Immunological System and Medications

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following is an example of a substance released during the first phase of an immune response?

  • Bradykinin (correct)
  • Antibiotics
  • Cyclosporine
  • Cytokines

What is the primary function of anti-inflammatory medications in the context of the immune response?

  • To stop or reduce inflammation (correct)
  • To suppress bone marrow activity
  • To stimulate the production of cytokines
  • To directly attack invading pathogens

What is a potential adverse effect associated with Vancomycin and Gentamicin, as mentioned in the text?

  • Nephrotoxicity (correct)
  • Reduced Cytokine production
  • Bone marrow suppression
  • Increased inflammatory response

Which immune cell type is responsible for releasing cytokines to affect other cells?

<p>T cells (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are anti-infective medications/antibiotics classified?

<p>By their mechanism and structure (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential consequence of antibiotic use as described?

<p>Superinfection (e.g., yeast infection) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of B cells in the second phase of the immune response?

<p>To record the infection (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary effect of Cyclosporine?

<p>Suppressing bone marrow and immune response (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it necessary to check blood levels when administering Vancomycin or Gentamicin?

<p>To make sure the medications do not lead to kidney damage (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the information, what do bacteria names come from?

<p>Shape (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it generally advised to avoid prescribing penicillin and cephalosporin together?

<p>There is an increased risk of toxicity due to their similar properties. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What consideration is most important when prescribing tetracycline to a patient?

<p>Potential for staining teeth and avoiding use in pregnant women. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do macrolides exert their antimicrobial effect?

<p>By interfering with bacterial protein synthesis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key consideration regarding azithromycin's metabolism?

<p>It is metabolized by the liver, necessitating liver enzyme monitoring. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient has a known allergy to penicillin, which of the following medications should be prescribed with caution, considering potential cross-reactivity?

<p>Cephalosporin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary route of administration for amoxicillin?

<p>Oral (PO) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common therapeutic use of fluconazole?

<p>Fungal infections, particularly yeast infections (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed ciprofloxacin. To what class of antibiotics does this medication belong?

<p>Quinolones (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the potential implication of prescribing amoxicillin to a woman of childbearing age?

<p>High potential to get pregnant (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action for antifungal medications like fluconazole?

<p>Disrupting fungal cell membranes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary pharmacological action of antiviral medications?

<p>To suppress viral reproduction within the host. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a primary indication for valacyclovir?

<p>Chickenpox and shingles (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Enfuvirtide inhibits HIV by interfering with what process?

<p>Viral fusion with the host cell membrane (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ritonavir belongs to which class of antiretroviral medications?

<p>Protease inhibitors (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Elvitegravir inhibits which specific viral enzyme?

<p>Integrase (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Maraviroc prevents HIV infection by targeting which of the following?

<p>Host cell CCR5 receptor (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A decrease in red blood cells (RBCs) as a result of chemotherapy increases the risk of what condition?

<p>Infection (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is chemotherapy considered patient-specific in its application?

<p>Dosage and drug selection must be tailored to the individual's condition and response. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which route of administration is commonly associated with chemotherapy?

<p>Intravenous (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A decrease in white blood cells (WBCs) and platelets commonly associated with chemotherapy increases the risk of which condition?

<p>Bleeding (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it critical to use multiple methods of birth control when Filgrastim is prescribed?

<p>To mitigate the high risk of birth defects if pregnancy occurs during Filgrastim treatment. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most crucial instruction to give a patient when prescribing antibiotics?

<p>Complete the entire course of medication as prescribed. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How might certain 'cillins' and 'cyclines' affect the efficacy of oral contraceptives?

<p>They can interfere with the way the body processes birth control medication, potentially lessening its effectiveness. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should patients avoid alcohol consumption while taking antibiotics?

<p>Alcohol can interfere with the metabolism and effectiveness of certain antibiotics and increase the risk of side effects. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an important consideration when instructing a patient on how to take azithromycin?

<p>Take on an empty stomach to maximize absorption. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When administering sulfa medications, what critical advice should be given to patients regarding sun exposure and hydration?

<p>Encourage ample hydration and advise avoiding prolonged sun exposure. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is monitoring urine output particularly important for patients receiving Myacin?

<p>Myacin can be nephrotoxic, and reduced urine output may indicate kidney damage. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the combined significance of nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity associated with Myacin?

<p>They indicate potential damage to the kidneys and ears, respectively, requiring careful monitoring. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking sulfa medication is also prescribed folic acid. Why is folic acid supplementation important in this situation?

<p>To prevent a potential folic acid deficiency that may occur with sulfa use. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are urine samples collected and analyzed for patients taking sulfa medications?

<p>To assess kidney function and detect crystal formation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the action of an agonist?

<p>Mimics a neurotransmitter, producing the same effect. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Atropine is an example of which type of substance?

<p>An antagonist, blocking receptors. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Cocaine's effect on neurotransmitters is best described as:

<p>Inhibiting reuptake, thus increasing neurotransmitter presence in the synapse. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following neurotransmitters primarily functions as an inhibitory neurotransmitter?

<p>Serotonin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which neurotransmitter is known to have both inhibitory and excitatory effects?

<p>Acetylcholine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a drug's mechanism of action involves stopping the effect of excitatory drugs, it would be considered:

<p>An inhibitory substance. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following neurotransmitters is associated with excitatory functions?

<p>Dopamine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which neurotransmitter is identified as an excitatory neurotransmitter that influences mood and is potentially involved in conditions like depression?

<p>Histamine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct association between the effect and neurotransmitter?

<p>Norepinephrine - Excitatory (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

GABA primarily functions to:

<p>Inhibit neuronal activity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the primary action of cholinergic drugs?

<p>Releasing acetylcholine. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the intended effect of adrenergic medications on the body?

<p>To relax the body. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following distinguishes acetaminophen from opioid analgesics?

<p>Acetaminophen lacks anti-inflammatory effects. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Fentanyl, a strong pain killer, has which notable effect on the body?

<p>Suppresses the central nervous system. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What life-threatening condition is Naloxone used as an antidote for?

<p>Opioid overdose. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Benzodiazepines, like alprazolam, are primarily prescribed to treat which condition?

<p>Anxiety. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are some potential consequences of excessive use of medications with a calming effect?

<p>Coma, especially when combined with alcohol. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) like Fluoxetine primarily function?

<p>Inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do Selective Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors (SNRIs) primarily function?

<p>Block the reputake of norepinephrine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the therapeutic effect of Buspirone?

<p>Anxiolytic effect (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications is typically used to treat insomnia?

<p>Zolpidem (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Phenytoin is primarily used in the treatment of which condition?

<p>Seizures (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Levetiracetam is commonly prescribed for what type of seizure?

<p>Partial onset seizures (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a critical recommendation for a patient who is prescribed an antidepressant?

<p>Discuss with healthcare provider before discontinuing the medication. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?

<p>Inhibit the reuptake of serotonin. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient abruptly stops taking their antidepressant medication. What is a potential consequence from discontinuing?

<p>Antidepressant discontinuation syndrome (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are some symptoms of antidepressant discontinuation syndrome?

<p>Rebound insomnia, nausea, and anxiety (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Dextroamphetamine is primarily used in the treatment of which condition?

<p>Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which neurotransmitter system is primarily affected by Phenytoin to exert its antiseizure effects?

<p>GABA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does this mean: 'mood is someone behavior change constantly'?

<p>An individual's emotional state that changes over time due to their behavior (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What physiological effects might indicate serotonin syndrome?

<p>Sweating, restlessness, dilated pupils, seizure, changes in blood pressure, and tachycardia. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it essential to conduct regular blood tests for patients taking lithium?

<p>To monitor lithium levels in the blood and ensure they remain within a safe therapeutic range. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What dietary restriction is typically recommended for individuals on lithium therapy, and why?

<p>Avoid table salt (sodium chloride) to prevent potentially fatal consequences. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should a patient taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) avoid taking it with other medications?

<p>To avoid potentially dangerous interactions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which combination of medications could potentially lead to serotonin syndrome?

<p>An antidepressant combined with medications for migraine pain and/or herbal medications. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are some of the side effects of lithium that patients should be aware of?

<p>Poor coordination, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, and potential for overdose. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication class is Haloperidol part of, and what is its primary use?

<p>Antipsychotic; addresses abnormal actions and behaviors. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Selective Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors (SNRIs) and Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) both manipulate neurotransmitters, so what do SNRIs block the reuptake of?

<p>Norepinephrine. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential sign of Serotonin Syndrome?

<p>Dilated pupils (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A person exhibiting dehydration, poor coordination, and gastrointestinal distress may be experiencing toxicity from which medication?

<p>Lithium. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) are primarily attributed to the disruption of which neurotransmitter in the midbrain?

<p>Dopamine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient exhibiting involuntary muscle contractions and abnormal postures is likely experiencing which specific type of extrapyramidal symptom?

<p>Acute dystonia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately distinguishes between dementia and Alzheimer's disease?

<p>Dementia is a syndrome characterized by cognitive decline, while Alzheimer's is a specific neurodegenerative disease causing dementia. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Donepezil is often prescribed for cognitive impairment. Which of the following best describes its primary therapeutic goal?

<p>To manage symptoms and temporarily improve cognitive function. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Carbidopa is combined with levodopa in Parkinson's disease treatment to achieve what primary pharmacological effect?

<p>To prevent the peripheral breakdown of levodopa, allowing more to reach the brain. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of Parkinson's disease management with Carbidopa/Levodopa, under what circumstance might a planned 'drug holiday' involving stopping medication for a week and then restarting be considered?

<p>To manage severe side effects or loss of drug efficacy over time. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following administration routes is most characteristic of local anesthesia application for minor skin procedures?

<p>Topical cream or aerosol spray (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Propofol is a general anesthetic agent primarily used for induction and maintenance of anesthesia. What is the most critical physiological parameter to monitor in a patient receiving propofol?

<p>Airway and respiratory status (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Extrapyramidal symptoms are associated with dysfunction in which specific brain region?

<p>Midbrain (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key differentiating factor between local and general anesthesia in terms of their effects on patient consciousness?

<p>Local anesthesia primarily numbs a specific area of the body without loss of consciousness, while general anesthesia induces a state of unconsciousness. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the chain of infection, if handwashing is effectively implemented to prevent the spread of pathogens after contact with a contaminated surface, which link in the chain is being directly addressed?

<p>Mode of Transmission (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a productive cough and is diagnosed with influenza. Considering the 'portal of exit' in the chain of infection, which action is most crucial to prevent the spread of infection from this patient?

<p>Educating the patient on proper cough etiquette and respiratory hygiene (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the primary assessment of a patient who is suspected of having a severe infection, which of the 'ABCs' should be immediately prioritized and addressed to ensure patient stability?

<p>Airway, to maintain patency for effective respiration (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a nursing assessment, the Braden Scale is utilized to evaluate a patient's risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which category of the Braden Scale assesses the degree to which skin is exposed to moisture?

<p>Moisture (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with limited mobility and consistently spends most of the day in a chair is being assessed using the Braden Scale. Which component of the scale directly addresses this aspect of the patient's lifestyle?

<p>Activity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the Rule of Nines in burn assessment, what percentage of the total body surface area (TBSA) is estimated to be burned if an adult patient has burns covering the entire front of the trunk and the entire front of the right leg?

<p>27% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A burn that is classified as a second-degree burn involves which layers of the skin?

<p>Epidermis and dermis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is admitted with a burn that is described as involving subcutaneous tissue. According to burn depth classifications, how would this burn be categorized?

<p>Third-degree burn (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In assessing a patient's 'quality of breathing', which of the following assessment findings would be most concerning and indicate potential respiratory distress?

<p>Use of accessory muscles and nasal flaring (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a 'head-to-toe' assessment, which element is crucial to evaluate when assessing a patient's circulatory status?

<p>Pulse rate and quality (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What formula would be used to calculate the total body surface area affected by a burn?

<p>Rule of Nines (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During initial burn management, why is it important to remove the patient's clothing?

<p>To accurately assess the extent and depth of the burn. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is fluid resuscitation (lactate ranges) a critical intervention in the acute phase of burn management?

<p>To address hypovolemia and maintain organ perfusion. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the 'Rule of Nines', what percentage of total body surface area (TBSA) does the entire trunk represent in an adult?

<p>39% (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What key elements are included in the diagnosis of a burn?

<p>Assessing pain level, measuring burn dimensions, and obtaining laboratory tests. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which vital signs are critical to monitor when assessing a burn patient?

<p>Temperature, pulse, and respiration (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the 'Rule of Nines', what percentage of total body surface area is assigned to the front of the leg?

<p>9% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In planning care for a burn patient, what is the initial priority beyond immediate life-saving measures?

<p>Identifying necessary supplies and ensuring a clean environment (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the 'Rule of Nines', what percentage of TBSA does the perineum area represent?

<p>1% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following the 'ABCs' during the primary survey of a burn patient, what immediate intervention helps to stabilize circulation?

<p>Initiating intravenous fluid resuscitation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the 'evaluate' phase of patient care, what action would be most appropriate if the initial intervention proves ineffective?

<p>Reassess the situation and modify the care plan. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What nursing action might be implemented to reduce pressure injury risk, based on the Braden scale assessment?

<p>Providing a pillow or changing position (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which phase of nursing care is the effectiveness of implemented interventions primarily assessed?

<p>Evaluation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an example of an action within the 'implementation' phase?

<p>Performing a wound dressing change. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When stimulation is administered, which of the following assessments should be performed?

<p>Monitoring the patient's breathing and respiratory effort (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If the skin turgor was not assessed of elasticity, what might that indicate?

<p>The patient assessment was incomplete. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient's Braden scale indicates a high risk (10-12) for pressure injury, what nursing intervention is most appropriate?

<p>Implementing a turning and repositioning schedule. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If interventions related to the patient's breathing and respiratory effort are not working, what is the most reasonable action?

<p>Performing a new assessment (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What actions should the nurse take into account when wound packing?

<p>The type of dressing, technique, and the patient's pain level. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During implementation, what is the nurse's primary responsibility in relation to the care plan?

<p>Carrying out the interventions outlined in the care plan. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

First Phase Immune Mediators

Molecules like bradykinin, complement, histamine, leukotriene, and prostaglandins involved in the initial immune response.

Anti-inflammatory

Substances that counteract inflammation, reducing swelling and pain.

Immunosuppressant

Medications like cyclosporine that suppress the immune system, often used for long-term inflammatory diseases.

B-cells role

These cells launch targeted attacks and create immunological memory.

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T-cells Action

These cells release cytokines to coordinate immune responses.

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Cytokines

Inflammatory molecules released to cause inflammation and attack invaders.

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Anti-infective/Antibiotics

Medications that combat infections.

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Antibiotics

Drugs that kill bacteria, classified by their mechanism or structure.

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Antibiotic Risks

Antibiotics that can kill healthy/normal flora, causing an overgrowth of pathogens (super infection/yeast infection.)

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Penicillin

Effective against gram-positive bacteria, administered orally, topically, or intravenously.

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Cephalosporins

Similar to penicillin; use cautiously in patients allergic to penicillin due to potential for toxicity. Should not be prescribed together.

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Tetracycline

Can cause tooth staining; avoid prescribing for pregnant women.

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Macrolides

Inhibit microbial reproduction by interfering with protein synthesis. They can be bacteriocidal or bacteriostatic.

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Fluconazole

Treat fungal infections. Commonly prescribed for women on antibiotics to prevent yeast infections.

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Azithromycin (Macrolide)

Inhibits reproduction of microbes by protein synthesis thus bacteriocidal/bacteriostatics that can treat many infections. Metabolized by the liver, monitor liver enzymes

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Amoxilin antibiotic

Can cause harm to a fetus, do not prescribe while pregnant

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Virus

Microscopic entities that require a host cell to replicate; they cannot be cured but their reproduction can be suppressed.

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Valacyclovir

An antiviral medication used to treat viral infections such as chickenpox and shingles.

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Antiretroviral medication

A class of drugs used to treat retroviral infections, primarily HIV.

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Lamivudine

Inhibits reverse transcriptase, a viral enzyme crucial for HIV replication.

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Enfuvirtide

Fusion inhibitor that prevents HIV from entering host cells.

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Ritonavir

Protease inhibitor used to prevent the cleavage of viral polyproteins into functional proteins.

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Elvitegravir

Integrase strand transfer inhibitor (INSTI) that blocks the integration of viral DNA into the host cell genome.

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Maraviroc

CCR5 antagonist that blocks HIV entry into cells by binding to the CCR5 co-receptor.

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Antimalarials

Medications used to treat malaria infections.

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Chemotherapy

Treatment of disease with chemical substances; often used for cancer.

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Filgrastim

Medications that stimulate the immune system.

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Antibiotics and Birth Control

Antibiotics can reduce the effect of birth control; use multiple protection methods.

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Antibiotic course

It is important the patient takes all the medication given to them until it is finsihed

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Azithromycin Administration

Medication to be taken on an empty stomach

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Sulfa Medication Guidelines

Avoid sun exposure, drink plenty of water, take folic acid, and monitor urine for kidney efficiency.

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Myacin Toxicity

Very toxic medication, can cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity; monitor urine output.

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Agonist

Substance that binds to a receptor and produces the same effect as a neurotransmitter.

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Antagonist

Substance that blocks a receptor, opposing the effect of a neurotransmitter.

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Reuptake

Process where a neurotransmitter is reabsorbed by the presynaptic neuron after signaling.

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Excitatory Neurotransmitters

Neurotransmitters that stimulate neural activity.

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Inhibitory Neurotransmitters

Neurotransmitters like serotonin and GABA, that reduce neural activity.

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Dopamine

Neurotransmitter primarily responsible for pleasure and reward, also an excitatory neurotransmitter.

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Serotonin

Neurotransmitter that regulates mood, sleep, and appetite; primarily an inhibitory neurotransmitter.

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Norepinephrine

Neurotransmitter involved in alertness and arousal; an excitatory neurotransmitter.

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Histamine

Neurotransmitter that modulates sleep-wake cycles, gastric secretion, and inflammatory responses; an excitatory neurotransmitter.

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GABA

Main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain.

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Analgesics

Medications that reduce pain.

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Opioid Analgesics

Strong pain killer that suppresses the central nervous system (CNS).

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Fentanyl

A potent, synthetic opioid analgesic, often administered intravenously.

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Naloxone

Drug used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose.

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Anxiety

A state characterized by intense fear, danger, and tension.

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Benzodiazepine

Class of drugs with a calming effect; excessive amounts can lead to coma.

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SSRIs

Increase serotonin levels in the brain by blocking reuptake.

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SNRIs

Increases serotonin and norepinephrine levels in the brain by blocking reuptake.

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Fluoxetine

A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) used to treat depression, OCD, and some eating disorders.

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Buspirone

An anxiolytic medication that works by affecting serotonin and dopamine levels.

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Insomnia

Difficulty falling or staying asleep.

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Insomnia Medications

Drugs like barbiturates and zolpidem used to induce sleep.

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Antiseizure

Medications used to prevent or control seizures.

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Levetiracetam

An anti-seizure medication used to treat partial onset seizures.

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Mood Disorder

A mental disorder that affects mood or emotions.

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Social Struggles

People behavior that have difficulty maintaining relationships..

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Shifting Moods

Someone whose mood is constantly changing.

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ADD/ADHD medication

Medication such as amphetamine and dextroamphetamine

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Antidepressant Discontinuation Syndrome

A syndrome from stopping your antidepressant medication abruptly that includes insomnia, nausea, and anxiety.

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Serotonin Syndrome

A potentially life-threatening condition caused by excessive serotonin activity in the central nervous system.

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Serotonin Syndrome Symptoms

Sweating, restlessness, dilated pupils, seizure, changes in blood pressure, and tachycardia.

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Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor

A class of antidepressants that inhibit the activity of monoamine oxidase enzymes, increasing the availability of certain neurotransmitters.

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Mood Stabilizers

Medications that help stabilize mood fluctuations, often used in the treatment of bipolar disorder.

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Antipsychotic

Medication to treat psychosis examples include seeing abnormal actions and behaviors.

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Haloperidol

A traditional antipsychotic medication used to manage psychotic disorders.

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Extrapyramidal Symptoms

A set of symptoms often caused by blocking dopamine in the midbrain, including acute dystonia, akathisia, and shuffling gait.

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Dementia

A progressive, irreversible decline in mental function. It is a symptom, not a disease.

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Parkinson's Disease

A disease characterized by tremor, rigidity, and slow movement.

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Carbidopa/Levodopa

Medication combination used to treat Parkinson's disease. Both medications are needed.

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Local Anesthesia

Anesthesia used to numb a small area.

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General Anesthesia

Anesthesia that affects the whole body.

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Propofol

An anesthetic medication requiring careful attention to the patient's airway.

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Portal of Exit

The route by which an infectious agent leaves the reservoir.

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Mode of Transmission

The way an infectious agent transfers from one source to another, like through contact or airborne particles.

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Portal of Entry

The route through which an infectious agent enters a new host.

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Susceptible Host

A person or animal that is likely to contract an infection.

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ABCs

Rapid assessment to determine Airway, Breathing, and Circulation.

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Brading Scale

A tool to quickly assess key areas: nutrition, sensation, moisture, activity and mobility.

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NP Assessment

Assessment that includes inspection, health history, and assessment from head to toes.

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Rule of 9's

Used to estimate the total body surface area (TBSA) affected by a burn in adults.

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1st Degree Burn

Burn that affects only the epidermis (outer layer of skin).

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2nd Degree Burn

Burn that extends through the epidermis and into the dermis.

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Immediate Burn Care

Providing water, removing clothing, and covering the patient are immediate steps in burn care.

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Lactate role

Lactate ranges are used to rehydrate a burn patient.

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Wound measurement

Used to assess wounds length, diameter and depth.

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Labs in Burns

A complete blood count (CBC) and hematocrit are common lab tests ordered.

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Vitals signs

Assess temperature, pulse, respiration rate

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Pain scale

Pain is scaled 0 to 10.

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Burn Treatment Planning

Supplies and a clean environment are vital.

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Implementation

To put the plan into action, carrying out interventions like wound dressing, wound vac application or administering pain medication, according to the care plan.

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Evaluate

Reviewing and assessing patient outcomes to see if interventions were effective; if not, reassess, and modify the approach by redoing or changing the procedure, adjusting the patients position, etc.

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Stimulate Assessment

Assess neurologic status, urine specific gravity, breathing, and respiration, to ensure proper patient care.

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Braden Scale (high risk)

A tool to asses key areas of a person to determine the risk of a person developing a pressure injury (10-12).

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Study Notes

  • Implementation involves following the established plan, such as wound dressing, wound VAC, and administering pain medication
  • Evaluation involves providing tune and evaluating the patient outcome to see if it worked
  • If it does not work, redo or change the procedure through things like pillowing and changing position
  • Stimulate through things like, Neuro, US, breathing and Resp(iration)
  • Avoid touching without gloves
  • Skin turgor may not an an assess of elasticity
  • Braden scale is elevated, indicating a high risk (10-12) of pressure injury, also known as "thundering packing"

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