Podcast
Questions and Answers
Which chemical bond is primarily responsible for maintaining the structural integrity between heavy and light chains in antibodies?
Which chemical bond is primarily responsible for maintaining the structural integrity between heavy and light chains in antibodies?
- Peptide bond
- Disulfide bond (correct)
- Ester bond
- Glycosidic bond
During protein electrophoresis at pH 8.6, what property of proteins allows them to be separated in a polyacrylamide gel?
During protein electrophoresis at pH 8.6, what property of proteins allows them to be separated in a polyacrylamide gel?
- Proteins become positively charged and migrate towards the cathode.
- Proteins remain neutral and separate based on size alone.
- Proteins become negatively charged and migrate towards the anode. (correct)
- Proteins precipitate out of solution, allowing for size-based separation.
The isotype of an antibody (e.g., IgG, IgA, IgM) is determined by the:
The isotype of an antibody (e.g., IgG, IgA, IgM) is determined by the:
- J chain
- Antigen-binding site (Fab)
- Light chain variable region
- Heavy chain constant region (correct)
In allergic reactions, the activation of mast cells leading to degranulation is primarily triggered by:
In allergic reactions, the activation of mast cells leading to degranulation is primarily triggered by:
What is the primary effect of histamine release during an allergic reaction?
What is the primary effect of histamine release during an allergic reaction?
Which of the following is the correct method for inactivating complement in serum for serological tests, such as VDRL?
Which of the following is the correct method for inactivating complement in serum for serological tests, such as VDRL?
In the classical pathway of complement activation, which component binds directly to antibody-antigen complexes to initiate the cascade?
In the classical pathway of complement activation, which component binds directly to antibody-antigen complexes to initiate the cascade?
Which diagnostic test is most specific for Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?
Which diagnostic test is most specific for Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?
Which of the following properties of an antigen would likely result in the strongest immune response?
Which of the following properties of an antigen would likely result in the strongest immune response?
A researcher is working with a small, incomplete antigen (hapten) that, by itself, elicits a weak immune response. What strategy would be most effective to enhance its immunogenicity?
A researcher is working with a small, incomplete antigen (hapten) that, by itself, elicits a weak immune response. What strategy would be most effective to enhance its immunogenicity?
Which type of antibody can cross the placenta, potentially causing hemolytic disease of the newborn?
Which type of antibody can cross the placenta, potentially causing hemolytic disease of the newborn?
After an initial exposure to a pathogen, the body mounts an immune response. What characterizes the 'anamnestic response' observed during a second encounter with the same pathogen?
After an initial exposure to a pathogen, the body mounts an immune response. What characterizes the 'anamnestic response' observed during a second encounter with the same pathogen?
Which antibody type is primarily associated with protecting mucosal tissues from microbial invasion and maintaining immune homeostasis with the microbiota?
Which antibody type is primarily associated with protecting mucosal tissues from microbial invasion and maintaining immune homeostasis with the microbiota?
Which of the following best describes the role of IgE antibodies in the immune system?
Which of the following best describes the role of IgE antibodies in the immune system?
What is the primary function of the FAB (fragment antigen-binding) site on an antibody?
What is the primary function of the FAB (fragment antigen-binding) site on an antibody?
Heme agglutination, involving insoluble particulate antigens (e.g., RBCs), is an example of which immunological process?
Heme agglutination, involving insoluble particulate antigens (e.g., RBCs), is an example of which immunological process?
Which of the following best describes the role of phytohemagglutinin (PHA) in blood sample processing for karyotyping?
Which of the following best describes the role of phytohemagglutinin (PHA) in blood sample processing for karyotyping?
How does the enzyme pepsin modify an antibody molecule, and what fragments are produced as a result?
How does the enzyme pepsin modify an antibody molecule, and what fragments are produced as a result?
In the context of blood typing, what is the significance of Ulex europaeus?
In the context of blood typing, what is the significance of Ulex europaeus?
How does epistasis affect the expression of ABO blood type antigens in individuals with the Bombay phenotype?
How does epistasis affect the expression of ABO blood type antigens in individuals with the Bombay phenotype?
What is the primary function of the B-cell receptor (BCR) in B-cell activation?
What is the primary function of the B-cell receptor (BCR) in B-cell activation?
If a patient's blood sample displays agglutination with Anti-A (blue colored reagent) but not with Anti-B (yellow colored reagent), what is the patient's ABO blood type?
If a patient's blood sample displays agglutination with Anti-A (blue colored reagent) but not with Anti-B (yellow colored reagent), what is the patient's ABO blood type?
A researcher is studying antibody diversity. If they isolate a single antibody molecule from a patient, which combination of light chains would they expect to find?
A researcher is studying antibody diversity. If they isolate a single antibody molecule from a patient, which combination of light chains would they expect to find?
Plasma cells are found to be creating antibodies that lead to hepatosplenomegaly. Which type of immune response is most likely responsible for stimulating these plasma cells, and why?
Plasma cells are found to be creating antibodies that lead to hepatosplenomegaly. Which type of immune response is most likely responsible for stimulating these plasma cells, and why?
Which of the following statements correctly differentiates between MHC Class I and MHC Class II molecules?
Which of the following statements correctly differentiates between MHC Class I and MHC Class II molecules?
A researcher is studying the immune response to a novel bacterial infection. Based on the information provided, which T helper (TH) cell subset would MOST likely be involved in stimulating neutrophils to combat this infection?
A researcher is studying the immune response to a novel bacterial infection. Based on the information provided, which T helper (TH) cell subset would MOST likely be involved in stimulating neutrophils to combat this infection?
A patient is diagnosed with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE), an autoimmune disorder. Which of the following T cell imbalances could potentially contribute to the development of this condition?
A patient is diagnosed with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE), an autoimmune disorder. Which of the following T cell imbalances could potentially contribute to the development of this condition?
A pharmaceutical company is developing a novel drug that aims to enhance presentation of viral antigens. Which of the following mechanisms would be MOST effective in achieving this goal?
A pharmaceutical company is developing a novel drug that aims to enhance presentation of viral antigens. Which of the following mechanisms would be MOST effective in achieving this goal?
During an immune response, a cytokine is released that induces epithelial cells to produce antimicrobial peptides. Based on the provided information, which cytokine is MOST likely responsible for this effect?
During an immune response, a cytokine is released that induces epithelial cells to produce antimicrobial peptides. Based on the provided information, which cytokine is MOST likely responsible for this effect?
A researcher is investigating new strategies to enhance the cytotoxic activity of T cells against cancer cells. Targeting which of the following molecules would MOST likely enhance the ability of T cells to directly kill tumor cells?
A researcher is investigating new strategies to enhance the cytotoxic activity of T cells against cancer cells. Targeting which of the following molecules would MOST likely enhance the ability of T cells to directly kill tumor cells?
Which of the following processes is most directly facilitated by the interaction between B7 and CD28 during T cell activation?
Which of the following processes is most directly facilitated by the interaction between B7 and CD28 during T cell activation?
A patient with a genetic defect is unable to properly load exogenous antigens onto MHC Class II molecules. Which of the following immune processes would be MOST directly impaired in this patient?
A patient with a genetic defect is unable to properly load exogenous antigens onto MHC Class II molecules. Which of the following immune processes would be MOST directly impaired in this patient?
Which of the following characteristics distinguishes erythrocytes from leukocytes?
Which of the following characteristics distinguishes erythrocytes from leukocytes?
A patient exhibits symptoms indicative of a parasitic infection. Which type of granulocyte would you expect to be elevated in a complete blood count?
A patient exhibits symptoms indicative of a parasitic infection. Which type of granulocyte would you expect to be elevated in a complete blood count?
Why are mature erythrocytes unsuitable for genetic analysis?
Why are mature erythrocytes unsuitable for genetic analysis?
What is the primary role of the thymus in the immune system?
What is the primary role of the thymus in the immune system?
Which of the following best describes the role of the spleen in the context of blood cells?
Which of the following best describes the role of the spleen in the context of blood cells?
Where do hematopoietic stem cells primarily reside, and what is their defining characteristic?
Where do hematopoietic stem cells primarily reside, and what is their defining characteristic?
Which of the following processes occurs when an erythrocyte nears the end of its lifespan?
Which of the following processes occurs when an erythrocyte nears the end of its lifespan?
What is the primary distinction between active and passive immunity?
What is the primary distinction between active and passive immunity?
In the context of antibody structure, what region is responsible for antigen binding, and what is this region composed of?
In the context of antibody structure, what region is responsible for antigen binding, and what is this region composed of?
What is the role of the J-chain in the context of antibodies, and which antibody types does it affect primarily?
What is the role of the J-chain in the context of antibodies, and which antibody types does it affect primarily?
A patient presents with a high lymphocyte count. What are the potential implications of this finding?
A patient presents with a high lymphocyte count. What are the potential implications of this finding?
Which of the following describes how a monocyte differentiates in response to an antigen?
Which of the following describes how a monocyte differentiates in response to an antigen?
How does the structure of IgG and IgA antibodies differ from that of IgM and IgE antibodies regarding the fragment crystalline (Fc) region?
How does the structure of IgG and IgA antibodies differ from that of IgM and IgE antibodies regarding the fragment crystalline (Fc) region?
What is the likely cause of swollen lymph nodes near the back of the ear or neck?
What is the likely cause of swollen lymph nodes near the back of the ear or neck?
Phagocytes and probiotics are associated with which of the following?
Phagocytes and probiotics are associated with which of the following?
In autoimmune diseases, what is the typical behavior of complement proteins?
In autoimmune diseases, what is the typical behavior of complement proteins?
Which of the following best describes the role of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) in the immune system?
Which of the following best describes the role of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) in the immune system?
How do epithelial barriers, such as the skin, protect the body from pathogens?
How do epithelial barriers, such as the skin, protect the body from pathogens?
What is the primary function of lysozyme, and where can it be found in the body?
What is the primary function of lysozyme, and where can it be found in the body?
Which of the following is an example of the immune system's failure to distinguish between self and non-self?
Which of the following is an example of the immune system's failure to distinguish between self and non-self?
What is the outcome of an immune complex formation involving B anti-A antibody, A antigen, and complement?
What is the outcome of an immune complex formation involving B anti-A antibody, A antigen, and complement?
How does the mononuclear phagocyte system (MPS) contribute to the immune response?
How does the mononuclear phagocyte system (MPS) contribute to the immune response?
In the context of immunology, what distinguishes immunodeficiency from hypersensitivity?
In the context of immunology, what distinguishes immunodeficiency from hypersensitivity?
Flashcards
Complement Proteins
Complement Proteins
Proteins in blood that induce inflammation against pathogens.
Immunity
Immunity
Resistance to disease, often long-lasting after exposure.
Immune System
Immune System
System that identifies and protects against foreign pathogens.
Immunology
Immunology
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Serology
Serology
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Autoimmune Diseases
Autoimmune Diseases
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Immunodeficiency
Immunodeficiency
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Phagocytes
Phagocytes
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Foreignness & Immune Response
Foreignness & Immune Response
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Chemical Complexity & Immunity
Chemical Complexity & Immunity
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Molecular Weight & Immunogenicity
Molecular Weight & Immunogenicity
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Proteins vs. Carbohydrates (Antigenicity)
Proteins vs. Carbohydrates (Antigenicity)
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Epitope
Epitope
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Artificial Passive Immunity
Artificial Passive Immunity
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IgG Antibody
IgG Antibody
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Agglutinogen
Agglutinogen
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Ester bond
Ester bond
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Disulfide bond
Disulfide bond
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Peptide bond
Peptide bond
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Glycosidic bond
Glycosidic bond
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Heavy chain function
Heavy chain function
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Histamine
Histamine
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Complement System Functions
Complement System Functions
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Membrane Attack Complex (MAC)
Membrane Attack Complex (MAC)
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Hepatosplenomegaly cause
Hepatosplenomegaly cause
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T-cell independent B-cell activation
T-cell independent B-cell activation
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First line of defense
First line of defense
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Second line of defense
Second line of defense
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Third line of defense
Third line of defense
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Pepsin role
Pepsin role
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Phytohemagglutinin (PHA)
Phytohemagglutinin (PHA)
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Epistasis
Epistasis
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IL-6
IL-6
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TH Cell
TH Cell
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TH2
TH2
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TH17
TH17
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TS / TReg
TS / TReg
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TC Cell
TC Cell
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MHC I
MHC I
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MHC II
MHC II
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Platelets/Thrombocytes
Platelets/Thrombocytes
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WBC/Leukocytes
WBC/Leukocytes
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Hematopoietic Stem Cell
Hematopoietic Stem Cell
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Histiocytes
Histiocytes
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RBC/Erythrocytes
RBC/Erythrocytes
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Eosinophil
Eosinophil
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Basophil
Basophil
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Neutrophil
Neutrophil
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Lymphocytes
Lymphocytes
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Monocytes
Monocytes
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Primary Lymphoid Organs
Primary Lymphoid Organs
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Secondary Lymphoid Organs
Secondary Lymphoid Organs
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Antigen
Antigen
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Antigenicity/Immunogenicity
Antigenicity/Immunogenicity
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Active Antibody
Active Antibody
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Study Notes
- The immune system identifies pathogens as foreign and provides protection against diseases
- Immunology studies the immune system in states of health and disease, dealing with its malfunctions
- Serology studies antigen-antibody reactions
- A properly functioning one recognizes self versus non-self
Malfunctions of the Immune System
- Autoimmune diseases occur when the body attacks its own antigens with autoantibodies, SLE is a common example in females
- Hypersensitivities are immune overreactions; type 1 includes allergic reactions
- Immunodeficiency involves the loss of the capability to distinguish self from non-self
- Immunocompromised individuals (e.g., those with HIV) are examples
- Geriatric immunodeficiency occurs after age 65 due to immunosenescence as chromosomes shorten with mitosis, and G1 becomes G0
- Pediatric immunodeficiency occurs because infants under 6 months have diminishing maternal antibodies and an underdeveloped immune system
- Transplant rejection occurs when the graft tissue attacks the host (graft vs. host) or the host attacks the graft (host vs. graft), and is exemplified by blood transfusions
Types of Immune Systems
- Innate immunity provides a non-specific, localized inflammatory response for protection, marked by redness, swelling, heat, and pain
- Adaptive immunity provides a specific antibody response dependent on the antigen
Complement Proteins
- Complement proteins are native proteins in blood circulation that induce inflammation as a response against pathogens
- In autoimmune diseases, complement is consumed
- An example of their function would be B anti-A antibody + A antigen + complement = immune complex which then leads to lysis → hemoglobin release → death
- B anti-A antibody + A antigen can also lead to agglutination
Epithelial Barriers
- Impenetrable skin with waxy keratin
- This is only as long as it remains intact
Phagocytes
- Mononuclear phagocyte system (MPS) cells, such as macrophages, are examples
- Lysozyme targets PDG Gram (+) and is found in saliva and tears
- Antigen-presenting cells (APCs) are highly phagocytic cells that encounter invaders first and function in both innate and adaptive immunity
- APCs process foreign substances in lysosomes, fragmenting them into antigens coupled to MHC class II, and present these to T-cells
- Macrophages, dendritic cells, and mast cells are examples of APCs
Other Cells
- Neutrophils are another cell type
- Natural killer cells are lymphocytes with granules that automatically destroy virally infected and cancerous cells
- Gastric acid is also a part of the immune system
Adaptive Immunity
- The specific antibody response depends on the antigen, such as anti-hepa B antibody targeting hepa B antigen
- All antibodies are immunogammaglobulin
- Lymphocytes can be distinguished but T-cells versus B-cells cannot be differentiated in peripheral blood smears, with Wright-Giemsa being the best stain for blood
T-Cells
- T-cells are cell-mediated and mature into effector T-cells
- When MHC class II tag is recognized, lymphoblasts enlarge and proliferate to amplify the immune response
- T-cells, along with basophils, mast cells, and dendritic cells, are generated in bone marrow and mature in the thymus
- Helper T-cells (TH) upregulate the immune system; immunocompetence is balanced with a 2 TH to 1 Ts ratio, with low numbers or reversal indicating immunodeficiency
- Suppressor T-cells (Ts) downregulate gene expression
- Cytotoxic T-cells (TC) are analogous to NK cells, activated by antigens to destroy virally infected and tumor cells
B-Cells
- B-cells utilize antibodies, and are part of the humoral (liquid) immunity
- Generated and mature in bone marrow but in birds, B-cells mature in the bursa of fabricius
Additional Information
- Serum is the liquid after blood has clotted, while plasma is the liquid with an addition of anticoagulant
- Leishmania can survive inside highly acidic environments like lysosomes
Blood
- Hematopoietic stem cells are multipotent/pluripotent cells found in bone marrow, where all IS cells originate
- Lymphoid stem cells mainly produce adaptive immunity, while myeloid progenitors produce natural immunity
- Histiocytes are specifically tissue macrophages
RBCs/Erythrocytes
- Most abundant due to the need to carry oxygen
- Biconcave and anucleated for efficient oxygen distribution
- Never used for genetic analysis
- During erythroblast maturation in bone marrow, the nucleus is lost before release into peripheral blood
- Hematologists visit if nucleated RBCs are present
- Males have 5.5L due to having an abundance of androgen
- Erythropoietic
- Females have 4.5L resulting from having low androgen and menstruation
- Lifespan for 2-3 months
- Near death, change osmotic pressure becomes permeable, causing water to enter, and the cell to burst when dead, it then releases hemoglobin
Hemoglobin
- Heme is ferrous (Fe+2) + protoporphyrin
- Mostly recycled
- Excess stored in ferritin (a protein) in the liver as ferric (Fe+3)
- Becomes bilirubin (yellow pigment)
- LB1 has cyanotic reactions and inabilities to get oxygen, and it is also jaundice
- Globin (protein) is then recycled
- High RBC indicates erythrocytosis
- Low RBC then indicates anemia
- Erythroblastosis is a complication for newborns
- Rh female + Rh+ male leads to an alive and Rh+ first born which creates anti-Rh that is neutralized by RhoGAM, then attaching to make sure to prevent lysis, resulting in an attacked 2nd child
- Majority of Filipinos are Rh+
- ABO compatibility will results in mild effects because of the IgM pentamer
Platelets/Thrombocytes
- 150,000-400,000 per µL
- Not true cells, but remnants of megakaryocytes granules and cytoplasm
- Grows by 4x in size
- Located only in bone marrow and is anucleated, but has mtDNA
WBCs/Leukocytes
- Lowest in count
- Visit immunologist with high/low count results
- -philia is high WBC
-
- penia is low WBC
Granulocytes
- Eosinophil is bilobed with red-orange granules in cytoplasm
- High eosinophil indicates asthma or parasitism resulting in Charcot Leyden crystals that also cause perennial cough and cough
- Basophil is bilobed with blue-black granules in its entire cell
- Mast cell also is a tissue basophil
- High basophil means allergic reaction
- Neutrophil has pinkish, azurophilic granules
- Usually has 2-3 lobes
- First line of defense
- Microphage in presence of antigen
- High neutrophil indicates bacterial infection
Agranulocytes
- Lymphocytes have high nucleus to cytoplasmic ratio with large and compact nucleus for favorable genetics analysis
- Found in lymphoid tissue, blood, and organs
- Act as receptor for specific antigens, and meditate adaptive immune response
- For DNA tests and identity analysis
Other
- High lymphocytes indicates immunodeficiency or viral infection
- Monocytes are the largest WBC in peripheral blood with a horseshoe or kidney shaped nucleus
- Macrophage in presence of antigen
- Fill in wounds in areas that have collagen and almost healed, along with amorphous
- High monocyte indicates the body has TB, or bacterial infection
Organs of the Immune System
- The primary lymphoid organs are the bone marrow (replaced by fetal liver as we age) and the thymus (atrophies/decreases in size as we age)
- Secondary lymphoid organs like lymph nodes are where APCs proceed for activation to introduce T-cells, causing swelling and cytokine release to activate other lymphocytes; lymph nodes have lymph vessels carrying lymphatic fluid (water) and lymphocytes
- Swollen in the back of ear or neck indicates weak lungs
- Swollen at armpit indicates breast infection
- Swollen at groin indicates STI
- Other secondary lymphoid organs include the tonsils (adenoid organ), spleen (filters blood, distributes T- and B-cells, graveyard of blood), gut-associated lymphoid tissue (with probiotics, phagocytes, and immune cells), and cutaneous-associated lymphoid tissue
Antigen and Antibody
- Antigens are any substances that initiate antibody protection
- Immunogen specifically elicits immune response
- The more foreign and complexed an antigen is in the animal, the more immunogenic it is
- Chemical nature: proteins are preferable over CHO
- CHO usually has epitope
Antibodies
- FAB binds to antigen
- Requires adjuvant to make light antigen be useful for the body
- Made from fragments of antibody binding size
- Antibody structure is often characterized by X-ray diffraction/crystallography
- Myeloma protein causes multiple myeloma which leads to abnormal proteins that can lead to cancer
Types of antibodies
-
IgG: 150,000 Da
- Can cross placenta
- Hemolytic disease can occur
- Anamnestic response will occur with boosters
- Most 80% of Ig
-
Serum lgA: 160,000 Da
- Protection from mucosa
- Main homeostasis
- lgD: 180,000 Da
- Found when there is Hepa D
-
lgE -180,000-200,000 Da
- linked to reaction
- Can be a dimer and secretory
-
lgM: 900,000 Da
- Cannot cross the placenta
- Acute and recent encounters
Other Notes
- Overview of the stages of immune response: It begins with antigen recognition → follows with a natural then an adaptive response
- Microbial invasion/priming is the 1st major point, the 2nd is microphage
- B-cell has resistance to microbial outbreaks due to its first engagement
Allergies(Type 1 Hypersensitivity)
- Itchiness (pruritus) and bumps on skin
- Due to release of basophil granules and vessel dilation
- Drop in BP then will results in anaphylactic shock
- Pantal is for quick fixes
- Sensitization allows antigen coating
- Desensitization familiarizes the consumption
- Histamine causes cardial Wheal leading to allergic reaction
- Treated by antihistamine
Antigen - Antibody Reactions
- Agglutination will form clogging and aggregation with insoluble antigens
- Agglutinin: IgM binding to antigen
- Precipitation works with soluble antigens
- Precipitation requires an equal no. of antigens, not more or none, in order to be affective, with potential serial dilutions to get to the maximum results to determine the negative
- Antibody then nullifies the toxic level to antigens with the need of complement to fully activate it
Other Notes
-
The enzyme Pepsin - Cleaves below the hinge region, producing F(ab')2 and an Fc fragment.
-
The enzyme Papain - Cleaves above the hinge region, producing two Fab fragments and an Fc fragment.
-
Rh - IgG has lambda and kappa for all kinds, both not ever present in both antibodies, but they can each independently in the people
-
Requires T cell
- opsonin
- macrophage
- lysosome
Other
- Sweets causes coughs
- Parasites and iron causes lack of brain function
- Type O is an abence
- Histiocytes transport of cell
- Intact skin is the first
- Shorter peptide means cells are more complexed
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Description
Test your knowledge of immunology with these practice questions. Topics include antibody structure, protein electrophoresis, allergic reactions, complement activation, and diagnostic tests for autoimmune diseases. Review key concepts in immune responses.