the aortic valve can lead to left-sided congestive heart failure.

    Oral Fibrosarcoma (in dogs)

    • Large breed male dogs over seven years of age have a slightly higher incidence of oral fibrosarcoma.
    • Radiographs of the head will reveal bone lysis in the area of the tumor.
    • A deep biopsy must be submitted for definitive diagnosis.
    • Treatment involves hemimandibulectomy with wide margins around the tumor.

    Salivary Mucocele

    • Salivary mucoceles occur when saliva leaks from a damaged salivary duct or gland into the surrounding tissues.
    • They present as a soft, fluctuant mass that is generally painless.
    • They cause an inflammatory reaction in the tissues and are lined with granulation tissue.
    • There are four main classifications: sublingual mucoceles (ranula), cervical mucoceles, pharyngeal mucoceles, and zygomatic mucoceles.

    Plague (in cats)

    • Cats contract plague from consuming infected rodents with Yersinia pestis.
    • This bacterium causes an acute, sometimes deadly disease in rodents, rabbits, and humans.
    • Fleas transmit the bacteria through bites.
    • The bacteria replicate in the flea's digestive system and can be spread to new hosts through regurgitation.
    • There are three forms of the disease: pneumonic, bubonic, or septicemia.
    • The bacteria spread to the lymph nodes, forming buboes.
    • Septicemia occurs when the bacteria spread from lymph nodes to other body organs.

    Oral Squamous Cell Carcinoma (in cats)

    • Oral squamous cell carcinoma is the most common tumor in cats.
    • It is a malignant tumor that invades bone.
    • The affected tissue appears irregular, elevated, and often necrotic and ulcerated.
    • It is locally aggressive and typically does not spread to lymph nodes.
    • Symptoms include fever, depression, anorexia, and weight loss.

    Cherry Eye

    • Cherry eye is caused by the prolapse of the gland associated with the third eyelid.
    • In normal dogs, this gland is anchored to the periorbita.
    • Some breeds have a weak attachment, predisposing them to a prolapse.
    • Younger dogs are often affected.
    • Breeds prone to cherry eye include the beagle, bulldog, bloodhound, cocker spaniel, Lhasa apso, and Shih Tzu.
    • The condition can affect one or both eyes.
    • It presents as an oval red mass protruding from under the third eyelid.
    • Symptoms include tearing, reddened conjunctiva, and eye spasms.

    Gastric Dilation and Volvulus (GDV)

    • Gastric dilation and volvulus is a syndrome in dogs often associated with large meal ingestion.
    • The stomach fills with gas and twists around its axis, preventing the release of gas or food.
    • The stomach can be damaged due to local ischemia, compromised blood supply, or rupture.
    • The twisting can compromise blood flow from the abdomen to the heart and the expanding stomach can press on the diaphragm, leading to breathing difficulties.
    • GDV is an emergency that can lead to shock and cardiovascular failure.
    • Factors that predispose dogs to GDV include breed, feeding one large meal a day, older age, intense activity and stress, or previous splenectomy.
    • Symptoms include unproductive retching, a distended abdomen, drooling, increased heart and breathing rates, anxiety, refusal to lie down, and signs of shock.
    • Diagnosis relies on clinical signs and radiographs.

    Baylisascaris procyonis

    • A public health concern due to its potential for causing significant disease, permanent damage and death in humans.

    Giardia felis

    • A bi-nucleate, flagellated trophozoite found in the small intestine of cats.
    • Forms a resistant cyst wall in the large intestine, dividing into two trophozoites before being excreted in feces.
    • Transmission occurs through fecal-oral contamination and contaminated water.
    • Clinical signs include soft and pale diarrhea, weight loss, and failure to gain weight in kittens.

    Dirofilaria immitis (Heartworm)

    • Has a life cycle of six months.
    • Adult worms reside in the pulmonary arteries and right ventricles.
    • Microfilariae circulate in the bloodstream and are ingested by mosquitoes.
    • Within mosquitos, L1 larvae develop into L3 larvae, which migrate to the mosquito's mouthparts.
    • Transmission occurs when L3 larvae are deposited into an animal's bloodstream through a mosquito bite.
    • Approximately 10 to 12 L3 larvae are transmitted per mosquito.
    • L3 larvae mature into L4 and L5 larvae, reaching the pulmonary arteries after three months.
    • Adults become sexually mature and migrate to the right ventricle after two to three months.

    Metabolic Acidosis

    • Caused by excessive acid production or insufficient acid removal by the kidneys.
    • Characterized by decreased bicarbonate in blood plasma, high hydrogen ion concentration, and low blood pH.
    • Can result from syndromes that increase chloride-containing acids, such as diarrhea, medications, fluids, or renal tubular acidosis.
    • Usually accompanied by an infiltrate of granulocytes, lymphocytes, and capillaries.

    Epistaxis (Nosebleed)

    • Commonly caused by trauma to the nose or nasal passages.
    • Other causes include ulcerated nasal tissues, sinusitis, nasal passage infection, erosion of nasal arteries, neoplasia, and fractured bones.

    Glaucoma

    • Optic disease caused by increased ocular pressure leading to vision loss.
    • Can be primary (genetic cause) or secondary (due to other conditions like retinal detachment, chronic eye problems, or eye cancer).
    • More commonly genetically driven in dogs and secondary in cats.
    • Initial signs include eye redness, dilated pupil, and corneal edema.
    • Later signs include eye enlargement, pain, and lens luxation.
    • Normal intraocular pressure is 10-20 mm Hg, but glaucoma raises it above 25 mm Hg.
    • Primary glaucoma is further classified as open angle or narrow angle, depending on the angle between the iris and cornea.
    • Open angle glaucoma develops gradually, while narrow angle glaucoma causes sudden pressure increases.
    • Other forms include goniodysgenesis (abnormal tissue at the angle) and pigmentary glaucoma (pigmentary cells blocking the angle).

    Cataracts

    • Opacity of the lens or its capsule, typically affecting both eyes.
    • In cats, usually secondary to chronic uveitis.
    • In dogs, can be genetic, a diabetes complication, caused by trauma or neoplasia, or secondary to chronic uveitis.
    • The most common blindness cause in dogs, predominantly affecting dogs over five years old.
    • Common affected breeds include Labrador retrievers, cocker spaniels, Boston terriers, poodles, Bichon Frises, and miniature Schnauzers.
    • Distinguished from nuclear sclerosis (normal aging) and lens imperfections in younger dogs.
    • Treatment involves lens removal.

    Retinal Detachment

    • Separation of the retina from the underlying tissues.
    • Three types:
      • Rhegmatogenous: Caused by a tear or break in the retina allowing fluid to flow underneath.
      • Tractional: Scar tissue on the retina contracts and pulls it away.
      • Exudative: Fluid leaks under the retina without tearing due to inflammation or trauma.

    Oral Tumors in Dogs and Cats

    • Can be benign or malignant.
    • Epulis (benign) is the most common in dogs, arising from the periodontal ligament.
    • Eosinophilic granulomas are prevalent benign mouth conditions in cats.
    • The most common malignant oral tumors in both dogs and cats are squamous cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma, and fibrosarcomas.
    • Fibrosarcomas are locally aggressive but rarely metastasize.
    • Treatment involves radical surgery and radiation therapy, with a high recurrence rate.

    Hyperthyroidism in Cats

    • A metabolic disease affecting middle-aged and older cats.
    • Most common endocrine disorder in cats.
    • Enlarged nodules on the thyroid gland secrete thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3).
    • Usually caused by benign adenomas, rarely by malignant adenocarcinoma.
    • Affects various organs, including the heart, kidneys, brain, and gastrointestinal tract.
    • Clinical signs include weight loss, increased appetite, diarrhea, increased thirst and urination, hyperactivity, vomiting, and greasy, matted coat.
    • Diagnoses involve CBC, blood chemistry, and thyroid function tests.

    Otodectes Cynotis (Ear Mites)

    • Commonly infest kittens, causing irritation and hypersensitivity.
    • Signs include head and ear pruritis, and thick, dark, crusty material in the ear canal.
    • Treatment involves long-term and aggressive antifungal therapy.

    Chronic Diarrhea

    • A diagnostic challenge in dogs.
    • Categorized as small intestinal or large intestinal diarrhea, directing further investigations.
    • Small intestinal diarrhea is characterized by large volume, vomiting, melena, and weight loss.
    • Causes include metabolic disorders, maldigestion, small intestinal disease, parasites, and diet.
    • Large-bowel diarrhea is characterized by increased frequency, smaller volume, blood and mucus in stool, straining, and urgency.
    • Causes include dietary factors, metabolic disorders, intestinal problems, parasites, and infection.

    Cruciate Disease

    • Common surgical disease in dogs involving the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL).
    • Partial or complete ACL tears lead to lameness, pain, and arthritis.
    • More prevalent in obese dogs, large breeds, athletes, dogs with luxated patella, and those with poor conformation.
    • Can be caused by acute trauma or ligament degeneration.
    • The ACL provides stability to the stifle joint, limiting rotation and displacement of the tibia.
    • Tears often occur due to traumatic hyperextension or forceful rotation while the stifle is flexed.

    Torn Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL)

    • Diagnosed based on clinical signs, history of injury, and physical examination.
    • Lameness, pain, and reluctance to walk are key indicators.

    Ketoacidosis

    • Ketoacidosis is caused by ketone body production and acidosis.
    • The body is unable to maintain fluids and electrolytes properly, leading to azotemia, electrolyte issues, and dehydration.
    • Untreated ketoacidosis is fatal.
    • Signs include increased thirst and urination, lack of appetite, lethargy, vomiting, dehydration, low body temperature, and weakness.
    • Contributing factors include poor diabetes regulation, other health problems like kidney, heart, or pancreatic disease, and infections.

    Congestive Heart Failure

    • CHF can affect either the left or right side of the heart.
    • Left-sided failure causes blood to pool in the lungs or deprives the body of blood.
    • Left-sided CHF can disrupt heart rhythm, causing tachycardia or fibrillation, increasing heart rate, while AV block slows heart rate.
    • Common causes of heart muscle failure include dilated cardiomyopathy.
    • High pressure on the heart can lead to left-sided CHF, as seen with subaortic stenosis and hypertension.
    • Other causes of left-sided CHF include pericarditis, endocarditis, mitral valve dysplasia, septal defects, cardiomyopathy, thromboembolism, and patent ductus arteriosus.
    • Right-sided failure can result from parasitic load, structural defects, toxins, infections, or tumors.
    • Heartworm disease, lung disease, stenosis of pulmonary veins, tumors, Tetralogy of Fallot, and pulmonary hypertension increase pressure on the right side of the heart.
    • Right-sided CHF can also be caused by heart muscle failure due to dilated cardiomyopathy or doxorubicin toxicity.
    • Right ventricular filling can be obstructed by tricuspid stenosis, tumors, pericarditis, or pericardial effusion.
    • Right-sided CHF can also be caused by heart rhythm disturbances like AV blocks or supraventricular tachycardia.

    Epistaxis

    • Epistaxis, or nosebleed, is usually caused by trauma to the nose or nasal passages.
    • Other causes include ulcerated nasal tissues, sinus or nasal passage infection, erosion of nasal arteries from infection, neoplasia, or fractured bone.

    Glaucoma

    • Glaucoma is an optic disease caused by increased ocular pressure.
    • It can be primary, due to genetic causes, or secondary to other conditions like retinal detachment, chronic eye problems, or ocular cancer.
    • In dogs, glaucoma is usually genetic.
    • In cats, glaucoma is typically secondary to other eye problems.
    • Signs include redness, dilated pupils, corneal edema, eye enlargement, pain, and lens luxation.
    • Intraocular pressure increases from 10-20 mmHg to over 25 mmHg.
    • Primary glaucoma can be open angle or narrow angle.
    • Open angle glaucoma involves a wide angle where the iris and cornea meet.
    • Narrow angle glaucoma involves the iris base being pushed forward.
    • Narrow angle glaucoma is more common in dogs.
    • Open angle glaucoma develops slowly, while narrow angle glaucoma causes sudden pressure increases.
    • Other forms of glaucoma include goniodysgenesis and pigmentary glaucoma.

    Cataracts

    • Cataracts are lens or capsule opacity.
    • Cats typically develop cataracts secondary to chronic uveitis.
    • Dogs can develop cataracts due to genetic defects, diabetes, trauma, neoplasia, or chronic uveitis.

    Otodectes Cynotis

    • Otodectes cynotis causes ear mites.
    • Kittens often have scratch marks around their ears due to intense itching.
    • Diagnosis involves examining ear swabs under a microscope after adding mineral oil.
    • Treatment includes cleaning the ears, applying topical products until cured, and treating the environment with pesticides.
    • Ivermectin can also be used off-label.

    Chlamydia Psittaci

    • Chlamydia psittaci causes chronic respiratory infections in cats, mainly affecting kittens 2-6 months old.
    • The bacterium multiplies in the upper and lower respiratory tract, causing signs like bronchitis, bronchiolitis, and rhinitis.
    • Symptoms include coughing, sneezing, and watery eyes.
    • C. psittaci can also colonize the reproductive and gastrointestinal tracts.
    • Pneumonia can also occur.
    • Tetracycline drugs are the treatment of choice.

    Biliary Tract Disease

    • Cats can suffer from cholangitis and cholangiohepatitis, inflammations of the biliary ducts, intrahepatic ducts, and liver.
    • Lymphocytic and lymphocytic-plasmacytic types are caused by immune reactions.
    • Suppurative type is likely caused by bacterial infections.
    • Concurrent issues include inflammatory bowel disease, cholecystitis, or pancreatitis.
    • Bile stasis, blocking ducts and breeding bacteria, is common in middle-aged and older cats.

    Chronic Diarrhea

    • Chronic diarrhea in cats can be caused by parasites, fungus, inflammatory diseases, obstructions, infections, metabolic disorders, and dietary causes.

    Babesiosis

    • Babesiosis is a severe red blood cell disease caused by the protozoan Babesia gibsoni.
    • Babesia canis causes mild disease in dogs but can kill puppies.
    • Clinical signs include anorexia, pale mucous membranes, lethargy, fever, vomiting, discolored urine, increased heart and respiratory rates, enlarged spleen, and icterus.
    • Blood work reveals hemolytic anemia, characterized by spherocytes, anisocytosis, and polychromasia.

    Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

    • Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in cats causes respiratory distress, collapse, exercise intolerance, cough, or sudden death.
    • Causes include hypertrophy of the left ventricular wall or interventricular septum.
    • This enlargement causes high filling pressure in the ventricle and arterial enlargement.
    • Pulmonary hypertension and edema can occur due to respiratory tract involvement.
    • Other problems include thromboembolism, heart arrhythmias, renal issues due to poor blood perfusion, and congestive heart failure.
    • Signs can include weak femoral pulse, cold limbs, lack of femoral pulse, bluish nail beds and foot pads.

    Ringworm

    • Ringworm (dermatophytosis) is caused by the fungi Microsporum canis, Microsporum gypseum, and Trichophyton mentagrophytes.
    • Clinical signs include circular hair loss, itching, redness, scaling, and flaking skin.
    • Long-haired cats are more susceptible.
    • Cats can be asymptomatic carriers and spread the disease.
    • The fungus lives in the superficial layers of skin, hair, and nails.
    • Diagnosis involves clinical examination and fungal culture.

    Gingivitis/Stomatitis Syndrome

    • Feline gingivitis/stomatitis syndrome causes drooling, anorexia, halitosis, and oral pain.
    • Physical examination reveals gingivitis, stomatitis, pharyngitis, palatitis, and inflammation of the caudal fauces.
    • Treatment involves thorough dental examination and prophylaxis.
    • Teeth with severe periodontal disease or odontoclastic resorptive lesions should be removed.

    Nasal Dermatoses

    • Nasal dermatoses in dogs can be caused by demodicosis, contact dermatitis, dermatophytosis, nasal pyoderma, discoid lupus erythematosus, dermatomyositis, systemic lupus erythematosus, squamous cell carcinoma, basal cell carcinoma, fibrosarcoma, trauma, zinc-responsive dermatosis, pemphigus foliaceus, pemphigus erythematosus, drug sensitivity, and granulomas.
    • Alaska malamutes, young Siberian huskies, and dogs under a year old are prone to zinc-responsive dermatosis.
    • Demodicosis and dermatophytosis are more likely to affect young dogs.
    • Dermatomyositis is common in young dogs, collies, and Shetland sheep dogs.
    • Collies, German shepherds, and Shetland sheep dogs are predisposed to discoid lupus erythematosus and systemic lupus erythematosus.

    Atopy

    • Atopy is a common condition in dogs that usually develops in the early years of life.
    • It is a hypersensitivity to environmental allergens like molds, pollens, dust mites, and animal dander.
    • Reactions include IgE binding to skin mast cells upon exposure to the allergen.
    • Mast cell degranulation releases compounds causing intense itching.
    • Atopy can be year-round or seasonal depending on the allergen.
    • Atopy worsens over time, with seasonal allergies becoming year-round.
    • Differentials include flea bite hypersensitivity, food allergy, contact dermatitis, yeast allergy/infection, and mange.

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