Immunology Quiz: Antibodies and Hypersensitivity

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to Lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

What distinguishes a monoclonal antibody from a polyclonal antibody?

  • Monoclonal antibodies are specific to a particular type of pathogen, while polyclonal antibodies are specific to a particular type of immune response.
  • Polyclonal antibodies are produced by a single type of B cell, while monoclonal antibodies are produced by multiple types of B cells.
  • Monoclonal antibodies are used in laboratory settings only, while polyclonal antibodies are used in both laboratory and clinical settings.
  • Monoclonal antibodies bind to only one epitope of an antigen, while polyclonal antibodies bind to multiple epitopes of the same antigen. (correct)

Which type of immunoglobulin is primarily responsible for allergic reactions?

  • IgE (correct)
  • IgM
  • IgA
  • IgG

What is the significance of elevated IgM levels in a newborn?

  • It indicates a delayed immune response in the newborn.
  • It indicates an ongoing viral infection in the newborn.
  • It indicates an in utero infection. (correct)
  • It indicates a recent infection in the mother.

Which of the following is a hallmark feature of type IV hypersensitivity reactions?

<p>Delayed onset, typically takes days to develop (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of hypersensitivity mediates the process of transfusion reactions after receiving incompatible blood?

<p>Type II (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following immunoglobulins is responsible for the majority of antibody-mediated immunity in the bloodstream?

<p>IgG (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately describes the role of IgA in the body?

<p>It protects mucosal tissues from pathogens and maintains homeostasis with microbiota. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of both autoimmune and immunodeficiency disorders?

<p>Both conditions can be treated with immunosuppressant drugs. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of complement activation in the immune response?

<p>It enhances the inflammatory response and facilitates the destruction of pathogens. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following immunoglobulins is known for its ability to cross the placenta and provide passive immunity to the fetus?

<p>IgG (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an example of a type III hypersensitivity reaction?

<p>Rheumatoid arthritis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary distinction between the immune responses associated with type I and type IV hypersensitivity reactions?

<p>Type I reactions are immediate, while type IV reactions are delayed. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are immunoglobulins typically measured in a blood test?

<p>Milligrams per deciliter (mg/dL) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of regulatory T cells (Treg) in the immune response?

<p>To suppress the immune response to prevent autoimmune reactions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by the formation of antigen-antibody complexes that deposit in various tissues and organs?

<p>Type III (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately describes the role of IgE in the defense against bacterial infections?

<p>IgE is not a significant player in the defense against bacterial infections. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main cause of a transfusion reaction?

<p>Recipient's plasma antibodies reacting with donor's erythrocyte antigens (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following correctly describes the Coombs Test?

<p>A test that detects antibodies in the blood that may attack red blood cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for cross-matching blood before a transfusion?

<p>To identify potential antibody reactions between the donor and recipient's blood (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the Rh factor in blood transfusions?

<p>It plays a crucial role in preventing transfusion reactions (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of antibodies in a transfusion reaction?

<p>They attack the red blood cells of the recipient (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT an example of a transfusion reaction?

<p>Allergic reaction (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of hypersensitivity is associated with a delayed reaction, such as contact dermatitis?

<p>Type IV (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the difference between a 'Type and Screen' and a 'Type and Crossmatch' in blood transfusion testing?

<p>Type and Screen only identifies the patient's blood type, while Type and Crossmatch also tests for compatibility with the donor blood. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antibody is responsible for the development of Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDN)?

<p>IgG (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of humoral immunity?

<p>Provides protection against intracellular pathogens (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is fresh frozen plasma primarily used for?

<p>To manage patients with bleeding and clotting factor deficiencies (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors are more concentrated in cryoprecipitate compared to fresh frozen plasma?

<p>Factors VIII and XIII, fibrinogen, von Willebrand factor (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When ordering blood products, what should you avoid if a reference mentions '6 pack of platelets'?

<p>Ordering 6 units of PRP (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an appropriate International Normalized Ratio (INR) indication for using fresh frozen plasma?

<p>1.6 or higher (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component of blood products is retained when fresh frozen plasma is thawed and centrifuged to make cryoprecipitate?

<p>Specific concentrated clotting factors (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following blood types can a recipient with blood type A receive safely?

<p>Type O (A), Type A (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which blood type is considered the universal donor?

<p>Type O (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What kind of antibodies are present in someone with blood type AB?

<p>No antibodies (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Individuals with blood type O can safely receive blood from which blood type?

<p>Type O (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is a person with blood type AB considered the universal recipient?

<p>They have no antibodies in their blood. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which blood type is a safe donor for individuals of all other blood types?

<p>Type O (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What would happen if a person with blood type B were to receive a transfusion of blood type A?

<p>The recipient's immune system would attack the transfused blood cells. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does a person with blood type O need to receive blood from someone with the same blood type?

<p>Type O blood contains both anti-A and anti-B antibodies. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main purpose of the Direct Coombs Test (DAT)?

<p>To confirm immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a positive result in the Direct Coombs Test indicate?

<p>Antibodies attacking the patient's own RBCs (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the Indirect Coombs Test (IAT)?

<p>It requires patient serum to be exposed to RBCs with known antigens (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is included in the Type and Cross procedure?

<p>Type and screen with recipient plasma mixed with donor blood (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a Type and Screen procedure help determine?

<p>Blood group compatibility for transfusion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes Platelet Rich Plasma (PRP)?

<p>Concentrated platelets obtained from a single donor (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is a Type and Cross procedure typically ordered?

<p>If there is a high likelihood of a transfusion (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Coombs reagent specifically test for?

<p>Antibodies against human antibodies (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Types of Antibodies

Five main types: IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM, each with unique functions.

Humoral vs Cell-Mediated Immunity

Humoral immunity involves antibodies, while cell-mediated relies on T cells.

Hypersensitivity Types

Four types: Type I (allergic), Type II (cytotoxic), Type III (immune complex), Type IV (delayed).

HIV Transmission

HIV spreads through blood, sexual contact, and from mother to child.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rh Factor and HDN

Rh incompatibility can lead to hemolytic disease of newborn (HDN).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rh Factor

Erythrocyte antigen first discovered in rhesus monkeys.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Blood Type Prevalence

Distribution of blood type percentages among the population.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Transfusion Reaction

Incompatibility reaction between recipient’s antibodies and donor’s erythrocyte antigens.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Coombs Test

Tests for antibodies against red blood cells to detect conditions like jaundice.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Agglutination Reaction

Clumping of red blood cells due to an antigen-antibody reaction.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chédiak-Higashi Syndrome

A genetic disorder affecting the immune system and pigmentation, leading to recurrent infections.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD)

An inherited immune deficiency causing inability to kill certain bacteria and fungi, leading to infections.

Signup and view all the flashcards

CD4 T cells

A type of immune cell that helps initiate and regulate immune responses, particularly in HIV.

Signup and view all the flashcards

HIV diagnosis methods

Techniques like ELISA and immunoassays used to confirm HIV presence and type.

Signup and view all the flashcards

AIDS definition

Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome, indicated by CD4 count below 200, leading to severe immune deficiency.

Signup and view all the flashcards

ABO blood types

Classification based on surface antigens; types include A, B, AB, and O, with specific antibodies.

Signup and view all the flashcards

HIV viral load

Measurement of the amount of HIV RNA in blood, used to assess progression and treatment effectiveness.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Blood type compatibility

A system determining which blood types can safely donate/receive blood based on antibodies.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Coombs Reagent

Antibodies against human antibodies used in tests.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Direct Coombs Test (DAT)

Tests if antibodies are attacking patient's RBCs directly.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Indirect Coombs Test (IAT)

Tests serum to detect antibodies against RBC antigens.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Immune-Mediated Hemolytic Anemia

Condition confirmed by positive Direct Coombs Test results.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Type and Screen

Determines ABO and Rh typing, detects common antibodies.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Type and Cross

Includes type and screen plus recipient plasma test with donor blood.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Packed Red Blood Cells

RBCs concentrated for patients with low hemoglobin.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Platelet-Rich Plasma (PRP)

Concentrated platelets from single donor, used for low platelet counts.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP)

Blood product containing clotting factors. Used for bleeding and clotting factor deficiencies.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cryoprecipitate

Derived from FFP, concentrated in specific clotting factors like fibrinogen.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Clotting Factor Deficiencies

Conditions where blood doesn't clot properly, needing products like FFP or cryoprecipitate.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Indications for FFP

Recommended when the INR is at least 1.6; used to manage bleeding.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Specific Factor Deficiency Treatment

Cryoprecipitate is preferred over FFP for deficiencies in Factors VIII, XIII, fibrinogen, and vWF.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Phagocytosis

The process by which immune cells engulf and digest pathogens.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cytokines

Signaling proteins that mediate communication between cells in immune responses.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Antigen Presenting Cells (APCs)

Cells that display antigens to T-cells, initiating an immune response.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Memory B-cells

B-cells that stay dormant after initial infection and respond more quickly upon re-exposure.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Immunoglobulins

Also known as antibodies; proteins produced by B-cells to identify and neutralize foreign objects.

Signup and view all the flashcards

IgG

The most common type of antibody, making up about 75% of serum immunoglobulins.

Signup and view all the flashcards

IgA

An antibody found in mucosal areas, tears, saliva, and breast milk; critical for mucosal immunity.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Type I Hypersensitivity

An immediate allergic reaction mediated by IgE; examples include asthma and anaphylaxis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Type II Hypersensitivity

An antibody-mediated reaction where antibodies target self-cells, leading to destruction.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Type III Hypersensitivity

A reaction where immune complexes form and deposit in tissues, causing inflammation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Type IV Hypersensitivity

A delayed-type reaction mediated by T-cells, leading to inflammation and tissue damage.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Autoimmune Diseases

Conditions where the immune system attacks the body's own tissues, causing damage.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Immunodeficiency

A condition where the immune system is less effective, leading to increased susceptibility to infections.

Signup and view all the flashcards

IgE

An antibody primarily involved in allergic reactions and defense against parasites.

Signup and view all the flashcards

IgM

The first antibody produced in response to an infection; important for blood typing.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Study Notes

Immunology Week 4

  • The course is titled "Immunology", Week 4, taught by Hanzely, DMSc, PA-C, RD.
  • The course is within the "Where Dreams Find Direction" program at South College.
  • The institution is South College, founded in 1882.

Instructional Objectives

  • Inventory antigens and antibodies/immunoglobulins (IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, and IgM)
  • Illustrate the immune response (cell-mediated and humoral immunity)
  • Inspect the 4 types of hypersensitivity
  • Compare autoimmune and immunodeficiency diseases
  • Define HIV, transmission, and diagnostic/monitoring testing
  • Compare major blood group systems (ABO and Rh) and other systems
  • Contrast anti-Rh antibody formation and hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)
  • Differentiate Type and Cross Match, Type and Screen, Direct and Indirect Coombs tests
  • Inventory indications for blood transfusions (red cells, cryoprecipitate, platelets, fresh-frozen plasma) and review transfusion reactions.

Refresh Immunity

  • Immunity is separated into innate and adaptive.
  • Innate immunity involves nonspecific physical/physiological barriers (skin, GI lining, gastric acid) and phagocytes (neutrophils and macrophages).
  • Adaptive immunity involves specific targets (acquired immunity).
    • Cell-mediated immunity involves T-lymphocytes (CD8+ and CD4+ T cells).
    • Antibody-mediated (humoral) immunity involves B-lymphocytes and secreted antibodies.

Immune Response (Simplified)

  • Local neutrophils encounter pathogens, initiating phagocytosis and triggering cytokines.
  • Cytokines induce local vasodilation and attract more neutrophils and monocytes.
  • Monocytes differentiate into macrophages.
  • Macrophages and neutrophils continue phagocytosis.
  • Macrophages act as antigen-presenting cells (APCs), presenting antigens to T-cells (cytotoxic T cells, helper T cells, and regulatory T cells).
  • B-cells become activated, and some mature into memory B-cells, while others become plasma B-cells that secrete antibodies (immunoglobulins).

Immunoglobulins

  • Immunoglobulins (Ig), including IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, and IgM, act as antibodies.
  • Immunoglobulins are measured in mg/dL.

Immunoglobulin Details

  • Immunoglobulins are used synonymously with antibodies.
  • Reference ranges vary by age and measurement method.
  • Serum immunoglobulin testing can indicate disease but isn't diagnostic.
  • Electrophoresis is sometimes needed to separate them.
  • They come in five isotypes: IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE, IgD.
  • Antibodies vary in how they bind to antigens and whether they cross the placenta.

Monoclonal vs. Polyclonal

  • Polyclonal antibodies bind to different epitopes of the same antigen.
  • Monoclonal antibodies bind to one epitope of the antigen.

IgG

  • IgG constitutes approximately 75% of serum immunoglobulins.
  • It's the major circulating antibody and crosses the placenta.
  • It plays a role in neutralization, opsonization, complement activation, and antibody-dependent cytotoxicity.
  • Various disorders (rheumatologic, pulmonary, renal, immune diseases) can increase IgG levels.
  • IgG deficiency may lead to frequent or more severe infections.

IgA

  • IgA accounts for approximately 15% of immunoglobulins.
  • It's present in tears, blood, respiratory and GI secretions.
  • It protects mucosal tissues and maintains homeostasis with microbiota.
  • Increased levels are seen in several anti-inflammatory disorders. Decreased levels can be seen in certain diseases like leukemia and IgA deficiency.

IgM

  • Primarily responsible for ABO blood grouping.
  • Responds immediately during an infection.
  • Involved in many infection responses.
  • Forms a pentamer structure with 10 antigen-binding sites.
  • Effectively forms antigen-antibody complexes and activates the complement system.
  • Does not cross the placenta. A high IgM level in a newborn indicates possible infection in utero.

IgE

  • Mediates responses to allergies and parasitic diseases.
  • Used to detect allergic disorders and hypersensitivity.
  • Not useful as a standalone test.
  • Not significant in bacterial defenses.
  • Does not activate the complement system.
  • Increased in various diseases.

IgD

  • Not well understood and rarely evaluated.
  • Might be involved in B-cell function and immune responses.

Hypersensitivity

  • An exaggerated immune response, potentially ranging from uncomfortable to fatal.
  • Classified into 4 types in the Gell and Coombs system.
    • Type I hypersensitivity is IgE-mediated, leading to allergies.
    • Type II hypersensitivity is antibody-mediated, often leading to autoimmune reactions.
    • Type III hypersensitivity involves immune complexes depositing in vessels and joints, leading inflammation.
    • Type IV hypersensitivity is cell-mediated, often manifesting in delayed reactions (takes days to develop).

HIV

  • HIV, a virus, causes progressive immune system failure, increasing the risk of infections and cancers.
  • CD4 ("cluster of differentiation 4") proteins on T cells are important markers in HIV and help cytotoxic T cells.
  • Measuring the viral load and CD4 count helps in measuring HIV progression and tailoring treatment approaches.
  • Certain blood tests, like ELISA and CBC, help in diagnosis of HIV. The tests look for antibodies to HIV and/or presence of infection in the blood.

Blood Types

  • Blood types are determined by antigens on red blood cells.
  • ABO blood types are A, B, AB, and O.
  • Antigens trigger immune responses.
  • Type A blood has anti-B antibodies; Type B blood has anti-A antibodies; Type AB has neither and Type O has both.
  • Incompatible blood transfusions can lead to reactions.

Rh Factor

  • Rh factor is an erythrocyte antigen first discovered in rhesus monkeys.
  • Antibodies to Rh factor usually do not occur naturally but develop after exposure and can be a cause for issues in transfusions.
  • Testing and cross-matching are essential for determining compatibility before a transfusion, especially in extreme cases.

Transfusion Reactions

  • Transfusion reactions result from exposure to incompatible blood.
  • Two antigen-antibody reactions occur, leading to clumping and hemolysis of red blood cells.

Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn

  • A condition where maternal antibodies attack fetal red blood cells.
  • This can cause severe effects including jaundice and anemia.

Coombs Tests

  • Coombs tests check for antibodies against red blood cells (RBCs).
    • Direct Coombs test: checks for antibodies attached directly to the RBC surface.
    • Indirect Coombs test: checks for unbound antibodies in the serum.

Type and Screen/Cross

  • Determines ABO and Rh typing.
  • Additional antibodies are included in the testing process.
  • Includes type and screen and an indirect Coombs test.
  • Ordered if there is a high likelihood of transfusion.
  • Usually done in cases where blood transfusion is imminent or very likely.

Blood Product Indications

  • Whole blood (not as efficient), packed red blood cells, platelet-rich plasma (PRP) for patients with low platelet counts, and fresh frozen plasma for patients with clotting factor deficiencies are all common blood products.
  • Different methods and considerations are involved in obtaining these blood products.

Studying That Suits You

Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

Quiz Team

Related Documents

CLM Week 4 Immunology PPT PDF

More Like This

Use Quizgecko on...
Browser
Browser