Immunopharmacology
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Questions and Answers

What is primarily required for Cell Mediated Immunity to function effectively?

  • B cells
  • Antibodies
  • Viable T-cell lymphocytes (correct)
  • Natural killer cells

    • Which type of T-cell is responsible for activating cytolytic T lymphocytes in response to an antigen?

  • CD8 T-cells
  • CD4 T-cells (correct)
  • B cells
  • NK cells

    • What type of immunity involves the production of antibodies to bind to antigens in solution?

  • Cell mediated immunity
  • Humoral immunity (correct)
  • Innate immunity
  • Passive immunity

    • In the Plaque Antibody Forming Cell (PFC) Assay, what is the role of the sheep red blood cells (RBC)?

    <p>To stimulate an immune response in the mouse</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statistic reflects the concentration of CD4 Helper T-cells in a healthy human?

    <p>900/uL</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one characteristic of acquired immunity?

    <p>It is enhanced by repeated exposure.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the ELISA assay utilize to detect antibodies?

    <p>Fluorescent tags or enzymes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is not a component of the antibody production system in acquired immunity?

    <p>Natural killer cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary functionality of the innate immune system?

    <p>Phagocytosis of bacteria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following cells is NOT a component of the innate immune system?

    <p>T lymphocytes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do complement proteins play in innate immunity?

    <p>Creating pores in bacterial cell membranes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the innate immune system differ from the acquired immune system?

    <p>The innate immune system provides nonspecific defense.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which process involves recognition and ingestion of bacteria by cells of the innate immune system?

    <p>Phagocytosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of immune response is characterized by its rapid activation and lack of immunological memory?

    <p>Nonspecific immune response</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of innate immunity, which of the following accurately describes macrophages?

    <p>They are released from bone marrow as mature cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the specificity of the innate immune system?

    <p>It provides broad protection against a wide range of pathogens.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following drugs is known to inhibit angiogenesis and is highly regulated due to potential birth defects?

    <p>Thalidomide</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of action for Mycophenolate Mofetil?

    <p>Inhibition of purine synthesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug is a prodrug of mercaptopurine that blocks purine nucleic acid synthesis?

    <p>Azathioprine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of monoclonal antibody consists of approximately 66% human content?

    <p>Chimeric</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What kind of drug mechanism do Leflunomide and Teriflunomide share?

    <p>Inhibition of pyrimidine synthesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which immunosuppressive drug is specifically designed to block the signaling mechanism of mTOR?

    <p>Everolimus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following drugs acts as an alkylating agent to destroy proliferating lymphoid cells?

    <p>Cyclophosphamide</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of antibody hybridoma cells in monoclonal antibody production?

    <p>To isolate and grow antibody producing cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by an immediate response mediated by IgE antibodies?

    <p>Type I Antibody Mediated</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the major consequence of the Type II antibody-mediated hypersensitivity reaction?

    <p>Destruction of red blood cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which type of hypersensitivity reaction do macrophages play a significant role and the response occurs 2-3 days after exposure?

    <p>Type IV Cell Mediated</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Autoimmunity occurs when the antibody response is directed against which of the following?

    <p>Self proteins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which disease is NOT generally classified under immunodeficiency diseases?

    <p>Rheumatoid arthritis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What primary function does cyclosporine serve in organ transplantation?

    <p>Blocks T-cell activation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately describes an effect of immunosuppressive drugs like cortisone?

    <p>Suppresses immune system activity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which enzyime is inhibited by the action of calcineurin inhibitors like cyclosporine?

    <p>Phosphatase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary use of Rho (D) immune globulin in pregnant women?

    <p>To prevent Rh hemolytic anemia of the newborn.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism of action of RhoGAM® in preventing hemolytic disease of the newborn?

    <p>It blocks the recognition of Rh positive red cells by maternal immune cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How long does the protection from immune globulins typically last?

    <p>1-3 months</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which situation is Rho (D) immune globulin primarily administered postpartum?

    <p>To clear potential Rh positive fetal red cells from maternal circulation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the source of the immune globulin preparations used in immunotherapy?

    <p>Polyclonal human immunoglobulin obtained from healthy human donors.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is associated with the need for specific immune globulin preparations besides Rho (D)?

    <p>Respiratory syncytial virus infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of immune response is characterized by antibodies (IgG) being demonstrated in plasma with symptoms like autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

    <p>Type II (Autoimmune)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What would be the consequence if an Rh negative mother generates antibodies against Rh positive red blood cells during her first pregnancy?

    <p>Future Rh positive pregnancies may put the baby at risk of hemolytic disease.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following symptoms is NOT typically associated with serum sickness?

    <p>Mucus hypersecretion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of patients would most benefit from receiving immune globulin therapy?

    <p>Patients at high risk for contracting a disease and needing immediate protection.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which agents are released by mast cells that contribute to airway smooth muscle contraction in asthma?

    <p>Leukotrienes and Tryptase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of Omalizumab in immunotherapy?

    <p>Blocking IgE binding to mast cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cytokines are released due to antigen binding to mast cells and lead to eosinophil activation?

    <p>Interleukins and Eotaxin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In Type II hypersensitivity, which type of antibodies bind to the antigen during a transfusion reaction?

    <p>IgM or IgG antibodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism by which plasmapheresis alleviates symptoms of serum sickness?

    <p>Removing the drug from circulation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is primarily responsible for the edema and mucus hypersecretion observed in allergic reactions?

    <p>Eosinophils</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Pharmacology I - Immunopharmacology

    • Immunopharmacology is a chapter 55 topic in PM 716
    • Lecture covers the immune system (innate and acquired), antibodies as drugs, abnormal immune responses, autoimmunity, immunodeficiency replacement, immunosuppression agents, cytotoxic agents, and immunomodulating agents.
    • Immune System: innate (primitive) and acquired (adaptive).
      • Adaptive immunity includes cell-mediated immunity (CMI) and humoral immunity. CMI involves T-cells and minimal antibody role. Viable T-lymphocytes are necessary, while humoral involves antibody production in solution and activation of the complement cascade
    • Innate Immunity:
      • First line of defense against bacterial and viral infections.
      • Nonspecific and has no memory.
      • Involves NK cells and macrophages.
      • Complement proteins bind to bacterial surfaces, creating pores and initiating apoptotic cell death (opsonization).
      • Phagocytes kill bacteria through free radical destruction and lysozyme digestion.
      • Cells involved are granulocytes, monocytes, and NK cells.
    • Macrophages:
      • Develop from monocytes released from bone marrow.
      • Account for 1-10% of total white blood cells (WBC).
      • Phagocytize bacteria.
    • Measurement of Innate Immunity:
      • Phagocytosis Assays: macrophages are coated to a titer well plate, then radioactive red blood cells are added to evaluate phagocytosis.
    • Immunosuppressive Drugs:
      • Cortisone: gold standard for immunosuppression
      • Calcineurin Inhibitors: Cyclosporine, Tacrolimus
      • Proliferation Signal Inhibitors: Sirolimus, Everolimus
      • Mycophenolate Mofetil: inhibits T and B cell response via purine synthesis.
      • Thalidomide: used in various diseases, inhibits angiogenesis, anti-inflammatory, reduces neutrophil phagocytosis, but highly regulated due to birth defects.
      • Cytotoxic Agents: Azathioprine, Cyclophosphamide, and more.
    • Antibodies as Drugs:
      • Monoclonals: mice are injected with an antigen to isolate antibody-producing B lymphocytes from the mouse spleen; these B cells are fused with human B lymphocytes (from myeloma) to grow hybridoma cells; antibodies are harvested for treatment. Monoclonal antibodies can be mouse, chimeric (~66% human), or humanized (~90+% human) to reduce immunogenicity.
    • Antibody Drug Examples:
      • Abciximab (ReoPro), Rituximab (Rituxan), Trastuzumab (Herceptin). Various other examples are given involving TNF-alpha blockage or the use of human constant IgG attached to TNF-alpha receptor for treatment.
    • Monoclonal Antibodies: Trastuzumab is a recombinant DNA-derived humanized monoclonal antibody.
      • Blocks overexpression of the HER-2/neu receptor associated with some breast cancers, thereby inhibiting protein synthesis crucial to tumor growth.
      • Infliximab binds TNF-alpha (a cytokine for inflammatory response), showing improvement in RA patients.
    • Immune Globulins:
      • Passive immunization obtained through injections of specific, pooled immune globulins.
      • Used in cases where disease is present, in patients with decreased immune response, or those at high risk of contracting the disease, but no time for vaccine.
      • Protection lasts 1-3 months, primarily using purified IgG fractions from pooled human donors. -Specific Immune Globulins: preparations are available for a wide range of conditions including CMV, Hep B, Rabies, Tetanus, and Respiratory Syncytial Virus.
      • Immune globulin (IgG) iv (Gamimune)
        • Polyclonal human immunoglobulin. Obtained from thousands of healthy donors.
        • Drug at 2g/kg modulates the patient immune response, lowers T-cell numbers. Used for various immune disorders.
    • Rh(D) Immune Globulin: Used to prevent Rh hemolytic anemia in newborns.
      • A pregnancy with an Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive baby runs the risk of mother forming antibodies against Rh-positive fetal cells, causing issues in subsequent pregnancies. Administered within 24-72 hours after delivery.
    • Hypersensitivity Reactions: -Type I: immediate, IgE mediated; basophils (plasma), and mast cells; rapid release of histamine in response to antigen. Examples include hives, asthma, etc.
      • Type II: foreign antigen + IgM or IgG antibody leads to complex binding to red blood cells, complement activation, and red cell destruction. Examples include incompatible blood transfusions, penicillin allergies, and Rh incompatibility.
      • Type III: antigen-antibody complexes precipitate onto basement membranes, causing tissue damage (e.g., kidneys) due to complement release.
      • Type IV: delay of 2-3 days, cell-mediated response (e.g., macrophages, cytokines) with delayed release of digestive enzymes and tissue damage. Examples include contact hypersensitivity, poison ivy reactions. -Immunological reactions to drugs: drugs may cause allergic reactions.
      • Type I: IgE-mediated acute response
      • Type II: drug forms an neoantigen with patient proteins
      • Type III: serum sickness; drug causing antigen-antibody complexes
      • Type IV: cell-mediated allergic response. -Autoimmunity: T and B lymphocytes fail at recognizing self and non-self; examples include RA, systematic lupus erythematosus, multiple sclerosis, and type 1 diabetes; related to various disease states and conditions.
    • Immunodeficiency Diseases: Decreased immune function leading to infections, often genetic, and the example of HIV.
    • Tuberculin Skin Test for TB: tuberculin is a glycerin extract of tubercle bacilli and other components; the PPD is a protein derivative; skin tests, and other alternatives
    • Screening Tests for RA: RA factor measures the level of IgM antibodies against the IgG portion of the IgG antibody. RA factor is not specific to RA and may be found in other conditions.
    • Tests of Immunocompetence:
      • Serum immunoglobulins
      • Total lymphocyte counts
      • Lymphocyte subsets (CD receptors)
      • Various WBC function assays

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    Immunopharmacology Lecture Notes PDF

    Description

    Test your knowledge on the key concepts of cell mediated immunity, including the roles of T-cells, antibodies, and immune responses. This quiz covers various aspects such as the functions of CD4 Helper T-cells and techniques like ELISA. Perfect for students in immunology courses!

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